Pathophysiology Exam 3

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Pathophysiology Quizzes & Trivia

Nursing patho exam Over Modules 10, 11, 12, 16


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What is the term for erythrocytes of various sizes?

    • A.

      Anisocytosis

    • B.

      Poikilocytosis

    • C.

      Anemias

    • D.

      Polycythemias

    Correct Answer
    A. Anisocytosis
  • 2. 

    Name  normocytic-normochromic anemia

    • A.

      Aplastic anemia

    • B.

      Posthemorrhagic anemia

    • C.

      Hemolytic anemia

    • D.

      Anemia of chronic inflammation

    • E.

      Sickle cell anemia

    • F.

      Macro anemia

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Aplastic anemia
    B. Posthemorrhagic anemia
    C. Hemolytic anemia
    D. Anemia of chronic inflammation
    E. Sickle cell anemia
  • 3. 

    Name Macrocytic normochromic anemia

    • A.

      Pernicious anemia

    • B.

      Sideroblastic anemia

    • C.

      Folate deficiency anemia

    • D.

      Iron deficiency anemia

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Pernicious anemia
    C. Folate deficiency anemia
  • 4. 

    Name Microcytic-hypochromic anemia

    • A.

      Iron deficiency anemia

    • B.

      Aplastic anemia

    • C.

      Folate deficiency anemia

    • D.

      Sideroblastic anemia

    • E.

      Hemolytic anemia

    • F.

      Sickle cell anemia

    • G.

      Thalassemia

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Iron deficiency anemia
    D. Sideroblastic anemia
    G. Thalassemia
  • 5. 

     large, abnormally shaped erythrocytes, normal hemoglobin concentrations?

    • A.

      Normocytic-normochromic anemia

    • B.

      Microcytic-hypochromic anemia:

    • C.

      Macrocytic normochromic anemia

    Correct Answer
    C. Macrocytic normochromic anemia
  • 6. 

     normal size, normal hemoglobin contration

    • A.

      Microcytic-hypochromic anemia

    • B.

      Normocytic-normochromic anemia

    • C.

      Macrocytic normochromic anemia

    Correct Answer
    B. Normocytic-normochromic anemia
  • 7. 

    Small abnormally shaped erythrocytes and reduced hemoglobin concentration

    • A.

      Microcytic-hypochromic anemia

    • B.

      Macrocytic normochromic anemia

    • C.

      Normocytic-normochromic anemia

    Correct Answer
    A. Microcytic-hypochromic anemia
  • 8. 

     What hemodynamic state occurs after the initial compensation for a reduction in the number of circulating erythrocytes? 

    • A.

      Hyperdynamic state

    • B.

      Hypochromic state

    • C.

      Hypodynamic state

    Correct Answer
    A. Hyperdynamic state
  • 9. 

    Why does B12 and folate deficiencies cause anemia?

    • A.

      Stem cells are unable to differentiate into erythrocytes

    • B.

      rbc's have malfromed hg molecules

    • C.

      Because erythrocytes have a shorter life span and die prematurely, which decreases their number in the circulation causing anemia.

    • D.

      rbs have decreased o2 carrying capcity

    Correct Answer
    C. Because erythrocytes have a shorter life span and die prematurely, which decreases their number in the circulation causing anemia.
  • 10. 

     If a patient were to lose a large amount of blood which  would you expect to see?

    • A.

      Fluid into the cell

    • B.

      Decreased oxygen release from hemoglobin

    • C.

      Blood vessel dialation

    • D.

      Decreased cardiac output

    Correct Answer
    C. Blood vessel dialation
  • 11. 

    What would cause a vB12 deficiency anemia?

    • A.

      Erythopoietin

    • B.

      Lack of ferritin

    • C.

      The absence of intrinsic factor an enzyme required for gastric absorption of dietary B12

    Correct Answer
    C. The absence of intrinsic factor an enzyme required for gastric absorption of dietary B12
  • 12. 

    Which anemia can be described as c/o extreme fatigue, SOB, skin and sclera appear to be yellow?

    • A.

      Hemolyctic anemia

    • B.

      Post hemorrhagic anemia

    • C.

      Thalassemia

    Correct Answer
    A. Hemolyctic anemia
  • 13. 

    How might you differentiate sideroblastic anemia from other anemias based on clinical manifestations? What sets it apart from other anemias?

    • A.

      They have iron overload. Including mild to moderate enlargement of spleen and liver. Skin may become bronze-tinted. Neurologic and skin alterations associated with other anemias are absent.

    • B.

      They turn yellow

    • C.

      Hemolytic

    Correct Answer
    A. They have iron overload. Including mild to moderate enlargement of spleen and liver. Skin may become bronze-tinted. Neurologic and skin alterations associated with other anemias are absent.
  • 14. 

    Know that death can result when you lose how much of your blood?

    • A.

      20-30%

    • B.

      60-80%

    • C.

      40-50%

    • D.

      30-50%

    Correct Answer
    C. 40-50%
  • 15. 

    Describe how a patient might look if diagnosed with polycythemia vera.

    • A.

      Yellow, pale, with red eyes

    • B.

      Bluish in color

    • C.

      Red face, hands, feet, ears, headache, and drowsiness

    • D.

      Fatigued, pale, blue, exhausted

    Correct Answer
    C. Red face, hands, feet, ears, headache, and drowsiness
  • 16. 

    What is the treatment for polycythemia vera?

    • A.

      Phlebotomy is used to reduce the red cell mass and blood volume. Radioactive phosphorus is also used to suppress erythropoiesis.

    • B.

      Radiation

    • C.

      Give B12

    • D.

      Use ferritin

    Correct Answer
    A. Phlebotomy is used to reduce the red cell mass and blood volume. Radioactive phosphorus is also used to suppress erythropoiesis.
  • 17. 

    If a patient is dx with PV and doesn’t receive tx- what might he die from?

    • A.

      Heart attack

    • B.

      Cerebral thrombosis

    • C.

      Stroke

    • D.

      Diabetes

    Correct Answer
    B. Cerebral thrombosis
  • 18. 

    What does Epstein-Barr virus cause?

    • A.

      Monocytossis

    • B.

      Mononucleosis

    • C.

      Eosinopenia

    • D.

      Monocytopenia

    Correct Answer
    B. Mononucleosis
  • 19. 

    What is the treatment of choice for acute leukemia?

    • A.

      Chemotherapy

    • B.

      Radiation therapy

    • C.

      Alternative medicines

    • D.

      Surgery

    Correct Answer
    A. Chemotherapy
  • 20. 

    DIC is initiated by what? Regardless of the underlying disease?

    • A.

      Inflamation

    • B.

      Leukemia

    • C.

      Heart attack

    • D.

      Infectious diseases particularly involving sepsis is the most common. But gram negative and positive are the most commonly observed causes.

    Correct Answer
    D. Infectious diseases particularly involving sepsis is the most common. But gram negative and positive are the most commonly observed causes.
  • 21. 

    Atherosclerosis is caused by 

    • A.

      Cholesterol

    • B.

      Injury to the endothelial cells that line the artery walls

    • C.

      Hypertension

    • D.

      Diabetes

    Correct Answer
    B. Injury to the endothelial cells that line the artery walls
  • 22. 

    If a patient is diagnosed with DIC – further testing would reveal an increase in -------------- in approximately 95-100% of all cases?

    • A.

      Fibrin degradation products

    • B.

      Plasma

    • C.

      Protein

    • D.

      Glucose

    Correct Answer
    A. Fibrin degradation products
  • 23. 

    Where do most Pulmonary embolisms originate from?

    • A.

      Venous side ( mostly from the deep veins of the legs) of the systemic circulation or in the right heart

    • B.

      Left side of the heart

    • C.

      Pulmonary circulation system

    • D.

      Aortic valve

    Correct Answer
    A. Venous side ( mostly from the deep veins of the legs) of the systemic circulation or in the right heart
  • 24. 

    What conditions will trigger symptoms in a patient with Raynaud’s?

    • A.

      Heat

    • B.

      Being in the dark

    • C.

      Brief exposure to cold or by emotional stress.

    • D.

      Sleeping state

    Correct Answer
    C. Brief exposure to cold or by emotional stress.
  • 25. 

    Superior vena cava syndrome is a progressive occlusion of the SVC that leads to --------------

    • A.

      Venous distension in the lower extremities

    • B.

      Artery distnsion in the up extremities

    • C.

      Venous distension in the upper extremities and head

    • D.

      Artery distension in the lower extremities

    Correct Answer
    C. Venous distension in the upper extremities and head
  • 26. 

    Clinical manifestations of SVCS include:

    • A.

      Edema and venous distension of the upper extremities and face including the ocular beds.

    • B.

      Edema and venous distension of the lower extremities and feet including the ocular beds.

    • C.

      Edema and artery distension of the upper extremities and face including the ocular beds.

    • D.

      Edema and artery distension of the lower extremities and face including the ocular beds.

    Correct Answer
    A. Edema and venous distension of the upper extremities and face including the ocular beds.
  • 27. 

    In constrictive pericarditis, what causes the decreased cardiac output?

    • A.

      Medications that are given to lower cardiac output

    • B.

      Doing cardio exercises

    • C.

      Compression of the artery which leads to decreased cardiac output

    • D.

      Compressing of the heart

    Correct Answer
    D. Compressing of the heart
  • 28. 

    Which valvular regurgitation would you see widened pulse pressure and bounding pulses?

    • A.

      Tricuspid regurgitation

    • B.

      Aortic regurgitation

    Correct Answer
    B. Aortic regurgitation
  • 29. 

    Which valvular regurgitation would you see in pulmonary hypertension along with right sided heart failure?

    • A.

      Tricuspid regurgitation

    • B.

      Aortic regugitation

    Correct Answer
    A. Tricuspid regurgitation
  • 30. 

    What is the most likely cause of rheumatic heart disease?

    • A.

      Inflammation

    • B.

      Cholesterol

    • C.

      Rheumatic fever

    • D.

      Plaque

    Correct Answer
    C. Rheumatic fever
  • 31. 

    What causes impairment in cellular metabolism when a person is in shock?

    • A.

      Sweeling and itching

    • B.

      Tissues not able to perfuse

    • C.

      Fatigued and lathargy

    Correct Answer
    B. Tissues not able to perfuse
  • 32. 

    Most septic shock begins when bacteria --------------

    • A.

      Enters into the bloodstream to produce bacteremia.

    • B.

      Enters into the bloodstream to produce protoremia

    • C.

      Enters into the bloodstream to produce yeast and fungi

    Correct Answer
    A. Enters into the bloodstream to produce bacteremia.
  • 33. 

    If a patient were to have a fever and septic shock what symptoms might they have? 

    • A.

      Causes bradycardia, abnormal cardiac output generalized edema, increase BP, vasodilation,

    • B.

      Causes tachycardia, normal cardiac output generalized edema, decreases BP, vasodilation,

    • C.

      Causes tachycardia, normal cardiac output generalized edema, increases BP, vasconstriction,

    Correct Answer
    B. Causes tachycardia, normal cardiac output generalized edema, decreases BP, vasodilation,
  • 34. 

    What is the most common cause of MODS?

    • A.

      Tachycardia and sepsis

    • B.

      Septic shock and bradycardia

    • C.

      Sepsis and septic shock

    Correct Answer
    C. Sepsis and septic shock
  • 35. 

    Define orthopnea

    • A.

      Dyspnea when the individual is standing up

    • B.

      Apnea when the individual is lying down

    • C.

      Dyspnea when the individual is lying down

    Correct Answer
    C. Dyspnea when the individual is lying down
  • 36. 

    What bacteria is most likely the culprit of an empyema?

    • A.

      Strept

    • B.

      Staph aureus

    • C.

      Helibacter

    Correct Answer
    B. Staph aureus
  • 37. 

    What is pneumoconiosis and what causes it?

    • A.

      Any change in the lungs caused by inhalation of inorganic dust particles usually in the work place.

    • B.

      Any change in the lungs caused by inhalation of organic dust particles usually in the work place.

    Correct Answer
    A. Any change in the lungs caused by inhalation of inorganic dust particles usually in the work place.
  • 38. 

    Know that ARDS is an inflammation response caused by -------------

    • A.

      Common causes are bursitis and tendonitis. Other causes are pneumonia, burns, aspiration, etc

    • B.

      Common causes are anaphylactic shock and multiple trauma. Other causes are strep infections, burns, aspiration, etc

    • C.

      Common causes are Sepsis and multiple trauma. Other causes are pneumonia, burns, aspiration, etc

    Correct Answer
    C. Common causes are Sepsis and multiple trauma. Other causes are pneumonia, burns, aspiration, etc

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  • Current Version
  • Feb 14, 2013
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 24, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Sweet06
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