Paramedic Drug Quiz

99 Questions | Total Attempts: 905

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Paramedic Drug Quiz

List of NREMT drug quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What are the best descriptions of the actions of Narcan?
    • A. 

      Competitive narcotic and opiod antagonist

    • B. 

      Antiarrhythmic

    • C. 

      Ca+ channel blocker

    • D. 

      Vasopressor

  • 2. 
    What is the correct adult dosages for Narcan?
    • A. 

      5-10 mg q 15 min

    • B. 

      0.01-0.1 mg/kg

    • C. 

      0.4-2 mg MR q5 min

    • D. 

      4-20 mg q 5 min

  • 3. 
    What are the indications for Narcan?
    • A. 

      2nd Type II AV Heart Blocks

    • B. 

      Partial/complete reversal of CNS/Respiratory depression by opiods and narcotics

    • C. 

      Beta-blocker OD

    • D. 

      Antidote for D50

  • 4. 
    What are some of the side effects of Narcan?
    • A. 

      Hypertension, tachydysrhythmias, fever, sweating

    • B. 

      Vasocontsriction, headache, dizziness, dry mouth

    • C. 

      None

    • D. 

      Hypotension, tachydysrhythmias, irritability, GI upset, pulmonary edema

  • 5. 
    Would it be smarter to give the minimal dosages repeated or the max dose of Narcan?
    • A. 

      The max dose is appropriate as an initial dose, don't want to waste time.

    • B. 

      Only give enough to reverse CNS/Resp depression, pts can become violent when they come out of their high.

    • C. 

      You never want to repeat Narcan, pts need hospital intervention.

    • D. 

      Narcans side effects are minimal, so give the pt as much as possible.

  • 6. 
    The best indications for D50 are in which of the following pts?
    • A. 

      Hypoglycemia in conscious and alert pts.

    • B. 

      Hyperglycemia in pts with a known blood glucose.

    • C. 

      Hypoglycemia in unconscious pts.

    • D. 

      Immediately for any unconscious pts.

  • 7. 
    Are there any complications for D50 if extravastion of the IV occurs?
    • A. 

      No, D50 can be absorbed through the muscle surrounding the blown vein.

    • B. 

      Yes, D50 can cause local tissure necrosis and burning at the site.

    • C. 

      Yes, but they are minimal compared to the side effects of the hypoglycemia.

    • D. 

      Extravasation is very unlikely and is least of your concerns in an unconsious pt.

  • 8. 
    Any contraindications for D50?
    • A. 

      None, in documented hypoglycemia. Use caution with a suspected intracranial bleed, D50 can increase ICP.

    • B. 

      None, everyone can use more sugar.

    • C. 

      Dysrhythmias

  • 9. 
    Correct dosage for adults and pediatrics for D50?
    • A. 

      Adults and Peds: 25 mg of 50% soln

    • B. 

      Adults: 1 mg/kg 50% soln, Peds: 0.1 mg/kg 50% soln

    • C. 

      Adults and Peds: 1mg/kg 50% soln

    • D. 

      Adults: 1 amp of 50% soln. Pediatrics: 2ml/kg 25% soln.

  • 10. 
    Adenosine is best described as?
    • A. 

      Class IV antiarrhythmic

    • B. 

      Parasympatholytic

    • C. 

      Sympathmimetic

    • D. 

      Opiod

  • 11. 
    Adenosine is contraindicated in all but which of the following pts?
    • A. 

      Pt with a 2nd degree Heart Block

    • B. 

      Pt with PSVT refractory to vagal maneuvers

    • C. 

      Pt with complete A-V dissociation

    • D. 

      Pt with Sick Sinus Syndrome

  • 12. 
    How should Adenosine be given?
    • A. 

      Small peripheral IV, 6mg slow IV push, with an infusion of 12 mg in 1000mL NS over 1 hr

    • B. 

      IV closest to heart, 6 mg rapid IV push, MR at 12mg in 1-2 min, MR 12mg dose once.

    • C. 

      30mg slow IV in large vein over 10 min

    • D. 

      6mg IM, MR at 12 mg IM in alternative site in 1-2 min.

  • 13. 
    Side effects of Adenosine include:
    • A. 

      Hypotension, heart attack, chest pressure, dyspnea, facial flushing

    • B. 

      Cherry-red skin, hypertension

    • C. 

      Pale, cool and clammy skin, hypertension and bradycardia

    • D. 

      Wheezing, peripheral edema, hypertension

  • 14. 
    Dopamine has which of the following affects?
    • A. 

      Vasopressor(low dose)2-5mcg/kg/min, Dopaminergic(medium dose)5-10mcg/kg/min, and Inotropic(high dose)>10mcg/kg/min

    • B. 

      Inotropic(low dose)2-5mcg/kg/min, Vasopressor(medium dose)5-10mcg/kg/min, and Dopaminergic(high dose)>10mcg/kg/min

    • C. 

      Dopaminergic(low dose)15mcg/kg/min

    • D. 

      Dopaminergic(low dose)2-5mcg/kg/min, Inotropic(medium dose)5-10mcg/kg/min, and Vasopressor(high dose)>10mcg/kg/min

  • 15. 
    Dopamine is indicated for what?
    • A. 

      Pheochromocytoma

    • B. 

      Ventricular fibrillation

    • C. 

      Short-term cardiac decompensation secondary to decreased contractility when no hypovolemia is present, increase organ perfusion.

    • D. 

      Adrenal Gland tumor

  • 16. 
    Dopamine can have which of the following side effects?
    • A. 

      Tachydysrhythmias, hypotension, vasoconstricion, dyspnea

    • B. 

      Hypertension, flushing, petechiae

    • C. 

      Bradycardia, heart blocks

    • D. 

      Since dopamines doses are so varied, there are no signifcant side effects.

  • 17. 
    Which of the following pts would you give Valium/Diazepam too?
    • A. 

      A pt with and opiod overdose who is experiencing CNS/Resp depression.

    • B. 

      A pt who has severe uncontrolled pain from a rollover car accident with many obvious fractures and massive blood loss.

    • C. 

      A pt who is actively seizing and is reported to have been seizing for the last 3 minutes without intermittent periods of consciousness.

    • D. 

      A pt who is severly edamatous and volume depleted.

  • 18. 
    Valium/Diazepam falls into which of the following categories?
    • A. 

      Class IV antiarrhythmic

    • B. 

      Skeletal muscle relaxant, anticonvulsant, sedative/hypnotic.

    • C. 

      Isotonic electrolyte soln.

    • D. 

      Antiarrhytmic

  • 19. 
    For status epileptics, what would be the correct adult and pediatric dose of Valim/Diazepam?
    • A. 

      Adults: 5-10 mg IV/IM Peds: 0.5-2 mg IV/IM

    • B. 

      Adults: 2-5 mg IV/IM Peds: 2-5 mg IV/IM

    • C. 

      Adults and Peds: 0.2-5mg/kg IV/IM

    • D. 

      Adults: 0.5-2mg IV/IM Peds: 0.2-0.5mg IV/IM

  • 20. 
    Which of the following drugs would be indicated in cyanide poisoning?
    • A. 

      Narcan

    • B. 

      Sodium Thiosulfate and Amyl Nitrate Inhalants

    • C. 

      Epinephrine and Benadryl

    • D. 

      Atropine and Glucagon

  • 21. 
    Sodium Thiosulfate has which of the following side effects?
    • A. 

      Anxiety, tachycardia, increased BP

    • B. 

      Hypertension, bradycardia, cyanosis

    • C. 

      Increased ICP, internal hemorrhage, hyperthermia

    • D. 

      N/V, hypotension, dizziness, flushing, skin rash, tachycardia

  • 22. 
    The correct adult dose for Sodium Thiosulfate is?
    • A. 

      1-2 mg IM, 2-4 mg ETT

    • B. 

      12.5mg over 10-20 min MR at 0.5 original dose in 30 min

    • C. 

      2-5 mg over 10-20 min, MR at 2x the original dose in 20min

    • D. 

      400mg/kg over 10-20 min MR at 0.5 the original dose in 30 min

  • 23. 
    What are the actions and side effects of Amyl Nitrate Inhalants?
    • A. 

      Amyl Nitrate Inhalants cause an increase in gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis which increases blood glucose; overdose can lead to hyperglycemia

    • B. 

      Amyl Nitrate Inhalants decrease conduction through the AV node, which caused decreased HR; overdose can lead to conduction disorders

    • C. 

      Amyl Nitrate Inhalants relax blood vessels and increase blood and oxygen return to the heart while reducing workload; this can cause headache, dizzy, light-headedness; and overdose can lead to cyanosis, feeling of extreme pressure in head, weak and fast HR, unusual tired or weakness, SOB

  • 24. 
    What is the correct dose for Amyl Nitrate Inhalants?
    • A. 

      0.3mL(1 ampule) MR q5 min if symptoms persist

    • B. 

      3 mL(1 ampule) MR q5min if symptoms persist

    • C. 

      0.3mL/kg MR q5min if symptoms persist

    • D. 

      3mL/kg MR q5min if symptoms persist

  • 25. 
    Which of the following pts should receive Activated Charcoal?
    • A. 

      A pt who is unconscious with an unknown etiology; admin rapid IV 1gm/kg.

    • B. 

      A pt with a history of constipation x3days who is altered and complaining of severe abdominal pain; admin ETT 1gm/kg.

    • C. 

      A conscious alert pt who called 9-1-1 stating they just took a handful of pills 5 minutes ago because their boyfriend broke up with them; admin PO 1gm/kg.

    • D. 

      A pt who is obviously drunk and is vomiting uncontrollably, A&Ox2, and states they've had a fifth of vodka; admin PO 1gm/kg.