2ax5x Vol. 1

79 Questions

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2ax5x Vol. 1

Sections 3-5


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which maintenance stand has an adjustable height of 13 to 20 feet?
    • A. 

      B-1

    • B. 

      B-2

    • C. 

      B-4

    • D. 

      B-5

  • 2. 
    Which of these is a scissor-type maintenance stand?
    • A. 

      B-1

    • B. 

      B-2

    • C. 

      B-4

    • D. 

      C-1

  • 3. 
    What is the maximum load, in pounds, that the model 4000 engine trailer can support?
    • A. 

      7,000

    • B. 

      8,000

    • C. 

      9,000

    • D. 

      10,000

  • 4. 
    On straightaways the maximum towing speed for the Model 3000 engine trailer is?
    • A. 

      10 mph

    • B. 

      15 mph

    • C. 

      20 mph

    • D. 

      25 mph

  • 5. 
    What type of jack is normally used to change a tire on an aircraft?
    • A. 

      Tail

    • B. 

      Axle

    • C. 

      Nose

    • D. 

      Fixed-height

  • 6. 
    Who is responsible for ensuring that the AFTO Form 134 is properly documented?
    • A. 

      AGE personnel

    • B. 

      Aircrew personnel

    • C. 

      Shift supervisor

    • D. 

      Everyone

  • 7. 
    GOX high-pressure cylinders are painted?
    • A. 

      White with a green band near the bottom

    • B. 

      Green with a white band near the bottom

    • C. 

      White with a green band near the top

    • D. 

      Green with a white band near the top

  • 8. 
    When servicing aircraft the gaseous nitrogen servicing trailer can be operated by?
    • A. 

      AGE personnel only

    • B. 

      The highest ranking person on the shift

    • C. 

      Qualified operators only

    • D. 

      Any person

  • 9. 
    What is the horsepower rating of the diesel engine powering the SGNSC?
    • A. 

      39

    • B. 

      49

    • C. 

      59

    • D. 

      69

  • 10. 
    What is the maximum pressure that the SGNSC can deliver high-pressure nitrogen?
    • A. 

      3,000 psig

    • B. 

      3,500 psig

    • C. 

      4,400 psig

    • D. 

      5,200 psig

  • 11. 
    The usable pressure range of the MC-1A air compressor is 0 to?
    • A. 

      200 psi

    • B. 

      350 psi

    • C. 

      3,200 psi

    • D. 

      3,500 psi

  • 12. 
    The MC-2A air compressor is capable od delivering air at a maximum pressure of?
    • A. 

      200 psi

    • B. 

      300 psi

    • C. 

      3,500 psi

    • D. 

      3,600 psi

  • 13. 
    The H-1 heater has an adjustable heat output that ranges from?
    • A. 

      100 to 230 F

    • B. 

      115 to 250 F

    • C. 

      125 to 270 F

    • D. 

      150 to 280 F

  • 14. 
    What is the maximum tow speed for a C-10 air conditioner?
    • A. 

      5 mph

    • B. 

      10 mph

    • C. 

      15 mph

    • D. 

      20 mph

  • 15. 
    The C-10 air conditioner is capable of delivering conditioned air in a range from?
    • A. 

      47 to 150 F

    • B. 

      47 to 200 F

    • C. 

      57 to 150 F

    • D. 

      57 to 200 F

  • 16. 
    The A/M32A-86 generator set's T-R produces?
    • A. 

      25.5 VDC

    • B. 

      27.5 VDC

    • C. 

      28.5 VDC

    • D. 

      30.5 VDC

  • 17. 
    What unit is capable of providing AC and DC electrical power, in addition to pneumatic power, for ground maintenance?
    • A. 

      A/M32A-95

    • B. 

      A/M32A-86

    • C. 

      A/M32A-60

    • D. 

      AF/M-32R-3

  • 18. 
    Which technical order has operation and servicing information for the A/M32A-60?
    • A. 

      1-1A-8

    • B. 

      25C2-3-372-11

    • C. 

      32A1-4.219-45

    • D. 

      35C2-3-372-11

  • 19. 
    The FL-1D floodlight consists of two
    • A. 

      100 watt lamp fixtures

    • B. 

      1,000 watt lamp fixtures

    • C. 

      10,000 watt lamp fixtures

    • D. 

      100,000 watt lamp fixtures

  • 20. 
    What is the maximum towing speed of the FL-1D floodlight on smooth surfaces?
    • A. 

      5 mph

    • B. 

      10 mph

    • C. 

      15 mph

    • D. 

      20 mph

  • 21. 
    What is used to drive the MK-3A-1
    • A. 

      A diesel engine

    • B. 

      An electric motor

    • C. 

      A gasoline engine

    • D. 

      A hydraulic motor

  • 22. 
    How are the hydraulic systems on the MK-3A-1 hydraulic test stand designated?
    • A. 

      Primary and Secondary

    • B. 

      Primary and Alternate

    • C. 

      Number 1 and Number 2

    • D. 

      Left and RIght

  • 23. 
    The MJ-2A reservoir holds what amount of fluid?
    • A. 

      19 gallons

    • B. 

      27 gallons

    • C. 

      30 gallons

    • D. 

      60 gallons

  • 24. 
    The MB-4 Coleman incorporates
    • A. 

      Two-wheel steering, two wheel drive

    • B. 

      Two-wheel steering, four-wheel drive

    • C. 

      Four-wheel steering, two-wheel drive

    • D. 

      Four-wheel steering, four-wheel drive

  • 25. 
    What is the maximum governed speed of the MB-4 Coleman?
    • A. 

      15 mph

    • B. 

      20 mph

    • C. 

      25 mph

    • D. 

      55 mph

  • 26. 
    What type of steering system on the MB-4 Eagle tow vehicle provides for two-wheel steer, four-wheel coordinated steer, and four-wheeled oblique steer?
    • A. 

      Mechanical

    • B. 

      Pneumatic

    • C. 

      Hydraulic

    • D. 

      Electrical

  • 27. 
    Why are aluminum alloy washers used with steel bolts on aluminum alloy parts in low-torque applications?
    • A. 

      Reduce shearing

    • B. 

      Prevent vibration

    • C. 

      Prevent corrosion

    • D. 

      Reduce shimming

  • 28. 
    How are special bolts identified?
    • A. 

      By a zinc-plated nickel steel covering

    • B. 

      By a galvanized-plated steel covering

    • C. 

      The bolt head is marked with a triangle

    • D. 

      The bolt head is marked with the letter S

  • 29. 
    Which bolt is never used in areas where tension is present but is often used as pins in control systems?
    • A. 

      Stud

    • B. 

      Clevis

    • C. 

      Eyebolt

    • D. 

      Hexhead

  • 30. 
    Which bolt has a recessed head and is used in high-tension applications?
    • A. 

      A stud

    • B. 

      An eyebolt

    • C. 

      A hexhead

    • D. 

      An internal wrenching type

  • 31. 
    Left-hand threads on a turnbuckle can be identified by the
    • A. 

      Knurl beside the fork

    • B. 

      Groove by the cable eye

    • C. 

      Knurl beside the pin eye

    • D. 

      Groove on the end of the barrel

  • 32. 
    Normally, what type of material is used in the construction of a pressure seal?
    • A. 

      Soft rubber

    • B. 

      Phenolic mix

    • C. 

      Non-magnetic

    • D. 

      Thermosetting plastic

  • 33. 
    A push-pull rod end engagement is checked by
    • A. 

      Using a depth gage to check end play

    • B. 

      Ensuring that no lateral movement exists

    • C. 

      Using an inside caliper to check the rod end bearing

    • D. 

      Inserting safety wire in the hole in the end of the terminal

  • 34. 
    What is the interval that should be used for installing cushion clips on aircraft tubing?
    • A. 

      15 to 20 inches

    • B. 

      20 to 25 inches

    • C. 

      25 to 30 inches

    • D. 

      30 to 35 inches

  • 35. 
    The allowable limit for nicks and scratches on a straight section of aircraft tubing is no deeper than
    • A. 

      10 percent of wall thickness

    • B. 

      15 percent of wall thickness

    • C. 

      20 percent of wall thickness

    • D. 

      25 percent wall thickness

  • 36. 
    Generally, low-pressure hoses are used for what pressures?
    • A. 

      200 psi and below

    • B. 

      300 psi and below

    • C. 

      500 psi and below

    • D. 

      1,000 psi and below

  • 37. 
    The limit for securing closely spaced bolts in series when using the single-wire safety method is the maximum number of bolts that can be secured using a
    • A. 

      10 inch length of wire

    • B. 

      12 inch length of wire

    • C. 

      24 inch length of wire

    • D. 

      36 inch length of wire

  • 38. 
    Which retaining rings are manufactured with small holes in the lugs that can be removed and installed by pliers specially designed for use with them?
    • A. 

      Snap rings

    • B. 

      Spiral retaining rings

    • C. 

      Beveled retaining rings

    • D. 

      Axially assembled retaining rings

  • 39. 
    When securing widely spaced bolts by the double-twist safetying method, what is the maximum number of bolts that may be wired in a series?
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      5

    • D. 

      6

  • 40. 
    Which retaining rings are installed into housings or onto shafts making 360-degree contact with the grove?
    • A. 

      Snap ring

    • B. 

      Spiral retaining ring

    • C. 

      Beveled retaining rings

    • D. 

      Axially assembled retaining rings

  • 41. 
    What part of a cannon plug completes the electrical circuit?
    • A. 

      Metal shells

    • B. 

      Connector halves

    • C. 

      Dielectric contacts

    • D. 

      Pin-and-socket contacts

  • 42. 
    In the cannon plug code MS3106F-12-10PW, the letter P indicates
    • A. 

      Pin

    • B. 

      Plain

    • C. 

      Primary

    • D. 

      Pratt and Whitney

  • 43. 
    Which torque wrench indicates the amount of torque or twisting action being applied?
    • A. 

      Indicating type

    • B. 

      Breakaway type

    • C. 

      Screwdriver type

    • D. 

      Internal wrenching type

  • 44. 
    Which torque wrench is designed to automatically release when a predetermined torque value is reached?
    • A. 

      Indicating type

    • B. 

      Breakaway type

    • C. 

      Screwdriver type

    • D. 

      Internal wrenching type

  • 45. 
    Prior to using a torque wrench, cycle the torque wrench through the breakaway torque at the
    • A. 

      Maximum setting at least four times

    • B. 

      Maximum setting at least six times

    • C. 

      Lowest setting at least four times

    • D. 

      Lowest setting at least six times

  • 46. 
    What are the two stresses that a fastener takes when tightened?
    • A. 

      Extension and flexion

    • B. 

      Tension and torsion

    • C. 

      Torque and friction

    • D. 

      Push and pull

  • 47. 
    Which type of friction is defined as the force that exists between two physical bodies to keep them from moving?
    • A. 

      Static

    • B. 

      Tension

    • C. 

      Dynamic

    • D. 

      Rotational

  • 48. 
    Use the range button on the fluke multimeter to
    • A. 

      Check the AC voltages only

    • B. 

      Check the DC voltages only

    • C. 

      Initiate the tough-hold mode

    • D. 

      Move the decimal point

  • 49. 
    When the H symbol is shown on the fluke multimeter display, the
    • A. 

      Manual range mode is indicated

    • B. 

      Touch-hold mode is in use

    • C. 

      Ohms function is selected

    • D. 

      Meter is zeroing itself

  • 50. 
    Which tool is used to measure the gap between two parts?
    • A. 

      Multimeter

    • B. 

      Depth gauge

    • C. 

      Feeler gauge

    • D. 

      Torque wrench

  • 51. 
    What is the longest possible movement between the micrometer's spindle and anvil?
    • A. 

      0.5 inch

    • B. 

      1.0 inch

    • C. 

      1.5 inch

    • D. 

      2.0 inch

  • 52. 
    Which caliper is joined by a strong spring hinge, screw, and adjustment nut?
    • A. 

      Simple calipers

    • B. 

      Transfer calipers

    • C. 

      Spring-joint calipers

    • D. 

      Odd-leg calipers

  • 53. 
    Which caliper is used for finding shaft centers or locating shoulders?
    • A. 

      Slide caliper

    • B. 

      Center caliper

    • C. 

      Spring-joint caliper

    • D. 

      Odd-leg caliper

  • 54. 
    Which caliper has the words "IN" and "OUT" stamped on the frame?
    • A. 

      Slide caliper

    • B. 

      Simple caliper

    • C. 

      Transfer caliper

    • D. 

      Spring-joint caliper

  • 55. 
    Who is responsible for ensuring that good supply discipline is practiced?
    • A. 

      Base Commanders

    • B. 

      Squadron commanders

    • C. 

      Supervisors at all levels

    • D. 

      Squadron QA section

  • 56. 
    Bench stock levels are established to provide a
    • A. 

      15-day usage

    • B. 

      30-day usage

    • C. 

      60-day usage

    • D. 

      90-day usage

  • 57. 
    Which form is used to issue an item of equipment for short, specified periods?
    • A. 

      AF 2005

    • B. 

      AF Form 2413

    • C. 

      AF IMT 1297

    • D. 

      DD Form 1348-6

  • 58. 
    All items that come through supply channels are assigned what type of code?
    • A. 

      PDC

    • B. 

      AAC

    • C. 

      PACC

    • D. 

      ERRC

  • 59. 
    Within maintenance the internal control of reparable items is accomplished through the DIFM notice and
    • A. 

      DD Form 1348-6

    • B. 

      AFTO Form 349

    • C. 

      AFTO Form 350

    • D. 

      DD Form 1131

  • 60. 
    Which DD forms are easily identified by their green margins and letters?
    • A. 

      1577-2 and 1577-3

    • B. 

      1576 and 1576-1

    • C. 

      1574 and 1574-1

    • D. 

      1575 and 1575-1

  • 61. 
    Engines overhauled by depot are covered against defects in workmanship for
    • A. 

      200 hours of operation or one year from the date of receipt

    • B. 

      100 hours of operation or one year from the date or receipt

    • C. 

      200 hours of operation or six months from the date or receipt

    • D. 

      100 hours of operation or six months from the date of receipt

  • 62. 
    Which inspection is due on the accrual of a set number of flying or operating hours, or at the expiration of a calendar period specified in the applicable aircraft-specific -6 technical order and is a thorough inspection of the entire aerospace vehicle?
    • A. 

      Phased

    • B. 

      Periodic

    • C. 

      Isochronal

    • D. 

      Hourly Postflight

  • 63. 
    Which inspection concept uses specified calendar intervals to build a schedule and consists of the home station check, major, and minor inspections?
    • A. 

      Phased

    • B. 

      Periodic

    • C. 

      Isochronal

    • D. 

      Hourly postflight

  • 64. 
    Which inspection examines areas, components, and systems to a degree beyond -6 technical order inspection requirements?
    • A. 

      Phased

    • B. 

      Periodic

    • C. 

      Isochronal

    • D. 

      Programmed depot maintenance

  • 65. 
    Minimum aircraft inspection requirements are outlined in
    • A. 

      Sequence charts

    • B. 

      Inspection workcards

    • C. 

      -06 work unit code manuals

    • D. 

      -6 technical order inspection manuals

  • 66. 
    Which inspection is usually performed just prior to takeoff and may include operational checks of some systems?
    • A. 

      In progress

    • B. 

      PR

    • C. 

      TH

    • D. 

      EOR

  • 67. 
    The TH inspection is normally performed
    • A. 

      Prior to going on alert and again before flight after completion of the alert period

    • B. 

      After flights when a turn-around sortie or continuation of the alert period

    • C. 

      Immediately prior to a BPO

    • D. 

      After the last flight of a specified flying period

  • 68. 
    Which inspection is required if an aircraft is idle for more than 30 or 90 days?
    • A. 

      Phase

    • B. 

      Special

    • C. 

      Calendar

    • D. 

      Acceptance

  • 69. 
    Which inspection ensures the completeness of historical doucuments?
    • A. 

      Phase

    • B. 

      Special

    • C. 

      Calendar

    • D. 

      Acceptance

  • 70. 
    To transfer -21 equipment through transportation channels, you should use a DD Form
    • A. 

      126

    • B. 

      1149

    • C. 

      2691

    • D. 

      2692

  • 71. 
    Which TO should be consulted for detailed information about weight and balance?
    • A. 

      1-21-101

    • B. 

      1-1-691

    • C. 

      1-1B-50

    • D. 

      1-1-5

  • 72. 
    What is used in determining design criteria such as engine requirements, wing area, landing gear requirements, and payload capacity?
    • A. 

      Mission requirements

    • B. 

      Aircraft dimensions

    • C. 

      Structure

    • D. 

      Aircraft weight

  • 73. 
    Which medical concept forms the basis of ABDR assessment philosphy?
    • A. 

      "EMERGENCY"

    • B. 

      "DIAGNOSE"

    • C. 

      "TRIAGE"

    • D. 

      "STAT"

  • 74. 
    Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part begins the instant it is
    • A. 

      Exposed to moist air

    • B. 

      Exposed to a chemical

    • C. 

      Connected to another part

    • D. 

      Fabricated or manufactured

  • 75. 
    Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part continues until the part is
    • A. 

      Painted

    • B. 

      Heat treated

    • C. 

      Chemically treated

    • D. 

      Exhausted or salvaged

  • 76. 
    What type of corrosion type appears as corroded cracks in a metal?
    • A. 

      Stress

    • B. 

      Intergranular

    • C. 

      Oxygen concentration cell

    • D. 

      Metal ion concentration cell

  • 77. 
    Alkaline and solvent cleaners authorized for use on our aircraft are specified in
    • A. 

      TO 00-20-1

    • B. 

      TO 1-1-3

    • C. 

      TO 1-1A-8

    • D. 

      TO 1-1-691

  • 78. 
    What type of corrosion can be recognized by a lifting up or swelling of the metal grains?
    • A. 

      Pitting

    • B. 

      IIntergrannular

    • C. 

      Exfoliation

    • D. 

      Crevice/ concentration cell

  • 79. 
    After treatment which solution is used to neutralize areas affected with electrolyte from a lead-acid battery?
    • A. 

      Potassium hydroxide

    • B. 

      Aluminum hydroxide

    • C. 

      Sodium bicarbonate

    • D. 

      Boric acid