Orthopedics 1

68 Questions | Total Attempts: 583

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Orthopedics 1

For physical therapy students. Includes part of examination, fractures, OA, and spinal surgeries.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    A stress fracture is an example of a macroscopic injury because it is caused by repetitive strain.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 2. 
    What is meant by the great race of tissue healing?
  • 3. 
    Repair is hte process of replacing original tissue with like tissue.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 4. 
    Sequence the following from fastest healing to slowest healing and state what factor is the most important.
  • 5. 
    What differentiates a tendinitis from a tenosynovitis?
    • A. 

      A tenosynovitis involves a synovial sheath.

    • B. 

      A tendinitis does not have an active inflammatory process.

    • C. 

      They are the same.

    • D. 

      A tenosynovitis affects only tendons of the upper extremity.

  • 6. 
    Choose the appropriate parameters for a transverse friction massage in treating tendinitis:
    • A. 

      3/10 intensity, 4x/week, 10 minutes, 3 weeks

    • B. 

      5/10 intensity, 3x/week, 4-5 minutes, 1-2 weeks

    • C. 

      3/10 intensity, 3x/week, 4-5 minutes, 1-2 weeks

    • D. 

      5/10 intensity, 4x/week, 10 minutes, 3 weeks

  • 7. 
    Write the Modified Blazina staging for tendopathy.
  • 8. 
    When treating a patient with a microscopic injury, there are two things we can do to help the patient get better: we can _____________________ by _______________________ or we can _________.
  • 9. 
    A patient comes to you with articular cartilage pathology at the knee. The patient has chondral fibrillations that are about 1.55 mm. What Outerbridge classification applies to this patient?
    • A. 

      I

    • B. 

      II

    • C. 

      III

    • D. 

      IV

  • 10. 
    Intervention is driven by:
    • A. 

      Acuity

    • B. 

      Time

  • 11. 
    What is Davis' law?
    • A. 

      Bone applies to the stresses placed upon it.

    • B. 

      In order for Osteogenesis to occur, we must apply 60% of the tolerable stresses.

    • C. 

      Soft tissue applies to the stresses placed upon it.

    • D. 

      The stress-strain curve is shifted to the left when we apply forces.

  • 12. 
    When we are training, we should follow what rule to avoid overloading the musculoskeletal system?
    • A. 

      5%

    • B. 

      10%

    • C. 

      7%

    • D. 

      14%

  • 13. 
    Muscle can be inhibited by pain, termed neurogenic, or by swelling, called arthogenic.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 14. 
    Which of the following is not true about the likelihood to develop RSD?
    • A. 

      UE > LE

    • B. 

      Women > Men

    • C. 

      #1 cause is fracture

    • D. 

      Non-work injury > work injury

  • 15. 
    Same force is termed:
    • A. 

      Isometric

    • B. 

      Isotonic

    • C. 

      Isokinetic

  • 16. 
    What are the two best barometers of intensity?
  • 17. 
    How often should we see a subacute patient?
    • A. 

      Daily

    • B. 

      2-3 x/week

    • C. 

      1x/week

  • 18. 
    Where is the most common fracture location of the proximal humerus?
    • A. 

      Anatomical Neck

    • B. 

      Lesser tuberosity

    • C. 

      Greater tuberosity

    • D. 

      Surgical neck

  • 19. 
    Neer's classification is based on the following structures, except:
    • A. 

      Greater tuberosity

    • B. 

      Surgical neck

    • C. 

      Head

    • D. 

      Lesser tuberosity

    • E. 

      Proximal Shaft

  • 20. 
    Neer's is classified based on displacement >_____ and angulation > _____.
    • A. 

      1 cm, 45 degrees

    • B. 

      2 cm, 30 degrees

    • C. 

      1 cm, 30 degrees

    • D. 

      1.5 cm, 45 degrees

    • E. 

      None of these are correct

  • 21. 
    About ____ % of proximal humerus fractures are classified as Neer 1-part.
    • A. 

      75%

    • B. 

      10%

    • C. 

      80%

    • D. 

      25%

  • 22. 
    Neurovascular injuries are likely to occur with all of the following except one:
    • A. 

      Anterior dislocation

    • B. 

      Inferior dislocation

    • C. 

      Posterior dislocation

    • D. 

      4-part fracture

  • 23. 
    The following are all reasons to do a hemiarthroplasty, except:
    • A. 

      2 part fracture in the elderly

    • B. 

      3 part fracture in the elderly

    • C. 

      4 part fracture

    • D. 

      Head splitting

  • 24. 
    Which is not true of primary healing?
    • A. 

      Least common.

    • B. 

      External callus formation.

    • C. 

      Compression plates used.

    • D. 

      Early motion is possible.

  • 25. 
    Which is not a sign of ischemia?
    • A. 

      Puffiness

    • B. 

      Paralysis

    • C. 

      Pinkness

    • D. 

      Pain

    • E. 

      Pulselessness

  • 26. 
    With healing, callus forms at about what week?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      5

  • 27. 
    When can we apply stresses over a fracture site?
    • A. 

      When the patient can tolerate the pain.

    • B. 

      When the cast is removed.

    • C. 

      When the bone is clinically healed.

    • D. 

      When there is radiographic evidence that the fracture line is completely closed.

  • 28. 
    Which is NOT a criteria for return to function?
    • A. 

      20% strength deficit or less

    • B. 

      Normal ROM

    • C. 

      Independent in all ADLs

    • D. 

      Normal kinesthetic awareness

  • 29. 
    The determination of a disease or clinical problem by systematically comparing and contrasting clinical findings between two or more disease is:
    • A. 

      Diagnosis

    • B. 

      Differential Diagnosis

    • C. 

      Prognosis

    • D. 

      Clustering

  • 30. 
     A patient has diffuse, aching, poorly localized pain in the low back area. Which is a probable cause for the pain?
    • A. 

      Multifidus strain

    • B. 

      Ovarian cancer

    • C. 

      Gallbladder

    • D. 

      Nerve entrapment

  • 31. 
    Which is NOT included in the upper quarter screen?
    • A. 

      TMJ

    • B. 

      UE

    • C. 

      Upper Thoracic Spine

    • D. 

      Shoulder Complex

    • E. 

      Thoracolumbar spine

  • 32. 
    What is selective tissue tension?
    • A. 

      Isolate a tissue and apply tension to record the tissue's response

    • B. 

      A technique that is used to assess arthrokinematic motion.

    • C. 

      Selecting tissue and applying the most tension that it can possibly take to get plastic deformation.

  • 33. 
    Bone pain is deep, boring, and localized
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 34. 
    Name some things you can note about the patient on inspection.
  • 35. 
    Radiculopathy is differentiated from radiculitis how:
    • A. 

      Radiculitis is when neurological signs present.

    • B. 

      Radiculopathy is when neurological signs are present.

    • C. 

      Only a radiculopathy involves nerve root irritation.

    • D. 

      Radiculitis is only present in the lumbar spine.

  • 36. 
    ________ occurs by reflex inhibition or muscle weakness.
    • A. 

      Functional instability

    • B. 

      Pseudolocking

    • C. 

      Voluntary Instability

    • D. 

      Giving Way

  • 37. 
    Which signs will be produced by a myelopathy?
    • A. 

      UMN

    • B. 

      LMN

  • 38. 
    Which is not a sign of a UMN lesion?
    • A. 

      Positive pathologic reflexes

    • B. 

      Negative superficial reflexes

    • C. 

      Hyporeflexia

    • D. 

      Spastic gait

  • 39. 
    If the patient had pain that followed the L5 dermatome, where would the pain end?
    • A. 

      Heel

    • B. 

      Back of calf

    • C. 

      Front of calf

    • D. 

      Big Toe

  • 40. 
    Name some things we determine from AROM testing.
  • 41. 
    Passive ROM testing includes:
    • A. 

      End-feel assessment

    • B. 

      Sequence of pain and resistance

    • C. 

      Identification of capsular pattern

    • D. 

      All of these

  • 42. 
    You are assessing the passive range of a patient's shoulder. The patient presents with pain that is synchronous with tissue resistance. The patient also has marked limitations in the following pattern: ER > Flex > IR > Abduction. From this, what can you infer about the stage of the healing process, acuity, and pattern?
    • A. 

      Acute, inflammatory stage, non-capsular

    • B. 

      Subacute, reparative, non-capsular

    • C. 

      Acute, reparative stage, capsular

    • D. 

      Subacute, remodeling, capsular

  • 43. 
    You have just completed resistive movement testing on a patient's shoulder abductors. The patient tells you that there is pain and you note weakness. Which is not a possible cause?
    • A. 

      Fracture

    • B. 

      Complete avulsion

    • C. 

      Dislocation

    • D. 

      Acute arthritis

  • 44. 
    You test the knee flexors isometrically. You find that the quads on the left are weak and painless. What can you infer?
    • A. 

      Rupture of the muscle

    • B. 

      Dislocation

    • C. 

      The patient is a malingerer- these don't happen together.

    • D. 

      Subluxation

  • 45. 
    You are grading the point tenderness along a patient's posterior deltoid. The patient complains of pain and winces. What grade?
    • A. 

      I

    • B. 

      II

    • C. 

      III

    • D. 

      IV

  • 46. 
    The patient has a Biceps DTR of 2. What does that mean?
    • A. 

      Hyporeflexia

    • B. 

      Normal

    • C. 

      Hyperreflexia

    • D. 

      Absent

    • E. 

      Clonus

  • 47. 
    The patient has a positive Babinski test. What does that look like?
    • A. 

      Pointer finger and thumb flick toward each other

    • B. 

      There is a "bouncing" after contraction

    • C. 

      Big toe goes into extension

    • D. 

      All toes go into extension

  • 48. 
    The clinical outcomes are the patient's goals.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 49. 
    Name some reasons we use special tests.
  • 50. 
    Which is best to show a stress fracture?
    • A. 

      MRI

    • B. 

      CT

    • C. 

      Osteoscintigraphy

    • D. 

      Arthrography

  • 51. 
    Which is true about joint mobility testing?
    • A. 

      The joint becomes more painful as you approach the open pack position.

    • B. 

      Movements are not under voluntary control.

    • C. 

      You must have normal osteokinematrics before you have normal arthrokinematics.

    • D. 

      Joint play movements are performed in the closed pack position.

  • 52. 
    Which is not true of isthmic spondylolisthesis?
    • A. 

      Usually L5-S1

    • B. 

      Usually L4-L5

    • C. 

      Mostly in young people

    • D. 

      LBP

    • E. 

      True instability and HNP are rare

  • 53. 
    Which is NOT true of degenerative spondylolisthesis?
    • A. 

      L4-L5 mostly

    • B. 

      More in women

    • C. 

      Pars defect

    • D. 

      Stenosis associated

    • E. 

      Uaully >50% slip

  • 54. 
    Which is not a common cause of spinal stenosis?
    • A. 

      DISH

    • B. 

      Degenerative

    • C. 

      Rheumatoid Arthritis

    • D. 

      Paget's

    • E. 

      Congenital

  • 55. 
    Which movement opens the spinal canal?
    • A. 

      Flexion

    • B. 

      Extension

    • C. 

      Sidebending

  • 56. 
    Most people with spinal stenosis develop neurologic deficits.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 57. 
    When the annulus is not completely torn, the herniation is termed:
    • A. 

      Sequestrated

    • B. 

      Extruded

    • C. 

      Prolapse

  • 58. 
    If you have a herniation at L4-L5, what nerve root symptoms will you get?
    • A. 

      L4

    • B. 

      L5

  • 59. 
    Which is NOT true about herniated NP?
    • A. 

      Patients want to sit more.

    • B. 

      Leg pain in radicular symptoms.

    • C. 

      40s-50s.

    • D. 

      60-70% get better without surgery.

  • 60. 
    Lumbar Degenerative Disc Disease:
    • A. 

      Always requires surgery.

    • B. 

      Causes back pain.

    • C. 

      Causes leg pain.

    • D. 

      Occurs to about 25% of older adults.

  • 61. 
    Name some tumor red flags.
  • 62. 
    Name some factors taken into account when deciding to perform spinal surgery or not.
  • 63. 
    Osteoarthrosis can be primary or secondary. Primary OA is caused by trauma, post-operatively, or by AVN.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 64. 
    What is pannus?
    • A. 

      Inflamed skin

    • B. 

      Inflamed synovium

    • C. 

      Inflamed joints

  • 65. 
    Obesity is only a factor for what type of OA?
    • A. 

      Hip

    • B. 

      Ankle

    • C. 

      Knee

    • D. 

      More than 2

  • 66. 
    Ligamentous instability is present in which of the following:
    • A. 

      RA

    • B. 

      OA

  • 67. 
    Which is not a radiographic finding of OA?
    • A. 

      Symmetric loss of joint space

    • B. 

      Osteophytes

    • C. 

      Increased subchondral sclerosis

    • D. 

      Cysts

  • 68. 
    Is the medial or lateral knee of the knee most commonly affected by OA? What is the postural deformity associated with it?
    • A. 

      Medial, genu valgum

    • B. 

      Lateral, genu valgum

    • C. 

      Medial, genu varum

    • D. 

      Lateral, genu valgum