Volume 1

85 Questions | Total Attempts: 43

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Volume Quizzes & Trivia

CDC1W071


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    During military planning, the strategic level is
    • A. 

      The only level of military echelon that uses strategy planning.

    • B. 

      The lowest level of decision making when planning for contingencies.

    • C. 

      The highest level of decision making when planning for contingencies.

    • D. 

      The second largest group of military strategists within the war planning echelon.

  • 2. 
    Joint operations planning is primarily the responsibility of the
    • A. 

      Commander in chief (CINC).

    • B. 

      Deployed forces commander.

    • C. 

      Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS).

    • D. 

      Ranking group-level expeditionary commander.

  • 3. 
    Crisis action planning differs from deliberate planning in that it's based on
    • A. 

      Input from the staff weather officer (SWO).

    • B. 

      The inputs of weather and intelligence personnel.

    • C. 

      Current and past evens, without regard to data sensitivity.

    • D. 

      Current events and conducted in a time-sensitive situations and emergencies.

  • 4. 
    For what does deliberate planning help to prepare?
    • A. 

      All types of natural disasters that accurate forecasts can prevent.

    • B. 

      The types of contingencies that are recognized as long term threats.

    • C. 

      The most likely contingencies that may occur in the near term future.

    • D. 

      Weather related products that could prevent lost operating hours during deployments.

  • 5. 
    What type of planning is aimed at assembling and organizing national resources to support national objectives during a time of war or for operations other than war?
    • A. 

      Deliberate Planning.

    • B. 

      Mobilization Planning.

    • C. 

      Crisis Action Planning.

    • D. 

      Joint Operations Planning.

  • 6. 
    Commanders use the joint intelligence preparation of the battlefield (JIPB) process to support all of the following except
    • A. 

      Targeting.

    • B. 

      Special operations.

    • C. 

      Natural disaster relief.

    • D. 

      Counter air operations.

  • 7. 
    To what level(s) does the joint intelligence preparation of the battlefield (JIPB) process apply?
    • A. 

      Tactical.

    • B. 

      Strategic and Operational.

    • C. 

      Operational and Tactical.

    • D. 

      Operational, Strategic, and Tactical.

  • 8. 
    What is the last major step in the joint intelligence preparation of the battlefield (JIPB) process?
    • A. 

      Define the battle space environment.

    • B. 

      Describe the battle space effects.

    • C. 

      Determine the adversary potential courses of action (COA).

    • D. 

      Determine the current adversary situation.

  • 9. 
    What is targeting, with respect to the air tasking cycle?
    • A. 

      Identifying those persons of objects needing removal.

    • B. 

      The process of eliminating targets from controlled operational air space.

    • C. 

      The process of engaging all unfriendly targets within the area of operations.

    • D. 

      The process of selecting targets and measuring the results or response of the target selection.

  • 10. 
    Over what period of time does the Notational Air Tasking Cycle take place?
    • A. 

      About 30 days.

    • B. 

      30-72 hours.

    • C. 

      One to two weeks.

    • D. 

      Seven duty days.

  • 11. 
    What must be completed before moving into Phase Three of the Notational Air Tasking Cycle?
    • A. 

      Target development phase.

    • B. 

      Target engagement phase.

    • C. 

      Target recognition phase.

    • D. 

      Target elimination phase.

  • 12. 
    Effects at the strategic level of war include
    • A. 

      Destruction of all enemy assets.

    • B. 

      Control of all weather reporting sites.

    • C. 

      Infiltration of the enemy's intelligence branch.

    • D. 

      Destruction of disruption of the enemy's center of gravity (COG).

  • 13. 
    At what level of warfare are individual battles or engagements fought?
    • A. 

      Tactical.

    • B. 

      Global.

    • C. 

      Strategic.

    • D. 

      Operational.

  • 14. 
    At what level of war are campaigns and major operations planned, conducted, and sustained?
    • A. 

      Tactical.

    • B. 

      Global.

    • C. 

      Strategic.

    • D. 

      Operational.

  • 15. 
    Planning at the operational level of war determines all of the following except
    • A. 

      What we will attack.

    • B. 

      Exactly when we will attack.

    • C. 

      In what order we will attack.

    • D. 

      For what duration we will attack.

  • 16. 
    The Army's primary mission is to organize, train, and equip forces to
    • A. 

      Conduct prompt operations.

    • B. 

      Add support to units calling air strikes.

    • C. 

      Conduct prompt operations in foreign lands.

    • D. 

      Prompt and sustained land combat operations.

  • 17. 
    What is the Army's largest major command?
    • A. 

      US Army Pacific.

    • B. 

      US Army in Europe.

    • C. 

      US Army Forces Command.

    • D. 

      US Army South.

  • 18. 
    What is the US Army Forces Command (FORSCOM) mission?
    • A. 

      To deploy and sustain air forces capable of responding rapidly to crises worldwide.

    • B. 

      To enhance combat ready forces capable of responding rapidly to crises worldwide.

    • C. 

      To train, mobilize, deploy and sustain air forces capable of responding rapidly to crisis worldwide.

    • D. 

      To train, mobilize, deploy and sustain combat ready forces capable of responding rapidly to crisis worldwide.

  • 19. 
    What rank of Army officer normally commands divisions?
    • A. 

      Major generals.

    • B. 

      Brigadier generals.

    • C. 

      Colonels and above.

    • D. 

      Colonels or brigadier generals.

  • 20. 
    In what environment(s) does the US seek to achieve its strategic objectives?
    • A. 

      War.

    • B. 

      Conflict.

    • C. 

      War and conflict.

    • D. 

      Peacetime, conflict, and war.

  • 21. 
    How does the Army classify its activities during conflict?
    • A. 

      War.

    • B. 

      Peacetime battle.

    • C. 

      Real world exercise.

    • D. 

      Military operations other that war.

  • 22. 
    What does the US attempt to do during peacetime?
    • A. 

      To influence world events by introducing actions that might unsettle nations.

    • B. 

      To influence world events through actions that break apart unfriendly nations.

    • C. 

      To influence world events through those actions that rarely occurs between nations.

    • D. 

      To influence world events through those actions that routinely occurs between nations.

  • 23. 
    According to the US Army, what is war?
    • A. 

      The use of ground troops in operations.

    • B. 

      The use of ground troops in operations in hostile areas.

    • C. 

      The use of force in combat operations against an armed enemy.

    • D. 

      The use of force in combat operations against an enemy, armed or otherwise.

  • 24. 
    In what terms do commanders consider the battlefield?
    • A. 

      The time necessary to defeat the enemy force.

    • B. 

      The space necessary to complete the assigned mission.

    • C. 

      The space necessary to defeat the enemy forces or to complete the assigned mission.

    • D. 

      The time and space necessary to defeat the enemy force or to complete the assigned mission.

  • 25. 
    Once deployed, a tactical unit works within the
    • A. 

      Area of Interest (AI).

    • B. 

      Area of Operations (AO).

    • C. 

      Area of Responsibility (AOR).

    • D. 

      Area of Tactical Responsibility (ATR).

  • 26. 
    Regarding US military forces, the changing of one area of interest to another is most likely influenced by
    • A. 

      Equipment shortfalls.

    • B. 

      Personnel shortfalls.

    • C. 

      Enemy intelligence.

    • D. 

      Political climate.

  • 27. 
    Who is responsible for maintaining and managing the database for temporary location (KQ) identifiers?
    • A. 

      HQ Air Force Weather Agency (AFWA).

    • B. 

      Unified Commands.

    • C. 

      Armed service representative.

    • D. 

      The tactical unit's supporting Operational Weather Squadron (OWS).

  • 28. 
    Under which phase of the joint operational execution and planning system (JOPES) is an operation plan (OPLAN) created?
    • A. 

      Deliberate planning.

    • B. 

      Crisis action planning.

    • C. 

      Emergency action planning.

    • D. 

      Psychological operations (PSYOPS) planning

  • 29. 
    Which statement best describes the relationship between an operational plan (OPLAN) and an operational order (OPORD)?
    • A. 

      OPLANs are usually derived for the OPORD.

    • B. 

      An OPLAN is more time sensitive than an OPORD.

    • C. 

      An OPORD is a directive to execute a military operations.

    • D. 

      Weather units sometimes maintain more than one OPRORD.

  • 30. 
    • A. 

      Annex H of the joint operational execution and planning system (JOPES).

    • B. 

      Annex H of the operational plan (OPLAN).

    • C. 

      Appendix H of operational order (OPORD).

    • D. 

      Appendix H of the OPLAN.

  • 31. 
    What agency and action determines the security classification of an operation plan (OPLAN)?
    • A. 

      The custodian of the document classifies the OPLAN as TOP SECRET.

    • B. 

      The originator of the document classifies the OPLAN as TOP SECRET.

    • C. 

      The custodian of the document classifies the OPLAN at a level commensurate with the highest classified portion of the document.

    • D. 

      The originator of the document classifies the OPLAN at a level commensurate with the highest classified portion of the document.

  • 32. 
    Radio transmissions transfer data using?
    • A. 

      Low frequency (LF) and frequency modulation (FM) radios.

    • B. 

      High frequency (HF) and frequency modulation (FM) radios.

    • C. 

      Ultra low frequency (ULF) and frequency modulation (FM) radios.

    • D. 

      Ultra high frequency (UHF) and amplitude modulation (AM) radios.

  • 33. 
    Which tactical communication device employs programs that ingest, analyze, and integrate weather data in a deployed or garrison environment?
    • A. 

      Iridium Satellite Phone.

    • B. 

      Mobile subscriber equipment (MSE).

    • C. 

      Weather effects workstation (WEW).

    • D. 

      Integrated Meteorological System (IMETS).

  • 34. 
    Tactical Meteorological Observing System (TMOS) can transfer data to locations in the near vicinity using?
    • A. 

      A modem and high frequency (HF) transmitter.

    • B. 

      A modem and radio frequency (RF) transmitter.

    • C. 

      A secure modem and high frequency (HF) transmitter.

    • D. 

      A secure modem and radio frequency (RF) transmitter.

  • 35. 
    The Iridium Satellite phone set includes?
    • A. 

      9505a handset, battery, secure sleeve and Radio Frequency (RF) antenna.

    • B. 

      9505a handset, battery, secure sleeve and Ultra High Frequency (UHF) antenna.

    • C. 

      9505a handset, battery, Subscriber Identity Module (SIM) card, secure sleeve and fixed antenna.

    • D. 

      9505a handset, battery, Subscriber Identity Module (SIM) card, secure sleeve and mobile antenna.

  • 36. 
    • A. 

      To help the war fighter understand the effects of terrestrial and space weather.

    • B. 

      To ensure that the accuracy of weather forecasts take precedence over timeliness of data.

    • C. 

      To provide the war fighter tailored weather information that enhances combat effectiveness.

    • D. 

      To collect and analyze terrestrial and space weather data without respect to war fighter relevance.

  • 37. 
    Air Force Weather (AFW) is most effective when a commander receives
    • A. 

      Accurate weather forecasts covering a global scale.

    • B. 

      Accurate and relevant weather forecasts in a timely manner.

    • C. 

      Timely weather forecasts for all operations regardless of accuracy.

    • D. 

      Accurate and relevant weather forecasts regardless of actual timeliness.

  • 38. 
    Weather personnel tailor the information for specific applications so the war fighter can
    • A. 

      Quickly identify and correct any erroneous weather analysis.

    • B. 

      Manipulate the weather data further to ensure relevancy to the war fighter.

    • C. 

      Quickly identify and apply relevant information without additional analysis.

    • D. 

      Continue to manipulate and correct the data to ensure accuracy and timeliness.

  • 39. 
    The overall effectiveness of Air Force Weather (AFW) is based on the 
    • A. 

      Successful and effective accomplishments of specific military operations.

    • B. 

      War fighter's ability to understand the weather's affect on the current mission.

    • C. 

      The specific degree to which the forecast is or is not accurate and relevant to the user.

    • D. 

      How many times the weather forecast must be amended or corrected before the mission ends.

  • 40. 
    Air Force Weather (AFW) develops a coherent picture of the current state of the air and space environment as a result of performing
    • A. 

      Forecasting and tailored application.

    • B. 

      Dissemination.

    • C. 

      Integration.

    • D. 

      Analysis.

  • 41. 
    Weather information is of no operational use unless
    • A. 

      It is accurate, no matter how long it takes to reach the user.

    • B. 

      It is relevant to the mission at hand, regardless of timeliness.

    • C. 

      It is in keeping with climatological values for know events.

    • D. 

      It reaches the user in time to be of operational or planning value.

  • 42. 
    Integration of weather information as decision aids into the planning process allows commanders to
    • A. 

      Use the appropriate software application to obtain forecasts.

    • B. 

      Ask the weather forecaster to make changes to the weather data.

    • C. 

      Make informed decisions about the design and operation of a plan.

    • D. 

      Create hard and fast war plans that will not require changes due to adverse weather.

  • 43. 
    The term marginal implies that the impact of weather elements will cause
    • A. 

      Large degradation to the mission.

    • B. 

      A cancellation of any planned missions.

    • C. 

      No degradation to the mission of any kind.

    • D. 

      The occurrence of some degradation to the mission.

  • 44. 
    What must you understand in order for your weather flight (WF) to fully support aerial operations?
    • A. 

      The limitations and capabilities of each airframe and the scope of the operation.

    • B. 

      The physical geography of the regions your customer will operate in and around.

    • C. 

      The necessity of intelligence gathering operations performed by your customer.

    • D. 

      The experience level of your customer and how long they need for acclimatization.

  • 45. 
    The ability for ground forces to maneuver and traverse across terrain refers to
    • A. 

      Trafficability.

    • B. 

      Bridging capability.

    • C. 

      Operations capability.

    • D. 

      Reconnaissance capability.

  • 46. 
    In operational terms, what can be expected if two objects are identical in every physical way except emissivity?
    • A. 

      Lower emissivity heats or cools faster than the other.

    • B. 

      Higher emissivity heats or cools faster than the other.

    • C. 

      Lower radiative temperature heats or cools faster than the other.

    • D. 

      Higher radiative temperature heats or cools faster than the other.

  • 47. 
    What term is used to express the difference between the thermal energy of the target and that of the background?
    • A. 

      Thermal crossover.

    • B. 

      Inherent contrast.

    • C. 

      Thermal contrast.

    • D. 

      Thermal clutter.

  • 48. 
    The moment when the target and the background are at the same temperature is referred to as
    • A. 

      Thermal crossover.

    • B. 

      Thermal contrast.

    • C. 

      Inherent contrast.

    • D. 

      Thermal clutter.

  • 49. 
    Why does a beam of light traveling through air bend once it hits water?
    • A. 

      Speed of light is faster in water.

    • B. 

      Speed of light is slower in water.

    • C. 

      Apparent contrast of water is lower than air.

    • D. 

      Apparent contrast of water is higher than air.

  • 50. 
    The greatest potential for large solar flares is
    • A. 

      During the solar maximum.

    • B. 

      During the solar minimum.

    • C. 

      Two to three years immediately following a solar maximum.

    • D. 

      Two to three years immediately following a solar minimum.

  • 51. 
    What is associated with strong auroral activity, degraded high frequency (HF) and satellite radio communications, and errors in spacetrack and missile detection radar observations?
    • A. 

      Proton events.

    • B. 

      Ionospheric storms.

    • C. 

      Geomagnetic storms.

    • D. 

      Sudden ionospheric disturbances.

  • 52. 
    What represents a direct radiation danger to astronauts and high altitude aircraft crews and may produce direct collisional electrical charging on satellites or spacecraft?
    • A. 

      Proton events.

    • B. 

      Short wave fades.

    • C. 

      Geomagnetic storms.

    • D. 

      Sudden ionospheric disturbances.

  • 53. 
    A flare is already causing immediate environmental effects and DOD system impacts by the time we first observe it because
    • A. 

      Current technology for detecting solar flares is limited.

    • B. 

      The flare detection equipment network operates on an 8 minute delay.

    • C. 

      Very little climatology concerning initial stages of solar flares is available.

    • D. 

      The X-ray, ultraviolet, optical, and radio waves flares emit travel at the speed of light.

  • 54. 
    When do the effects of solar flares tend to subside?
    • A. 

      Shortly after the flare ends.

    • B. 

      At the same time the flare ends.

    • C. 

      During the onset of the next solar maximum.

    • D. 

      Several hours to a few days following the flare.

  • 55. 
    The impact of a proton event can last for
    • A. 

      A few hours to several days after the flare ends.

    • B. 

      A few minutes to one hour after the flare ends.

    • C. 

      Several weeks to one month after the flare begins.

    • D. 

      Until the effects are broken by the onset of another flare.

  • 56. 
    What effect in not caused by proton events?
    • A. 

      False sensor readings.

    • B. 

      Satellite disorientation.

    • C. 

      Absorption of high frequency (HF) radio signals.

    • D. 

      Omnidirectional antenna failure.

  • 57. 
    To what does a short wave fade (SWF) refer?
    • A. 

      The ionosphere's strongest (of F) layer.

    • B. 

      An abnormally high fading of a high frequency (HF) radio signal.

    • C. 

      The normal mode of radiowave propagation in the high frequency (HF) range.

    • D. 

      The portion of the ionosphere with the greatest degree of ionization.

  • 58. 
    Surface-to-surface radio operators use medium or high frequencies (MF or HF), while SATCOM operators use very high frequencies (VHF) to extreme high frequencies (EHF) because
    • A. 

      The higher the frequency the less the degree of refraction caused by the F-layer.

    • B. 

      Surface based operations use the normal mode of radiowave propagation by default.

    • C. 

      It has been determined that extreme high frequencies (EHF) cause radio interference on the earth.

    • D. 

      The F-layer continually disrupts the use of very high (VHF) and extreme high frequencies (EHF) on the earth.

  • 59. 
    What is a short wave blackout?
    • A. 

      The range of frequencies between a lowest usable frequency (LUF) and maximum useable frequency (MUF).

    • B. 

      An immediate effect experienced with the observation of a solar flare.

    • C. 

      A short wave fade (SWF) event that is strong enough to close the high frequency (HF) propagation window completely.

    • D. 

      That frequency threshold signaling too much absorption, preventing signal passage through the D-layer.

  • 60. 
    Solar radio bursts are
    • A. 

      Not possible to forecast due to model bias.

    • B. 

      Best forecast using climatology and persistence.

    • C. 

      Best forecast by collaborative effort with civilian counterparts.

    • D. 

      Not possible to forecast since they are experienced simultaneously with observation of the solar flare.

  • 61. 
    What causes geosynchronous communications satellites to experience interferences or blackouts during brief periods on either side of the spring and autumn equinoxes?
    • A. 

      Solar radio bursts.

    • B. 

      Solar conjunctions.

    • C. 

      Solar radio nose storms.

    • D. 

      Particle delayed effects.

  • 62. 
    Which system impacts tend to occur hours to several days after the solar activity that caused them, persist for up to several days, and are mostly felt in the nighttime sector?
    • A. 

      Particle delayed effects.

    • B. 

      Solar radio noise storms.

    • C. 

      Geomagnetic delayed events.

    • D. 

      Ionospheric delayed effects.

  • 63. 
    Particle events and associated geomagnetic disturbances often show a 27-day recurrence because
    • A. 

      The sun rotates once every 27 days.

    • B. 

      They are influenced by the lunar cycle.

    • C. 

      Climatology shows that solar flares occur in 27-day cycles.

    • D. 

      They can only be detected during lunar darkness.

  • 64. 
    What causes the enhanced ionization of D-layer atoms and molecules which produces signal absorption at high latitudes?
    • A. 

      Particle bombardment from space.

    • B. 

      Interaction of particles with aurora.

    • C. 

      The enhanced influences of the polar caps.

    • D. 

      The extreme nature of seasonal day and night lengths.

  • 65. 
    The enhanced ionization caused by solar flare protons enter through the funnel-like cusps in the magnetosphere above the earth's polar caps is called
    • A. 

      A short wave fade event.

    • B. 

      A polar cap absorption event.

    • C. 

      An auroral zone absorption event.

    • D. 

      A geomagnetic or ionospheric storm event.

  • 66. 
    What causes auroral zone absorption events?
    • A. 

      The aftermath of geomagnetic storms.

    • B. 

      Particles from the magnetosphere's tail.

    • C. 

      Polar cap absorption events and solar flares.

    • D. 

      Extremely long and persistent short wave fade events.

  • 67. 
    What causes ionospheric scintillation at high geomagnetic latitudes?
    • A. 

      Rogue particles from the magnetosphere's tail.

    • B. 

      The extreme variation of sun angles near the polar caps.

    • C. 

      Intense ionospheric irregularities found in the auroral zones.

    • D. 

      The immediate nature of effects produced by solar radio bursts.

  • 68. 
    Scintillation of radiowave signals is
    • A. 

      Relatively uncommon in polar regions.

    • B. 

      Relatively common in equatorial regions.

    • C. 

      Intense geomagnetic irregularities found in the ozone.

    • D. 

      The rapid, random variation in signal amplitude, phase, and/or polarization.

  • 69. 
    What tends to occur as a result of scintillation?
    • A. 

      A sudden influx in apparent satellite network traffic.

    • B. 

      Signal fading and data drop outs on satellite uplinks and data downlinks.

    • C. 

      Increases in signal strength to the degree which satellite data is unreadable.

    • D. 

      False readouts on radar, satellite, and geological sensors in the middle latitudes.

  • 70. 
    Impacts of scintillation will only be felt if
    • A. 

      A radio signal is not in use in or around the affected region.

    • B. 

      Radio signals are traveling close enough to the region to intercept it.

    • C. 

      The signal is strong enough to avoid excessive refraction by the F-layer.

    • D. 

      The signal penetrates an ionospheric region where electron density irregularities are occurring.

  • 71. 
    During what events did scintillation pose and unanticipated, but very real operational problem?
    • A. 

      Operation Desert Storm.

    • B. 

      Operation Deny Hope.

    • C. 

      Vietnam War.

    • D. 

      World War II.

  • 72. 
    A major source for space object positioning errors is
    • A. 

      Radio signal failure.

    • B. 

      Solar radio bursts.

    • C. 

      Unexpected auroral activity.

    • D. 

      Miscalculated atmospheric drag.

  • 73. 
    Atmospheric drag
    • A. 

      Decreases an object's altitude and increases it's orbital speed.

    • B. 

      Increases an object's altitude and increases it's orbital speed.

    • C. 

      Decreases an object's altitude and decreases it's orbital speed.

    • D. 

      Increases an object's altitude and decreases it's orbital speed.

  • 74. 
    What is not a consequence of atmospheric drag?
    • A. 

      Satellite mechanism failures.

    • B. 

      Inaccurate satellite locations.

    • C. 

      Unreliable de-orbit prediction.

    • D. 

      Costly orbit maintenance maneuvers.

  • 75. 
    The solar F10 index is used to
    • A. 

      Forecast the necessity of navigational alterations.

    • B. 

      Compare solar activity to tropospheric changes.

    • C. 

      Predict the impact of short wave fade events.

    • D. 

      Predict the orbits of space objects.

  • 76. 
    The Outer and Inner Van Allen Radiation Belts are
    • A. 

      The extreme ends of the known radiation belts.

    • B. 

      The only detectable radiation belts presently known.

    • C. 

      Actually composed of three regions of trapped charged particles.

    • D. 

      Two concentric, donut-shaped regions of trapped particles.

  • 77. 
    The Outer Van Allen Radiation Belt contains mostly
    • A. 

      Low energy electrons.

    • B. 

      High energy protons and electrons.

    • C. 

      Low to medium energy protons and electrons.

    • D. 

      Medium to high energy protons and electrons.

  • 78. 
    Geosynchronous orbit suffers whenever the Outer Belt moves inward or outward because
    • A. 

      It lies near the outer boundary of the Outer Belt.

    • B. 

      It lies near the inner boundary of the Outer Belt.

    • C. 

      It lies near the inner boundary of the Inner Belt.

    • D. 

      It lies near the outer boundary of the Inner Belt.

  • 79. 
    Why do semisynchronous orbit suffers from a variable high density particle environment?
    • A. 

      It lies near the middle of the Inner Belt.

    • B. 

      It lies near the middle of the Outer Belt.

    • C. 

      It lies along the inner boundary of the Inner Belt.

    • D. 

      It lies just outside the outer boundary of the Inner Belt.

  • 80. 
    Radiation belt electrons are
    • A. 

      About 1 to 5 times more numerous than protons.

    • B. 

      About 5 to 10 times more numerous than protons.

    • C. 

      About 10 to 100 times more numerous than protons.

    • D. 

      About 100 to 1000 times more numerous than protons.

  • 81. 
    All of the following can produce spacecraft electrical charging except
    • A. 

      Solar illumination.

    • B. 

      Lunar illumination.

    • C. 

      Motion through a medium containing charged particles.

    • D. 

      Directed particle bombardment during geomagnetic storms and proton events.

  • 82. 
    Solar illumination and wake charging are examples of
    • A. 

      Unexpected solar events.

    • B. 

      Surface charging phenomena.

    • C. 

      Electrical and radiation hazards.

    • D. 

      Core sector charging phenomena.

  • 83. 
    What is not produced by an electrostatic discharge?
    • A. 

      False sensor readings.

    • B. 

      Spurious circuit switching.

    • C. 

      Failure of onboard modeling sensors.

    • D. 

      Failure of electronic components, thermal coatings, and solar cells.

  • 84. 
    What is the source for cosmic rays which compliments single event upsets' (SEU)?
    • A. 

      Rather small, unnoticed solar flares.

    • B. 

      The middle of the Outer Van Allen Belt.

    • C. 

      Various sources that is rather difficult to forecast.

    • D. 

      Very largest solar flares or galactic sources outside our Solar System.

  • 85. 
    • A. 

      Option 1

    • B. 

      Option 2

    • C. 

      Option 3

    • D. 

      Option 4