Nu 600 Practice Quiz

168 Questions

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Patient Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Your patient presents with a fever, chills and general malaise and reports having had a bulls-eye rash several weeks ago on his thigh. What is the treatment for an adult non-pregnant patient?
    • A. 

      Doxycycline 500mg daily x 10 days

    • B. 

      Doxycycline 100mg BID 10-14 days.

    • C. 

      Amoxicillin 1000 mg bid x 2 days

    • D. 

      Penicillin 50mg daily for life.

  • 2. 
    Your patient has sustained an acute trauma to the shoulder and you suspect a dislocation. What test would help to rule in this diagnosis?
    • A. 

      Speeds test.

    • B. 

      Apprehension test/fowlers test.

    • C. 

      Neer.

    • D. 

      Drop arm.

  • 3. 
    Your patient has a skin lesion on the upper aspect of the ear (helix) and has been a farmer for 65 years. The lesion is flat and crusty. What is this pre-cancerous lesion called?
    • A. 

      Squamous cell carcinoma

    • B. 

      Basal cell carcinoma

    • C. 

      Actinic Keratosis

    • D. 

      Malignant melanoma

  • 4. 
    You want to treat bacterial conjunctivitis if these conditions are present- Immunocompromised, uncontrolled DM, Healthcare worker, closed angle glaucoma
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 5. 
    You want to avoid caffeine if you have Meniere's?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 6. 
    You see a client in the waiting room who appears to be 16 or 17 holding their right arm at a 90 degree angle while rotating their head toward the affected side. What kind of injury is suspected.
    • A. 

      Biceps tendonitis.

    • B. 

      Clavicular fracture

    • C. 

      Rotator Cuff tear.

    • D. 

      Bursitis

  • 7. 
    You notice Kerly B lines on a chest x-ray with cardiac measurement of greater than 50% and your patient has a BNP of 2500. What disease process is suspected?  
    • A. 

      Pulmonary embolism

    • B. 

      Pneumonia

    • C. 

      Pleural effusion

    • D. 

      Cardiomegaly with acute CHF exacerbation

  • 8. 
    You may see neutropenia and thrombocytopenia in Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever CBC results?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 9. 
    You have an opioid addiction who comes to the office with W/D S/S and he reports he was recently put on a new drug to help him quit opioids. What drug might this be?
    • A. 

      Naltrexone

    • B. 

      Antabuse

    • C. 

      Xanax

    • D. 

      Cymbalta

  • 10. 
    You have a patient who reports falling on her arm while tripping. The reports hearing a "pop" but not in any pain now. She does have a + speeds test. You suspect?
    • A. 

      Supraspinatus tendonitis

    • B. 

      Acromial bursa

    • C. 

      Biceps tendon tear.

    • D. 

      Rotator Cuff Tear

  • 11. 
    You have a patient who presents to the clinic with itchy, watery eyes and reported a whitish discharge early in the AM. The conjunctival lining is reddened. What type of conjunctivitis is suspected?
    • A. 

      Allergic conjunctivitis

    • B. 

      Viral conjunctivitis

    • C. 

      Bacterial conjunctivitis

  • 12. 
    You have a patient who had a recent URI 2 weeks ago and is now complaining of sinus pressure in the early AM especially leaning forward. What are the 5 S/S of sinus infection used to improve diagnosis?
    • A. 

      Maxillary tooth ache

    • B. 

      Purulent secretions

    • C. 

      Unable to transilluminate sinuses

    • D. 

      Poor response to decongestants

    • E. 

      Hx of colored nasal drainage

  • 13. 
    You have a client with an A1C that is less than 9% and has been newly diagnosed with Diabetes type 2 based on a series of FBG that read 159 and 164. The client is eager to try diet and exercise changes that you have provided. What is your next step?
    • A. 

      Order Metformin at 500mg daily and titrate as needed.

    • B. 

      Allow the patient 3 months to try to lower A1C on own with diet and exercise.

    • C. 

      Start basal insulin at 10 units per day.

    • D. 

      Initiate combination therapy.

  • 14. 
    You can treat a first time gout attack with allopurinol?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 15. 
    You are seeing a female patient who appears depressed. Further questioning indicates that the patient has had episodes of hypomania. What is the most appropriate medication to treat this patient with?
    • A. 

      Valium

    • B. 

      Nortriptyline

    • C. 

      Lithium

    • D. 

      Effexor

  • 16. 
    You are presented with a patient that has complaints of neck, shoulder and hip inflammation/discomfort. You are suspecting polymyalgia rheumatic. What is true of PMR below?
    • A. 

      Presents with flu like symptoms

    • B. 

      Treat with prednisone 15-20mg, higher 60mg if GCA is suspected.

    • C. 

      Titrate dosage of prednisone on the basis of the ESR.

    • D. 

      Will shoe elevated ESR and CRP if active.

    • E. 

      May require long duration of corticosteroid treatment similar to GCA

  • 17. 
    Which type of tremor is being described? This tremor is better or gone at rest/sleep, worse with activity and is better if alcohol is used but worse if stress level is elevated?
    • A. 

      Benign essential

    • B. 

      Resting tremor

    • C. 

      Intention tremor

  • 18. 
    Which treatment regimen is commonly seen in patient with B12 deficient anemia as a result of gastric bypass surgery?
    • A. 

      Cyanocobalamin 1000ug IM daily for 8 weeks then monthly thereafter.

    • B. 

      Cyanocobalamin 2000ug IM daily for 2 weeks only.

    • C. 

      Cyanocobalamin 1000ug IM daily for life.

    • D. 

      10 mg of folic acid daily.

  • 19. 
    Which skin laceration would be closed using primary intention?
    • A. 

      Bite to the face.

    • B. 

      Cat bite to the hand.

    • C. 

      Dog bite to the leg.

    • D. 

      Wound that is unidentified and is over 12 hours old.

  • 20. 
    Which option is the most appropriate for the treatment of hypothyroidism?
    • A. 

      Levothyroxine 150mcg and simply watch the weight fall off.

    • B. 

      Levothyroxine 12.5mg-25mg with a recheck in 6-8 weeks.

    • C. 

      Levothyroxine 50mg with a recheck in 4 weeks.

    • D. 

      Levothyroxine 12.5mcg-25mcg with a recheck in 6-8 weeks.

  • 21. 
    Which of the following would be consistent with non-Megaloblastic changes on a peripheral smear test in a patient with macrocytic anemia?
    • A. 

      B12 deficiency

    • B. 

      Alcohol abuse/Liver disease.

    • C. 

      Folate deficiency

    • D. 

      IDA

  • 22. 
    Which laboratory value is most consistent with a normocytic anemia involving hemolytic sickle-cell disease?
    • A. 

      HGB 17 in a male

    • B. 

      Reticulocyte count of > 2.

    • C. 

      Reticulocyte count < 2.

    • D. 

      Megaloblastic cells present on peripheral smear.

  • 23. 
    Which lab value is a good predictor of alcoholic abuse treatment that is being followed?
    • A. 

      GGT gamma-glutamyl transferase

    • B. 

      AST

    • C. 

      ALT

  • 24. 
    Which is the treatment regimen for temporal arteritis?
    • A. 

      Pulse of intravenous methylprednisone 500-1000 per day x 3 days if visual changes seen, then/or 1mg/kg max of 60mg for 1 month then tapered to 10-15 mg daily for 3-4 months to approx. 2-3 years.

    • B. 

      60mg of prednisone for life, no taper.

    • C. 

      20-40 mg of prednisone 10-14 days.

  • 25. 
    Which illness below has the triad of symptoms containing: Fever, pharyngitis and lymphadenopathy?
    • A. 

      Cellulitis

    • B. 

      Infectious Mono

    • C. 

      Pancreatitis

    • D. 

      Lyme disease

  • 26. 
    Which drug class is first line treatment for anxiety disorders?
    • A. 

      SSRI

    • B. 

      Tricyclic's

    • C. 

      Benzodiazepines

  • 27. 
    What is the proper sequence of Raynaud's color changes in the digits?
    • A. 

      Red, White, Blue

    • B. 

      White, Blue, Red

    • C. 

      Red, Blue, White

    • D. 

      Green, Purple, White- If you select this answer you are in the wrong field!

  • 28. 
    What is the preferred treatment for an acute Gout attack?
    • A. 

      Colchicine if after 48 hours.

    • B. 

      Allopurinol 100mg daily

    • C. 

      NSAID/Indocin 50mg TID 2-3 days taper to 25mg TID there after.

    • D. 

      Tylenol 500mg bid

  • 29. 
    What is a common side effect to watch for with Wellbutrin use?
    • A. 

      ECG changes

    • B. 

      Sexual dysfunction

    • C. 

      Weight gain

    • D. 

      Seizures

  • 30. 
    What are the 4 cardinal signs of Meniere's disease
    • A. 

      Vertigo

    • B. 

      Ear fullness on side affected

    • C. 

      Sinus pressure bilaterally

    • D. 

      Low frequency sensorineural hearing loss

    • E. 

      Tinnitus

  • 31. 
    Trigeminal Neuralgia is a pain disorder of the sensory branch of the trigeminal nerve(5), usually affecting the 2/3 branches or the maxillary/mandibular areas. What two items can trigger an attack?
    • A. 

      Heat and or cold

    • B. 

      Heat and trigger point

    • C. 

      Cold and trigger point

    • D. 

      Use of anticonvulsants

  • 32. 
    Tricyclic antidepressants are a feasible choice in a patient who has anxiety and sleep initiation problems?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 33. 
    Thyroid nodules are usually benign and most concerning if found in patients under 20 or over 60. If the nodule is palpated and found to be cold this is more concerning?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 34. 
    This syndrome consists of high insulin in the blood with a normal content of glucose, abdominal girth, HTN, HLD, hyper-coagulation state, hyper-inflammatory state and proteinuria?
    • A. 

      Ehler-Danlos syndrome

    • B. 

      Metabolic syndrome

    • C. 

      Marfan's syndrome

    • D. 

      Diabetes Type 1

  • 35. 
    This medication moa is to increase pancreatic release of insulin?
    • A. 

      DPP-4's

    • B. 

      Biguanide's

    • C. 

      Sulfonylurea's

    • D. 

      Insulin

  • 36. 
    This drug is used to help alcoholics refrain from drinking?
    • A. 

      Xanax

    • B. 

      Antabuse

    • C. 

      Naltrexone

    • D. 

      Effexor

  • 37. 
    This benzodiazepine has a short half life and a fast onset making it a poor choice for anxiety bridge.
    • A. 

      Valium/Diazepam

    • B. 

      Xanax/Alprazolam

    • C. 

      Ativan/Lorazepam

    • D. 

      Prozac/Fluoxetine

  • 38. 
    This antidepressant is a good choice for patients who are leery of weight gain and sexual dysfunction.
    • A. 

      Amitriptyline

    • B. 

      Sertraline

    • C. 

      Bupropion/Wellbutrin

    • D. 

      Mirtazepine

  • 39. 
    The weber test will lateralize to the unaffected ear in Meniere's disease along with air conduction being greater than bone on the affected side? 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 40. 
    The single greatest factor for delaying COPD progression is?
    • A. 

      Pharmacology initiation

    • B. 

      Exercise

    • C. 

      Stopping tobacco use

    • D. 

      Dietary changes

  • 41. 
    The provider has suggested a young patient to use bleach baths (1/4-1/2 cup) for which skin condition below.
    • A. 

      Psoriasis

    • B. 

      Eczema (atopic dermatitis)

    • C. 

      Poison Ivy

    • D. 

      Scabies

  • 42. 
    The number 1 most diagnosed mental disorder is?
    • A. 

      Depression

    • B. 

      Bipolar Type 1

    • C. 

      Anxiety

    • D. 

      Bipolar Type 2

  • 43. 
    The gold standard for testing for COPD is?
    • A. 

      Chest X-Ray

    • B. 

      Incentive Spirometry

    • C. 

      CBC

    • D. 

      CT

  • 44. 
    The bicep tendon has ruptured and your client is a 68 y/o female what is the appropriate treatment?
    • A. 

      Conservative, RICE/NSAIDS.

    • B. 

      Surgical repair immediately.

  • 45. 
    The atopic triad consists of atopic dermatitis (eczema), allergic rhinitis and asthma. Where on the body do we see eczema form on adults?
    • A. 

      Patellar aspect of knees

    • B. 

      Buccal mucosa

    • C. 

      Extensor surfaces

    • D. 

      Flexor surfaces

  • 46. 
    The "honeymoon phase" is a term used for type ​1 diabetics who may regain some form of beta cell function during the early treatment phase? This is temporary and may require a dose adjustment of insulin?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 47. 
    Symptoms to determine if bacterial strep test is warranted? If two are present run rapid strep test in office.
    • A. 

      Absent cough

    • B. 

      Cervical Lymphedema

    • C. 

      Exudates on tonsils

    • D. 

      Fever or Hx of fever greater than 100.4

  • 48. 
    Sinusitis that presents with less than 7 days duration is less likely to be bacterial in nature where as if present for longer than 7 days we may suspect bacterial cause?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 49. 
    Select the true statements below involving IDA
    • A. 

      Treatment should consist of 4-6 months initially.

    • B. 

      If Ferritin level is > 50 at the follow-up testing it is ok to discontinue treatment.

    • C. 

      Can be caused by GI bleed, GI or Uterine CA, Menses.

    • D. 

      Is a normocytic anemia.

    • E. 

      Iron treatment is best taken on an empty stomach and if possible with orange juice.

  • 50. 
    Select the true statements below about sulfonylureas.
    • A. 

      Can cause Wt gain

    • B. 

      Will decrease A1C 1.5-2%

    • C. 

      Glyburide has been indicated in increased risk of hypoglycemia.

    • D. 

      MOA is to decrease glucose production in the liver.

  • 51. 
    Select the physical findings of temporal arteritis
    • A. 

      HA new onset

    • B. 

      Temporal artery point tenderness/prominent temporal artery.

    • C. 

      If untreated can cause blindness

    • D. 

      Visual impairment

    • E. 

      Jaw claudication

  • 52. 
    Select the Ottawa rules for Knee imaging. 
    • A. 

      50

    • B. 

      Isolated tenderness over the patella.

    • C. 

      Inability to flex beyond 90 degrees.

    • D. 

      Fibular head tenderness

    • E. 

      Inability to bear weight in acute phase, no more than 4 steps in ER setting.

  • 53. 
    Select the options below that would be considered 1 drink
    • A. 

      12 oz beer

    • B. 

      8 oz malt liquor

    • C. 

      5 oz wine

    • D. 

      1.5 oz hard liquor

    • E. 

      16 oz beer

  • 54. 
    Select the ones you like
    • A. 

      Option1

    • B. 

      Option2

    • C. 

      Option3

    • D. 

      Option4

  • 55. 
    Select the items below that equal 1 carb or 15 grams of carbs which will require 1 unit of prandial insulin if using the carb counting method.
    • A. 

      1 slice of bread

    • B. 

      1/2 small potato

    • C. 

      Full potato

    • D. 

      1 small fruit

    • E. 

      1/2 cup of juice

    • F. 

      1/3 bagel

    • G. 

      Small chicken breast

    • H. 

      1 cup of milk

  • 56. 
    Select the items below that are true of SLGT-2's
    • A. 

      A1C decrease of 1% expected.

    • B. 

      MOA is to slow incretin metabolism

    • C. 

      MOA is to increase urinary excretion of glucose

    • D. 

      Caution as can increase uti's, vaginal inf., and infection in uncircumscribed males.

    • E. 

      Is a once daily oral.

    • F. 

      Examples are: Invocana, Jardiance and Farxiga.

  • 57. 
    Select the hallmark features of Rosacea below.
    • A. 

      Diarrhea

    • B. 

      Watery eyes

    • C. 

      Facial flushing

    • D. 

      Facial edema

    • E. 

      Pruritus

    • F. 

      Telangiectasia

    • G. 

      Facial erythema

    • H. 

      Presence of comodones

  • 58. 
    Select the diagnostic criteria below that would indicate DM.
    • A. 

      FBS of equal to or greater than 126 on 2 separate occasions.

    • B. 

      Oral Glucose tolerance test of equal to or greater than 200 at the 2 hour mark.

    • C. 

      A1C greater than 6.5%

    • D. 

      Oral Glucose Tolerance test of greater than 140 but less than 200.

    • E. 

      Random blood sugar of equal to or greater than 200, retest if asymptomatic.

  • 59. 
    Select the best treatment option for IDA from the list below.
    • A. 

      Ferrous gluconate 650 TID

    • B. 

      Ferrous Sulfate 600mg daily

    • C. 

      Ferrous Sulfate 200mg BID

    • D. 

      B12 orally daily.

  • 60. 
    Select the appropriate treatment regimen for Rosacea below
    • A. 

      Metronidazole 1% bid 3-4 months topically

    • B. 

      Doxycycline 50-100mg bid topically 3-4 months

    • C. 

      Augmentin PO 500mg daily for 12 months.

    • D. 

      Azelaic Acid 15% BID times 2 weeks, if no improvement in 4 weeks D/C

  • 61. 
    Select Pharmacology therapy for Osteoporosis.
    • A. 

      Actonel

    • B. 

      Fosamax

    • C. 

      Boniva

    • D. 

      Evista

    • E. 

      Forteo-Will increase bone density, Inj. daily for 18 months.

  • 62. 
    Select from the list the non-stimulant drugs for ADHD.
    • A. 

      Clonidine, Strattera, Guanfacine

    • B. 

      Adderall, Ritalin, Concerta

  • 63. 
    Select below the triad of S/S for Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever.
    • A. 

      Fever

    • B. 

      Development of rash that starts at the wrists and ankles and works toward the central body.

    • C. 

      Diarrhea

    • D. 

      HA

    • E. 

      Polyuria

  • 64. 
    S/S of shoulder dislocation.
    • A. 

      Sulcus sign, arm pulled inferiorly creates a triangular shape at deltoid.

    • B. 

      + Apprehension test

    • C. 

      + speeds test

    • D. 

      Very painful with any kind of movement, PROM and AROM.

    • E. 

      Needs immediate referral to ER to reduce.

  • 65. 
    S/S of COPD include increased AP diameter, accessory muscle use-intercostal and sternocleidomastoid, muscle wasting of the legs/arms, pursed lipped breathing, long inspiratory and expiratory air movement. Increased lung compliance can lead to Rt sided heart failure.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 66. 
    Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever is transmitted by Tick's with a 6-10 hour transmission time required?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 67. 
    Quad sets are a key treatment for patellar subluxation?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 68. 
    PTSD Triad is?
    • A. 

      Re-experiencing, Avoidance and Hypervigilance

    • B. 

      Anxiety, Depression and Avoidance

    • C. 

      Depression, GAD, Numbing

  • 69. 
    Psoriasis will present with silvery white scale on the extensor surfaces.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 70. 
    Primary Raynaud's Phenomenon is the result of vasospastic disorder found  in the fingers and toe's,  of the list below which is not a common trigger for primary Raynaud's?
    • A. 

      Calcium Channel Blocker use

    • B. 

      Cold

    • C. 

      Increased stress

    • D. 

      Previous frostbite

  • 71. 
    Prandial or short acting insulin should be dosed at the 35/20/30/10% rate respectively in relationship to breakfast, lunch, supper and night-time snack?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 72. 
    Patients are to dose their carb counting insulin at one additional unit per every 15 grams of carbohydrates?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 73. 
    Patient who you suspect has Parkinson's and has a good response to dopaminergic therapy to their resting tremor is diagnostic for Parkinson's?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 74. 
    Patient that is 35 f comes into the office complaining of erythema and edema with watery eyes every time she eats spicy foods. What could be a possible DD?
    • A. 

      Cellulitis

    • B. 

      Atopic Dermatitis

    • C. 

      Rosacea

    • D. 

      Psoriasis

  • 75. 
    Patient reports a dull aching throbbing pain in the hip. There is a history of both RA and alcoholism. It is reasonable to suspect avascular necrosis?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 76. 
    Patient presents with unilateral facial drooping, he reports having had an URI 2 weeks ago. You note flattening of the forehead wrinkles and inability of the left side to create a smile or puff out cheeks. What is suspected and what nerve is involved?
    • A. 

      Bells Palsy/Facial cranial 7

    • B. 

      Bells Palsy/Trigeminal cranial 5

    • C. 

      BPV

    • D. 

      Temporal arteritis

  • 77. 
    Patient presents with radial deviation of the 4/5 digits and appears to have been in a physical altercation. What is a likely initial diagnosis?
    • A. 

      Ganglion Cyst

    • B. 

      Boxers Fracture

    • C. 

      Depuytrens Contracture

    • D. 

      CTS

  • 78. 
    Patient presents with lower extremity weakness that is progressing up the legs proximally. What is suspected.
    • A. 

      Stroke

    • B. 

      ALS

    • C. 

      Gillian Burre

    • D. 

      MS

  • 79. 
    Patient presents with groin pain that is worse in the AM and with extended activity. You assess decreased ROM and crepitus on exam. What is likely diagnosis.
    • A. 

      Osteoarthritis of the hip joint

    • B. 

      Bursitis of the trochanter

    • C. 

      IT band syndrome

    • D. 

      Septic Arthritis

  • 80. 
    Patient presents with fever and chills with a cough. SaO2 is 92% on RA. Rales are heard that do not clear with cough. Denies any post-tussive vomiting. Patient has consolidated sounds when egophony is assessed.  What is suspected?
    • A. 

      Pneumonia

    • B. 

      Bronchitis

    • C. 

      Pertussis

    • D. 

      Asthma

  • 81. 
    Patient presents with a flexed ring finger to 90 degrees at the PIJ and there is a palpable nodule at the joint space. You can flex it but it is painful to the patient. This condition is most common in the long and ring finger. What is it? 
    • A. 

      De Quervains

    • B. 

      Trigger finger

    • C. 

      Carpel Tunnel

    • D. 

      Ganglion cyst

  • 82. 
    Patient presents to the clinic with a swollen knee and you assess medial joint line laxity with valgus stress. You notice bruising and the client reports the knee was edematous quickly. What injury is suspected? 
    • A. 

      ACL

    • B. 

      MCL

    • C. 

      Meniscus tear

    • D. 

      LCL

  • 83. 
    Patient presents as a7 y/o female with purulent discharge in both eyes. The symptoms of sticky crusty eyes are worse in the AM. What is suspected?  
    • A. 

      Rosacea

    • B. 

      Bacterial conjunctivitis

    • C. 

      Viral conjunctivitis

    • D. 

      Trigeminal Neuralgia

  • 84. 
    Patient complains of back pain that radiates into the buttocks but notes it is much improved if sitting or leaning forward. What could be a source of the pain?
    • A. 

      IT band syndrome

    • B. 

      SI joint dysfunction

    • C. 

      Degenerative Disk Disease

    • D. 

      Spinal Stenosis

  • 85. 
    Patient comes into the office with an extensive alcohol abuse. Labs are drawn and the patients b12 is low. What anemic findings would you expect to find?
    • A. 

      Normocytic anemia

    • B. 

      Low MCV

    • C. 

      Low Hgn/Hct, Low iron, > reticulocytes

    • D. 

      Low Hbg/Hct, elevated MCV, Megaloblastic Peripheral smear.

  • 86. 
    Ottawa Rules for Foot pain, imaging.
    • A. 

      Pain in the mid foot, inability to bear weight.

    • B. 

      Bone pain at the navicular(medial) area.

    • C. 

      Bone tenderness at the base of the 5th metatarsal(lateral).

    • D. 

      Option4

  • 87. 
    Ottawa Rules Ankle
    • A. 

      Pain near malleoli

    • B. 

      Bone tenderness at posterior malleoli or tip of malleoli

    • C. 

      Inability to bear weight in the acute phase of injury.

  • 88. 
    Mono has an increased incidence in which age group?
    • A. 

      6-10

    • B. 

      30-40

    • C. 

      25-30

    • D. 

      15-19

  • 89. 
    Metformin is the treatment choice for first-line therapy in diabetes type 2, the starting dose is 500mg daily with titration as needed.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 90. 
    Metabolic Syndrome first line treatment includes diet and exercise education with a goal weight loss of 10% in the first 6 months?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 91. 
    Medications that are implicated in intra renal failure are NSAIDS, ACE/ARBS(chronic use), ATB-Aminoglycosides/quinolones/cephalosporin's.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 92. 
    It is good practice to obtain at least 2 views when suspecting fracture and to get films of the proximal or distal joint when fracture is identified.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 93. 
    It is common to treat PTSD with CBT/SSRI and to avoid benzodiazepines.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 94. 
    It is a red flag if a patient comes to the office seeking Xanax?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 95. 
    Intermittent cough that is worse in the AM and at night?
    • A. 

      Asthma

    • B. 

      COPD

    • C. 

      Bronchitis

    • D. 

      Pneumonia

  • 96. 
    Interesting fact about Achilles Tendonitis
    • A. 

      Pain is better at rest.

    • B. 

      Pain is better with activity.

    • C. 

      No pain at all with tendonitis.

  • 97. 
    Infectious mono is caused by the Epstein Barr virus in most cases, the treatment is symptom relief with nsaids/Tylenol for pain/fever, 2% lidocaine gargles, hydration, avoidance of contact sports/rest due to splenomegaly and absolute avoidance of ATB therapy as use of penicillin's can cause rash? 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 98. 
    Increased INR in a patient whom does not take anticoagulant therapy with alcoholic abuse indicates liver function damage/Cirrhosis?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 99. 
    In a shoulder dislocation the patient will experience pain with both passive and active ROM?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 100. 
    If started on intense insulin therapy the TDD should be 1/2 basal and 1/2 prandial.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 101. 
    If after you have tried 2nd and 3rd line medications with your diabetic that is type 2 you would stop the 2/3 line medications, keep the client on metformin and add basal insulin?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 102. 
    If a client is on an intense insulin(prandial/basal) schedule what should be the TDD dose based on weight in Kilo's?
    • A. 

      .2-.3u/kg

    • B. 

      .1-.2u/kg

    • C. 

      1-2u/kg

    • D. 

      .3-.5u/kg

  • 103. 
    Hypothyroidism creates a state of low metabolic activity within the body. Which S/S below would be consistent with hypothyroidism?
    • A. 

      Brittle nails

    • B. 

      Constipation

    • C. 

      Cold Intolerance

    • D. 

      Diarrhea

    • E. 

      Tachycardia

    • F. 

      Periorbital Edema

    • G. 

      Weight Gain

  • 104. 
    How long does it take for SSRI/SNRI's to begin to become effective?
    • A. 

      Instantly

    • B. 

      1-2 weeks

    • C. 

      6-8 weeks

    • D. 

      2-4 weeks

  • 105. 
    H2's and PPI's can decrease B12 absorption either directly or as a result of decreased Intrinsic Factor release?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 106. 
    Gold standard test for the diagnosis of gout is aspiration of urate crystals?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 107. 
    Goal treatment for hypothyroidism is 2, with the normal reference range being 0.4-4?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 108. 
    For  COPD exacerbation what is the medication regimen to start?
    • A. 

      Oral steroid 40mg x 5 days.

    • B. 

      Albuterol inhaled QID 1 month

    • C. 

      Azithromycin 100mg daily 10-14 days.

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 109. 
    For temporal arteritis the gold standard test is temporal artery biopsy?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 110. 
    Epistaxis can be treated with pressure x 15 minutes, Afrin times 15 minutes, silver nitrate if bleed is visible and rhino rocket packing. How lone can you leave rhino rocket in place?
    • A. 

      24-48 hours

    • B. 

      72 hours

    • C. 

      96 hours

    • D. 

      Indefinitely

  • 111. 
    Diabetics who require HTN medication should be started on?
    • A. 

      BB

    • B. 

      CBB

    • C. 

      Ace/Arb

    • D. 

      Diuretic

  • 112. 
    Conjunctivitis is generally viral in nature, common signs of viral conjunctivitis are a watery eye that spreads to bilateral presentation, is self limiting with treatment to include sold compress and artificial tears?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 113. 
    Common triggers for Rosacea include: Hot foods, Spicy Foods and Alcohol?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 114. 
    Common finding with Gout is great sensitivity to pain and usually unilateral affecting one joint at a time.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 115. 
    At a minimum these 3 drugs should be considered in the treatment of an alcoholic
    • A. 

      Thiamine, b12

    • B. 

      Multivitamin

    • C. 

      Valium

    • D. 

      Folic Acid 1mg daily

  • 116. 
    Appropriate care for a clavicular fracture includes re-x-ray in one week to identify proper healing?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 117. 
    Another option for a cluster HA that is abortive is O2 10-15L?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 118. 
    An AST/ALT ratio of 2:1 or greater is indicitave of alcoholic abuse?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 119. 
    An alternative to Ferrous Sulfate in the treatment of IDA is Ferrous Gluconate 325mg TID?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 120. 
    Amiodarone may cause thyroiditis?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 121. 
    Achilles Tendon Rupture
    • A. 

      No pain after rupture.

    • B. 

      Painful until repaired.

    • C. 

      More common in men and in left leg.

    • D. 

      Unable to rise up on toes.

    • E. 

      + Thompsons test, squeeze gastrocnemius muscle results in no plantar flexion.

    • F. 

      Palpable gap above the calcaneal prominence.

  • 122. 
    Acanthosis Nigrican's is a finding in Metabolic Syndrome?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 123. 
    A first line drug for the treatment of cluster HA is Verapamil?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 124. 
    A diagnosis of CKD can be made if the GFR is below 60?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 125. 
    A common indicator of metformin being dosed to high is which of the following?
    • A. 

      Diarrhea

    • B. 

      Hypoglycemia

    • C. 

      GFR of >60

  • 126. 
    70% of all back pain is related to lumbosacral strain and will resolve on own in 4-6 weeks?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 127. 
    45 y/o patient presents with lumbosacral pain that has been aggravated by a weekend of intense yard work. The pain has been persistent for 1 week. What options below would be appropriate for the treatment of this patient?
    • A. 

      Order MRI

    • B. 

      NSAID 800mg TID

    • C. 

      Small prescription of Vicoden or other opioid for short duration

    • D. 

      Heat/Ice

    • E. 

      PT

    • F. 

      X-RAY

    • G. 

      Flexeril/Cyclobenzaprine 10mg TID for muscle spasm

  • 128. 
    1st line treatment for Trigeminal Neuralgia is anticonvulsants: Carbamazepine and Oxcarbazepine. What labs should be monitored if using these drugs?
    • A. 

      CBC/BMP

    • B. 

      LFT

    • C. 

      Glucose

    • D. 

      TSH

  • 129. 
    1st line pharm treatment for anxiety is?
    • A. 

      SSRI/SNRI

    • B. 

      Benzo's

    • C. 

      Tricyclic's

  • 130. 
    Statins SE are muscle cramp?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 131. 
    Pregnancy is a major contradiction to statin use?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 132. 
    Select S/S of PAD and diagnostic tools.
    • A. 

      Ulcers on toes/heels

    • B. 

      Loss of hair on shins and shiny skin

    • C. 

      Rubor test, elevate leg for 30 seconds, will pale then lower should return to red/rubor

    • D. 

      ABI 0.9 is low normal anything under this value is diagnostic for PAD

    • E. 

      Pain with extremity elevated, resolves with extremity lowered.

    • F. 

      Claudication, with activity. Similar distance each time.

  • 133. 
    What is the gold standard for cholecystitis diagnosis.
    • A. 

      Ultra sound

    • B. 

      CT

    • C. 

      MRI

    • D. 

      CBC

  • 134. 
    In order to diagnose HTN you need 2 separate readings on 2 separate visits?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False