# Trivia Quiz On Power Generation, Operation, And Control!

80 Questions | Total Attempts: 148  Settings  The world today runs on electricity and machines. That being said, there is an increased demand for power, which has also led to rising in different sources. Some of the sources are good for the environment, whereas others are not. Take this trivia quiz and see what you know about power generation, operation, and control in the world today. All the best!

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• 1.
A combined-cycle generator has a heat rate of
• A.

7000

• B.

9000

• C.

12500

• D.

14000

• 2.
Inadvertent interchange is the difference between the net actual interchange and net scheduled interchange.
• A.

True

• B.

False

• 3.
Inadvertent interchange is the difference between forecast and actual energy interchanged.
• A.

True

• B.

False

• 4.
Systems are operating in Parallel. System A schedules 100MW into B. B does not reduce generation as A schedule's, What happens?
• A.

Frequency in B increases

• B.

Voltage in A Goes down

• C.

Voltage in B Goes up

• D.

Frequency in A increases

• 5.
Ln power system stability, the use of the equal-area criterion involves
• A.

Power vs time

• B.

Power vs power angle

• C.

Time vs.power angle

• D.

Power Angle

• E.

Machine angle vs.time

• 6.
The angle between the source and the load voltages of a transmission system is called
• A.

Power angle

• B.

Phase angle

• C.

Transmission angle

• D.

• 7.
Power flows between interconnected system from a _____
• A.

• B.

Lagging power angle

• C.

Higher voltage to the lower voltage

• D.

Lower voltage to higher voltage

• 8.
Maximum power flows when power transfer angle is zero
• A.

True

• B.

False

• 9.
Which is a way of increasing real power flow
• A.

Changing the phase angle with phase shifting transformers

• B.

Changing generation patterns relative to the line terminlas

• C.

Changing the impedance of the line with series cpacitors

• D.

All of the above

• 10.
In interconnected systems power flows from the system with the:
• A.

• B.

Greater System voltage

• C.

• D.

Lesser system voltage

• 11.
What is common between demand factor and diversity factor
• A.

Maximum demand

• B.

• C.

• 12.
The Department's heat rate for newly combined cycle in BTU is
• A.

7000

• B.

9000

• C.

11500

• D.

14000

• 13.
What is automated using the automatic controls of power stations
• A.

Full control of the station

• B.

The emergency protection system

• C.

All of the above

• 14.
• A.

3500

• B.

4000

• C.

4250

• D.

4500

• 15.
Spinning reserve is unloaded generation which is synchronized and capable of serving additional demand in ___ minutes
• A.

5

• B.

10

• C.

15

• D.

20

• 16.
The departments operating reserve is
• A.

• B.

5% of capacity plus regulation

• C.

30% of capacity

• D.

Single failure contingency plus regulation

• 17.
Which type of reliability indices is for momentary interruptions
• A.

SAIFI

• B.

SAIDI

• C.

CAIDI

• D.

MAIFI

• 18.
Maximum power flows when the power transfer angle is____
• A.

90

• B.

30

• C.

45

• D.

0

• 19.
They cancel some of the inductive reactance of a line therefore decreasing impedance. This enables more real power to flow. They are used primarily to improve system stability.
• A.

Shunt Reactors

• B.

Shunt Capacitors

• C.

Series Capacitors

• 20.
During light loads the capacitive charging current may cause excessive voltage at the receiving end of a transmission line. These are switched in and out of service to absorb excess VARS during lightly loaded periods.
• A.

Shunt Reactors

• B.

Shunt Capacitors

• C.

Series Capacitors

• 21.
Switching these into service compensates for this effect by adding Var load to the system. They are also attached to the tertiary windings of a transformer bank.
• A.

Shunt Reactors

• B.

Shunt Capacitors

• C.

Series Capacitors

• 22.
If a line is heavily loaded, the inductive Var losses may cause insufficient voltage at the receiving end of a transmission line. These compensate for this effect. In the morning when customer loads are increasing they are swithced into service to supplies VARS.
• A.

Shunt Reactors

• B.

Shunt Capacitors

• C.

Series Capacitors

• 23.
Turning these on adds voltage to the system and therefore they are placed as close to the load as practical.
• A.

Shunt Reactors

• B.

Shunt Capacitors

• C.

Series Capacitors

• 24.
Responds only to frequency changes. It does not respond to power flow changes on tie lines. This mode is used only on an isolated system since it could lead to overloading ties lines while correcting frequency in all interconnected system.
• A.

Area line bias

• B.

Tie line bias with frequency control (Tie line bias control)

• C.

Flat line bias (Flat tie line control)

• D.

Frequency line bias (Flat frequency control)

• 25.
It uses frequency and tie-line power flow to calculate ACE. A more descriptive term for this control mode is constant net interchange with frequency bias.
• A.

Area line bias

• B.

Tie line bias with frequency control (Tie line bias control)

• C.

Flat line bias (Flat tie line control)

• D.

Frequency line bias (Flat frequency control)

• 26.
In Tie line bias control: lf frequency decreases and the power leaving the system decreases or power entering the system increases, then the need for power _____
• A.

Outside the BA

• B.

Inside the BA

• 27.
In Tie line bias control: If frequency decreases and the power leaving the system increases or power entering the system decreases then the need for power ____
• A.

Outside the BA

• B.

Inside the BA

• 28.
If a system is over generating what happens
• A.

Voltage goes up

• B.

Voltage goes down

• C.

Frequency goes up

• D.

Frequency goes down

• 29.
If a system is under generating what happens
• A.

Voltage goes up

• B.

Voltage goes down

• C.

Frequency goes up

• D.

Frequency goes down

• 30.
Is a measure of the probability that a particular piece of equipment will turn on coincidentally to another piece of equipment. For aggregate systems it is defined as the ratio of the sum of the individual non-coincident maximum loads of various subdivisions of the system to the maximum demand of the complete system.
• A.

Diversity Factor

• B.

Demand Factor

• C.

Capacity Factor

• D.

Utilization Factor

• E.

• 31.
Is defined as the average load divided by the peak load in a specified time period
• A.

Diversity Factor

• B.

Demand Factor

• C.

Capacity Factor

• D.

Utilization Factor

• E.

• 32.
Is the ratio of the time that a piece of equipment is in use to the total time that it could be in use. It is often averaged over time in the definition such that the ratio becomes the amount of energy used divided by the maximum possible to be used. These definitions are equivalent.
• A.

Diversity Factor

• B.

Demand Factor

• C.

Capacity Factor

• D.

Utilization Factor

• E.

• 33.
Is used to refer to the fractional amount of some quantity being used relative to the maximum amount that could be used by the same system. The demand factor is always less than or equal to one. As the amount of demand is a time dependent quantity so is the demand factor.
• A.

Diversity Factor

• B.

Demand Factor

• C.

Capacity Factor

• D.

Utilization Factor

• E.

• 34.
Is the ratio of its actual output over a period of time, to its potential output if it were possible for it to operate at full nameplate capacity indefinitely.
• A.

Diversity Factor

• B.

Demand Factor

• C.

Capacity Factor

• D.

Utilization Factor

• E.

• 35.
SAIDE is
• A.

The average duration of the outages over the total number of incidents

• B.

A non-reliability indicator by a utility company

• C.

The sum of duration of all outages over the total number of incidents

• D.

Total number of all outages

• E.

Do Know

• 36.
Which is not a cause of inadvertent interchange.
• A.

AGC Lag (ramp skew)

• B.

The bias response to frequency and time. deviations

• C.

Metering errors

• D.

Scheduling errors

• E.

• 37.
Department Power system's heat rate
• A.

8000

• B.

10000

• C.

13500

• D.

16000

• 38.
Castiac can be changed frorn full pumping to full generation  is what amount oftime
• A.

Less than 20 minutes

• B.

Greater than 20 minutes but less than 30 minutes

• C.

Greater than 30 minutes but less than 1 hour

• D.

Greater than 1 hour

• 39.
Percent the Department use Coal to produce energy
• A.

33%

• B.

38%

• C.

4-%

• D.

47%

• 40.
The amount of spinning reserve on average available by LADWP'S units is
• A.

• B.

5% of capacity plus regulation

• C.

30% of capacity

• D.

Single failure contingency plus regulation

• 41.
This bias technique responds only to changes in power flow on tie lines. It does not respond to changes in frequency; To prevent large frequency deviations, it is used only for brief periods when a frequency measurement is not available.
• A.

Area line bias

• B.

Tie line bias with frequency control (Tie line bias control)

• C.

Flat tie line bias (Flat tie line control)

• D.

Frequency line bias (Flat frequency control)

• 42.
A normal mode of Automatic Generation Control that allows the Balancing Authority to maintain its Interchange Schedule and respond to the Interconnection frequency error.
• A.

Area line bias

• B.

Tie line bias with frequency control (Tie line bias control)

• C.

Flat line bias (Flat tie line control)

• D.

Frequency line bias (Flat frequency control)

• 43.
To calculate Load Factor and Diversity Factor, you need the:
• A.

• B.

Sum of the maximum demand of different feeders

• C.

• D.

• 44.
In a distribution station, the sum of the maximum demand of each individual feeder is greater than the total maximum demand. This is caused by the
• A.

• B.

Diversity Factor

• C.

Capacity Factor

• D.

Utility Factor

• 45.
In unbalance fault which statement about the zero impedance is false:
• A.

Zero sequence voltage from line to to neutral is always zero

• B.

Zero impedance is 0 on delta system. Zero sequence current is equal to three times of neutral current

• C.

Zero impedance is 0 on line to line system. Zero sequence current is never on the line in a delta connected system

• D.

Zero impedance is 3 times as much in the neutral line. Zero sequence volatge is zero line to line

• 46.
In the operation and application of Automatic Generation Control (AGC), the system is to control the area with the load/frequency control? What would you use?
• A.

Area line bias

• B.

Tie line bias with frequency control

• C.

Flat line bias

• D.

Frequency line bias

• 47.
The purpose of the AGC  function is?
• A.

• B.

Determine the unit commitment order

• C.

Insure clocks keep correct time

• 48.
Speed droop of a hydro generator is defined as ?:
• A.

The percentage of speed change from zero gate to full gate

• B.

The percentage of speed change necessary to get governor action

• C.

The percentage of speed change from normal speed at no load to full load

• D.

The percentage of speed change resulting from changes in head and temperature

• 49.
Whether the synchronous machine operates as a generator or a motor depends on:
• A.

Applying AC or DC to the stator windings

• B.

Overexciting or under-exciting the stator

• C.

The power factor of the achine

• D.

The frequency of the machine

• 50.
Thermal plants on the department's system are usually operated to:
• A.

Minimize fuel use

• B.

Maximize utility factor

• C.

Minimize the number of units online

• D.

Reduce emissions

• 51.
What is common between the demand factor and diversity factor
• A.

• B.

Maximum demand

• C.

• D.

Actual Energy Output

• 52.
The sending end voltage is higher than the receiving end voltage on a transmission line and requirement is to transmit power out of the control area: What needs to happen with the generation?
• A.

• B.

Increase the frequency

• C.

Increase the prime mover

• D.

• 53.
A machine is arranged and operating and needs to create the effect of generating VARS onto a transmission line. Which system is most applicable?
• A.

Induction motor

• B.

Rectifier

• C.

• D.

Synchronous machine

• 54.
A generator is being run a t synchronisim with the voltage slightly below system voltage to meet operational needs of the system. To maintain stability what should be done .
• A.

Over excite the generator

• B.

Increase the torque from the prime mover

• C.

Apply the governor to increase the rotational speed

• D.

Under excite the generator

• 55.
What would be the voltage spread between highly and lightly loaded systems?
• A.

Higher at the customer

• B.

Lower at the customer

• C.

Depends on distance

• D.

Same

• 56.
The reason for operating our system at 60HZ is:
• A.

To keep electric clock running on time

• B.

To keep unscheduled energy from crossing the inter-ties between utilities

• C.

To keep from damaging motors in the system

• D.

To reduce lamp flicker

• 57.
For a load flow solution the quantities normally specified at a voltage controlled bus are:
• A.

P & Q

• B.

P & |V|

• C.

Q & |V|

• D.

P and &angle

• 58.
In order to have a lower cost of electrical energy generation:
• A.

The load factor and diversity factor should be low.

• B.

The load factor should be low but the diversity factor should be high.

• C.

The load factor should be high but diversity factor low.

• D.

The load factor and diversity factors should be high.

• 59.
For stability and economic reasons we operate the transmission line with power angle in the range of:
• A.

10 to 25 degrees

• B.

30 to 45

• C.

60 to 75

• D.

65 to 80

• 60.
Gas turbines can be brought to the bus bar from cold in about:
• A.

2 minutes

• B.

30 minutes

• C.

1 hour

• D.

2 hours

• 61.
At a particular unbalanced node, the real powers specified are:Leaving the node 20 MW, 25 MWEntering the node 60 MW, 30 MWThe balancing power will be:
• A.

30 MW Entering the node

• B.

45 MW Leaving the node

• C.

45 MW Entering the node

• D.

22.5 MW Entering the node and 22.5 MW leaving the node

• 62.
For economic operation, the generator with the highest positive incremental transmission loss will operate at:
• A.

The lowest positive incremental cost of production

• B.

The lowest negative incremental cost of production

• C.

The highest positive incremental cost of production

• D.

None of the above

• 63.
The connected load of a customer is 2 kW and his maximum demand is 1.5 kW. The load factor of the consumer is:
• A.

0.75

• B.

0.375

• C.

1.33

• D.

None of the above

• 64.
The maximum demand of a consumer is 2 kW and his daily energy consumption is 20 units. His load factor is:
• A.

10%

• B.

41.6%

• C.

50%

• D.

None of the above

• 65.
Pick out the correct statement:
• A.

The higher the initial load, the larger the critical clearing angle.

• B.

The higher the initial load, the lower the critical clearing angle.

• C.

Initial load has nothing to do with the critical clearing angle

• D.

The higher the operating time of a circuit breaker, the larger will be the critical clearing angle.

• 66.
For the stable operation of interconnected systems, the passive element that can be used as interconnecting element is:
• A.

Reactor

• B.

Resistor

• C.

Capacitor

• D.

Resistor and capacitor

• 67.
If a synchronous machine is overexcited it takes lagging vars from the system when it is operated as a:
• A.

Synchronous motor

• B.

Synchronous Generator

• C.

Synchronous motor as well as a generator

• D.

None of the above

• 68.
A synchronous machine has a higher capacity for:
• A.

• B.

Lagging pf

• C.

It does not depend upon the pf of the machine

• D.

It depends on the pf of the load

• 69.
A machine designed to operate at full load is physically heavier and is costlier if the operating p.f. is:
• A.

Lagging

• B.

• C.

The size and cost do not depend on p.f.

• 70.
For a load flow solution the quantities specified at a load bus are:
• A.

P and Q

• B.

P and V

• C.

Q and V

• D.

P and &angle

• 71.
The solution of coordination equation takes into account:
• A.

All the system constraints

• B.

All the operational constraints

• C.

All the system and operation constraints

• D.

None of the above

• 72.
The cost of generation is theoretically minimum if:
• A.

The system constraints are considered

• B.

The operational constraints are considered

• C.

The constraints are not considered

• D.

The operational and system constraints are considered

• 73.
The incremental transmission loss of a plant is:
• A.

Positive

• B.

Negative

• C.

Can be positive or negative

• 74.
A load flow study is carried out for:
• A.

Fault Calculation

• B.

System Planning

• C.

Stability Studies

• D.

• 75.
If a penalty factor is carried of a plant is unity, its incremental transmission loss is:
• A.

1.0

• B.

-1.0

• C.

Zero

• D.

None

• 76.
In a two plant system, the load is connected at plant No. 2 The loss coefficients are:
• A.

B11, B12, B22 is Zero

• B.

B11 and B22 are nonzero but B12 is Zero

• C.

B11 and B12 are nonzero but B22 is Zero

• D.

B11 is nonzero but B12 and B22 are zero

• 77.
A shunt fault is characterized by
• A.

Increase in current, frequency & p.f.

• B.

Increase in current, and a reduction in frequency and p.f.

• C.

Increase in current and frequency but reduction in p.f.

• D.

None

• 78.
The voltage of a particular bus can be controlled by controlling the:
• A.

Phase angle

• B.

Reactive power of the bus

• C.

Active power of the bus

• D.

Phase angle and reactive power