1c371 7 Level
- 1.
Who is the principle assistant to the president for military matters?
- A.
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff.
- B.
Inspector General.
- C.
Secretary of Defense.
- D.
Joint Chiefs of Staff.
Correct Answer
C. Secretary of Defense. -
- 2.
What are defense agencies designated as that are assigned wartime support missions?
- A.
Combat support agencies.
- B.
Lead agencies.
- C.
Field operating agencies.
- D.
Multinational force agencies.
Correct Answer
A. Combat support agencies. -
- 3.
What three roles does the chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS) have in the chain of command?
- A.
Oversight, communications and negotiator.
- B.
Negotiator, spokesman and delegator.
- C.
Coordinator, manager and spokesman.
- D.
Communications, oversight and spokesman.
Correct Answer
D. Communications, oversight and spokesman. -
- 4.
What are the traditional roles and missions often referred to as of each branch of service?
- A.
Operations.
- B.
Support.
- C.
Functions.
- D.
Responsibilities.
Correct Answer
C. Functions. -
- 5.
What does the term “combatant command” mean?
- A.
Unified or specified command.
- B.
Joint or allied command.
- C.
Coalition or unified command.
- D.
Operational or functional command.
Correct Answer
A. Unified or specified command. -
- 6.
What command has a broad continuing mission under a single commander composed of forces from two or more services?
- A.
Specified combatant command.
- B.
Unified combatant command.
- C.
Special forces combatant command.
- D.
Operational combatant command.
Correct Answer
B. Unified combatant command. -
- 7.
What command has a broad, continuing mission, normally composed of forces from a single military department?
- A.
Unified combatant command.
- B.
Combatant command.
- C.
Operational combatant command.
- D.
Specified combatant command.
Correct Answer
D. Specified combatant command. -
- 8.
What command authority is over assigned forces vested in the commanders of combatant commands by US Law and is not transferable?
- A.
Specified combatant command.
- B.
Unified combatant command.
- C.
Combatant command.
- D.
Operational combatant command.
Correct Answer
D. Operational combatant command. -
- 9.
During what time is the combatant commander’s logistic and administrative authority limited by legislation, DOD regulation, budget, local conditions and other factors?
- A.
War time.
- B.
Negotiation time.
- C.
Mission time.
- D.
Peacetime.
Correct Answer
D. Peacetime. -
- 10.
What command authority may be exercised by commanders at any level at or below the level of combatant command and may be delegated within the command?
- A.
Functional control.
- B.
Administrative control.
- C.
Operational control.
- D.
Tactical control.
Correct Answer
C. Operational control. -
- 11.
What command authority is over assigned or attached forces or commands, or military capability or forces made available for tasking, that is limited to the detailed direction and control of movements or maneuvers within the operational area necessary to accomplish missions or tasks assigned?
- A.
Tactical control.
- B.
Functional control.
- C.
Administrative control.
- D.
Operational control.
Correct Answer
A. Tactical control. -
- 12.
A multinational operation is one conducted by forces of how many nations?
- A.
Two or more.
- B.
Three or more.
- C.
Four or more.
- D.
Five or more.
Correct Answer
A. Two or more. -
- 13.
Under what command can the president never relinquish authority over US forces?
- A.
Multinational.
- B.
National.
- C.
Lead nation.
- D.
Parallel.
Correct Answer
B. National. -
- 14.
What three types of basic structures fall into multinational operations?
- A.
Integrated, lead nation, or multinational command.
- B.
Parallel, integrated, or multinational command.
- C.
Integrated, lead nation, or parallel command.
- D.
Multinational, combatant, or combined command.
Correct Answer
C. Integrated, lead nation, or parallel command. -
- 15.
What is an agreement or friendship called between two or more parties made in order to advance common goals and to secure common interests?
- A.
Coalition
- B.
Treaty.
- C.
Arrangement.
- D.
Alliance.
Correct Answer
D. Alliance. -
- 16.
What is a pact or treaty among individuals or groups, during which they cooperate in joint action, each in their own self interests, joining forces together for a common cause?
- A.
Coalition.
- B.
Arrangement
- C.
Alliance.
- D.
Joint alliance.
Correct Answer
A. Coalition. -
- 17.
What is vital to any multinational force?
- A.
An agreement.
- B.
Two commanders.
- C.
A liaison.
- D.
A treaty.
Correct Answer
C. A liaison. -
- 18.
During what type of operation do nations typically negotiate their own host-nation support agreements?
- A.
Multinational operations.
- B.
US-led multinational operations.
- C.
Joint operations.
- D.
NATO operations.
Correct Answer
B. US-led multinational operations. -
- 19.
What system was adopted by all federal agencies to use in their individual domestic incident management and emergency prevention, preparedness, response, recovery and mitigation programs and activities?
- A.
Emergency Management System.
- B.
National Emergency Management System.
- C.
State Emergency Management System.
- D.
National Incident Management System.
Correct Answer
D. National Incident Management System. -
- 20.
The International Federation of Red Cross and Red Crescent Societies (IFRC) were founded in what year?
- A.
1909
- B.
1919
- C.
1920
- D.
1941
Correct Answer
B. 1919 -
- 21.
What is the world’s largest humanitarian organization, providing assistance without discrimination as to nationality, race, religious beliefs, class or political opinions?
- A.
International Federation of Red Cross and Red Crescent Societies.
- B.
American Red Cross.
- C.
National Red Cross Society.
- D.
Red Cross.
Correct Answer
A. International Federation of Red Cross and Red Crescent Societies. -
- 22.
Which mass notification system is a combination of methods using audible and visual signals, verbal messages, and electronic communication?
- A.
At Hoc mass notification system.
- B.
Reverse 911 mass notification system.
- C.
Mass notification system.
- D.
Installation notification and warning system.
Correct Answer
D. Installation notification and warning system. -
- 23.
Which base agencies are responsible for the design of warning systems for operation throughout disaster conditions?
- A.
Command Post and Communications Squadrons.
- B.
Civil Engineering and Communications Squadrons.
- C.
Command Post and Civil Engineering Squadrons.
- D.
Command Post and Wing Safety office.
Correct Answer
B. Civil Engineering and Communications Squadrons. -
- 24.
During emergency situations who is responsible for warning systems that are off-base?
- A.
City or county emergency management office.
- B.
City or closest military installation.
- C.
State or county emergency management office.
- D.
State or closest military installation.
Correct Answer
A. City or county emergency management office. -
- 25.
In deployed locations warning systems and signals must be compatible with
- A.
Local, host nation or theater systems.
- B.
Host nation, base installation or theater systems.
- C.
Local, department of state or host nation systems.
- D.
Local, host nation or base installation systems.
Correct Answer
A. Local, host nation or theater systems. -
- 26.
Which base agency is responsible for coordinating new installation notification and warning system (INWS) requirements and tracking maintenance requirements on existing INWS components?
- A.
Civil engineering squadron.
- B.
Command post.
- C.
Communications squadron.
- D.
Wing Safety.
Correct Answer
C. Communications squadron. -
- 27.
Work priorities are normally established by supervisors and are based on
- A.
Critical tasks and standards.
- B.
Capabilities and rank.
- C.
Upgrade training and performance.
- D.
Mission requirements and critical tasks.
Correct Answer
D. Mission requirements and critical tasks. -
- 28.
The three standards related to work performance are
- A.
Results, speed and amount.
- B.
Quantity, speed and timeliness.
- C.
Quality, timeliness and quantity.
- D.
Quality, timeliness and amount.
Correct Answer
C. Quality, timeliness and quantity. -
- 29.
Who controls manpower levels in the Air Force?
- A.
Congress.
- B.
President.
- C.
SecDef.
- D.
Secretary of the Air Force.
Correct Answer
A. Congress. -
- 30.
Manning levels for Air Force units are primarily determined by
- A.
Grade.
- B.
Years in service.
- C.
Gender.
- D.
Enlisted skill level.
Correct Answer
D. Enlisted skill level. -
- 31.
Which agency develops manpower requirements in the Air Force?
- A.
Secretary of the Air Force.
- B.
Air Force Manpower Agency.
- C.
Headquarters Air Force.
- D.
Higher Headquarters.
Correct Answer
B. Air Force Manpower Agency. -
- 32.
The unit manpower document is a statement of the unit’s manpower
- A.
Positions.
- B.
Requirements
- C.
Losses
- D.
Gains
Correct Answer
B. Requirements -
- 33.
By only showing funded authorizations, what product aids resource advisors, functional managers, and commanders in keeping the correct number of people assigned to the unit?
- A.
Unit manning document.
- B.
Manning report.
- C.
Unit personnel manning roster.
- D.
Manpower data system.
Correct Answer
C. Unit personnel manning roster. -
- 34.
What tool is used to request a change in manning levels?
- A.
Unit personnel manning roster.
- B.
Unit manpower document.
- C.
Manning report.
- D.
Authorization change request.
Correct Answer
D. Authorization change request. -
- 35.
How often is the command post (CP) manning report submitted to the MAJCOM?
- A.
Biannually
- B.
Monthly.
- C.
Yearly.
- D.
Quarterly.
Correct Answer
B. Monthly. -
- 36.
In the budget process what term is given to a flight or work center of an organization?
- A.
Comptroller center.
- B.
Responsibility center.
- C.
Resource center.
- D.
Cost center.
Correct Answer
D. Cost center. -
- 37.
Who coordinates the overall budgets of several cost centers and the use of resources in dayto- day operations?
- A.
Finance office.
- B.
Resource advisors.
- C.
Responsibility centers.
- D.
Commander
Correct Answer
B. Resource advisors. -
- 38.
Which publication will be structured to save life, protect resources, and rapidly disseminate time sensitive information?
- A.
Operating instructions.
- B.
Emergency action checklists.
- C.
Quick reaction checklists.
- D.
Operational reports.
Correct Answer
C. Quick reaction checklists. -
- 39.
Which checklist addresses routine recurring subjects that are not time sensitive in nature, including, but not limited to, shift checklists and changeover checklists?
- A.
Operational.
- B.
Emergency action.
- C.
Quick reaction.
- D.
Controller basic.
Correct Answer
D. Controller basic. -
- 40.
How many complete, identical sets of emergency action checklists will be maintained?
- A.
1.
- B.
2.
- C.
3.
- D.
4
Correct Answer
C. 3. -
- 41.
What type of publication will be developed when the situation cannot be completely covered by quick reaction checklists?
- A.
Emergency action checklist.
- B.
Operating instruction.
- C.
Controller basic checklist.
- D.
Operational report.
Correct Answer
B. Operating instruction. -
- 42.
What product does command post management use to define areas of broad agreement between two or more parties?
- A.
Agreements of understanding.
- B.
Joint agreement memorandums.
- C.
Memorandums of agreement/understanding.
- D.
Command post joint agreements.
Correct Answer
C. Memorandums of agreement/understanding. -
- 43.
What inspection program provides commanders with an independent assessment of how well their forces are accomplishing their missions?
- A.
Operational readiness inspections.
- B.
Unit compliance inspection.
- C.
Self-inspection program.
- D.
Inspector general inspection.
Correct Answer
C. Self-inspection program. -
- 44.
How often are memorandums of agreement and understanding reviewed by command post (CP) managers?
- A.
Annually
- B.
Biannually
- C.
Quarterly
- D.
Monthly
Correct Answer
A. Annually -
- 45.
Which training plan is the Air Force and MAJCOM master training plan tailored to meet unit needs?
- A.
Annual training plan.
- B.
Unit training plan.
- C.
Wing training plan.
- D.
Unit master plan.
Correct Answer
B. Unit training plan. -
- 46.
How many phases consist in the command post (CP) master task list/job qualification standard?
- A.
1
- B.
2.
- C.
3
- D.
5
Correct Answer
D. 5 -
- 47.
What tool is used by both the command post (CP) training manager as well as CP leadership to identify the areas required for either certification or appointment to a CP staff position?
- A.
Master training plan.
- B.
Master task list/job qualification standard.
- C.
Annual training plan.
- D.
Plans of instruction.
Correct Answer
B. Master task list/job qualification standard. -
- 48.
Command post (CP) units are not authorized to delete or modify tasks from the Air Force master task list/job qualification standard, however CP managers may submit requests to modify subtasks to their
- A.
Major command (MAJCOM).
- B.
Commanders.
- C.
Unit training manager.
- D.
Base training manager.
Correct Answer
A. Major command (MAJCOM). -
- 49.
Command post performance evaluation and scenario training scripts will be based upon the requirements in the
- A.
Master training plan.
- B.
Master task list/job qualification standard.
- C.
Plans of instructions.
- D.
Annual training plan.
Correct Answer
D. Annual training plan. -
- 50.
What is the minimum amount of situations that will be included in each performance evaluation and scenario training script?
- A.
2
- B.
4
- C.
5
- D.
8
Correct Answer
C. 5 -
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Dec 04, 2013Quiz Edited by
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Dec 01, 2013Quiz Created by
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