3d052 EOC

200 Questions | Total Attempts: 44

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3d052 Quizzes & Trivia

URE questions


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What is the minimum number of computers needed for a computer network?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      5

    • D. 

      10

  • 2. 
    What is a privately-owned network whose access is restricted to authorized personnel is called?
    • A. 

      Homogeneous network.

    • B. 

      Internetwork

    • C. 

      Intranetwork

    • D. 

      Local area network

  • 3. 
    What type of network environments consist of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols?
    • A. 

      A. Internetwork

    • B. 

      B. Intranetwork

    • C. 

      C. Homogeneous network.

    • D. 

      D. Heterogeneous network.

  • 4. 
    What type of network is made up of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system?
    • A. 

      A. Internetwork.

    • B. 

      B. Intranetwork.

    • C. 

      C. Homogeneous network.

    • D. 

      D. Heterogeneous network

  • 5. 
    What is a communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area?
    • A. 

      Global area network (GAN).

    • B. 

      Local area network (LAN).

    • C. 

      Metropolitan area network. (MAN).

    • D. 

      Wide area network. (WAN).

  • 6. 
    What type of communications network links a broad geographical region?
    • A. 

      Global area network (GAN).

    • B. 

      Local area network (LAN).

    • C. 

      Metropolitan area network. (MAN).

    • D. 

      Wide area network. (WAN).

  • 7. 
    What type of communications network links different interconnected networks over an unlimited geographical region?
    • A. 

      Global area network (GAN).

    • B. 

      Local area network (LAN).

    • C. 

      Metropolitan area network. (MAN).

    • D. 

      Wide area network. (WAN).

  • 8. 
    How many users are normally in a peer-to-peer network?
    • A. 

      2-10.

    • B. 

      10-50.

    • C. 

      50-250.

    • D. 

      250-1,000.

  • 9. 
    How many users are in a single-server network?
    • A. 

      A. 2-10.

    • B. 

      B. 10-50.

    • C. 

      C. 50-250.

    • D. 

      D. 250-1,000.

  • 10. 
    How many users are in a multi-server network?
    • A. 

      A. 2-10.

    • B. 

      B. 10-50

    • C. 

      C. 50-250.

    • D. 

      D. 250-1,000.

  • 11. 
    How many users are in a multi-server high-speed backbone network?
    • A. 

      2-10

    • B. 

      10-50

    • C. 

      50-250

    • D. 

      250-1,000

  • 12. 
    What type of communications network links geographically dispersed offices in other cities or around the globe?
    • A. 

      Local area network (LAN).

    • B. 

      Metropolitan area network (MAN).

    • C. 

      Multi-server high-speed backbone network.

    • D. 

      Enterprise network.

  • 13. 
    What is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network?
    • A. 

      Media access control address.

    • B. 

      Network server name.

    • C. 

      Subnet mask address.

    • D. 

      Node serial number.

  • 14. 
    How many octets is the standard internet protocol broken down into?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      8

  • 15. 
    What is the binary equivalent to the dotted decimal number 96?
    • A. 

      01100000

    • B. 

      01100110

    • C. 

      00001100

    • D. 

      10000001

  • 16. 
    What is the network id of internet protocol (IP) address 131.10.230.120/24?
    • A. 

      0.0.0.120

    • B. 

      0.10.230.0

    • C. 

      131.10.230.0

    • D. 

      255.255.255.0

  • 17. 
    What is the host id of internet protocol (IP) address 131.10.230.120/24?
    • A. 

      0.0.0.120.

    • B. 

      0.10.230.0

    • C. 

      131.10.230.0.

    • D. 

      255.255.255.0.

  • 18. 
    How many bits are typically covered in an internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) subnet mask?
    • A. 

      24

    • B. 

      48

    • C. 

      64

    • D. 

      128

  • 19. 
    What series of Air Force instruction series covers communications and information
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      29

    • C. 

      30

    • D. 

      33

  • 20. 
    What Air Force instruction provides policy, direction, and structure for the Air Force global information grid (AF-GIG)?
    • A. 

      AFPD 33–1.

    • B. 

      AFI 33–112.

    • C. 

      AFI 33–115v1.

    • D. 

      AFI 29–2603v2.

  • 21. 
    According to the Air Force network structure, what tier is the Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC)?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 22. 
    What network entity provides reliable, secure networks and network services for base level customers?
    • A. 

      Network control center (NCC).

    • B. 

      Network control center-deployable (NCC-D).

    • C. 

      Network operations center (NOSC).

    • D. 

      Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC).

  • 23. 
    What is defined as a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity?
    • A. 

      Fault management server.

    • B. 

      Network management server.

    • C. 

      Performance management server.

    • D. 

      Security management server.

  • 24. 
    Which of the following are the three most common network management architectures?
    • A. 

      Centralized, hierarchical, and distributed.

    • B. 

      Centralized, hybrid and distributed.

    • C. 

      Centralized, hierarchical, and hybrid.

    • D. 

      Hybrid, hierarchical, and distributed.

  • 25. 
    What network architecture has a network management platform on one computer system at a location that is responsible for all network management duties?
    • A. 

      A. Centralized

    • B. 

      B. Distributed.

    • C. 

      c. Hierarchical

    • D. 

      D. Hybrid.

  • 26. 
    What network architecture uses multiple systems for network management, with one system acting as a central server and the others working as clients?
    • A. 

      A. Centralized.

    • B. 

      B. Distributed.

    • C. 

      C. Hierarchical.

    • D. 

      D. Hybrid.

  • 27. 
    What level of network management activity are you working at when you as the network manager are monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate the side-effect alarms and isolate problems to a root cause?
    • A. 

      A. Inactive.

    • B. 

      B. Interactive.

    • C. 

      C. Proactive.

    • D. 

      D. Reactive.

  • 28. 
    What level of network management activity are you working at when the automated monitoring of components provides problem analysis, giving a root cause alarm for the problem at-hand?
    • A. 

      Inactive.

    • B. 

      Reactive.

    • C. 

      Interactive.

    • D. 

      Proactive.

  • 29. 
    Performance management can be broke into what two separate functional categories?
    • A. 

      Monitoring and analyzing.

    • B. 

      Monitoring and replacing.

    • C. 

      Monitoring and tuning

    • D. 

      Analyzing and tuning.

  • 30. 
    Which function of performance management tracks historical data by tracking activities on the network?
    • A. 

      Tuning

    • B. 

      Analyzing.

    • C. 

      Gathering.

    • D. 

      Monitoring

  • 31. 
    What network management area is concerned with controlling access points to information?
    • A. 

      Configuration

    • B. 

      Performance

    • C. 

      Accounting

    • D. 

      Security

  • 32. 
    What is the established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range and excessive errors because of a fault?
    • A. 

      Fault parameters.

    • B. 

      Tolerance parameters.

    • C. 

      Low-level software alarms.

    • D. 

      Low-level hardware alarms.

  • 33. 
    Network management protocols are designed (in most cases) to reside above what layer of the operational system interface (OSI) model?
    • A. 

      Session

    • B. 

      Transport

    • C. 

      Presentation

    • D. 

      Application

  • 34. 
    What is a hierarchical structured format that defines the network management information available from network devices?
    • A. 

      Object identifier.

    • B. 

      Network device map.

    • C. 

      Network protocol list.

    • D. 

      Management information base.

  • 35. 
    What area of the simple network management protocol (SNMP) tree structure is reserved for vendors related label and leaf objects associated with specific manufactured equipment?
    • A. 

      Management.

    • B. 

      Private.

    • C. 

      Directory

    • D. 

      Experimental

  • 36. 
    What simple network management protocol (SNMP) node is responsible for monitoring, collecting and reporting management data to the management system?
    • A. 

      Primary domain controller (PDC).

    • B. 

      Backup domain controller.

    • C. 

      Manager.

    • D. 

      Agent.

  • 37. 
    What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message asks for a specific instance of management information?
    • A. 

      Get

    • B. 

      Set

    • C. 

      Trap

    • D. 

      GetNext

  • 38. 
    What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is used to modify the value of one or more instances of management information?
    • A. 

      Get

    • B. 

      Set

    • C. 

      Trap

    • D. 

      GetNext

  • 39. 
    What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is used to retrieve multiple pieces of information with minimal overhead?
    • A. 

      Get

    • B. 

      Set

    • C. 

      Trap

    • D. 

      GetNext

  • 40. 
    What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is an unsolicited message from an agent to the manager?
    • A. 

      Get

    • B. 

      Set

    • C. 

      Trap

    • D. 

      GetNext

  • 41. 
    What is the type of probe that collects inter-device connectivity information using proprietary topology management information bases (MIB)?
    • A. 

      Virtual local area network (VLAN) probe.

    • B. 

      Neighbor probe.

    • C. 

      Containment probe.

    • D. 

      System information probe.

  • 42. 
    What is the centerpiece of a systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application?
    • A. 

      Broker

    • B. 

      Clients

    • C. 

      Map Console

    • D. 

      Domain manager

  • 43. 
    What component of the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application contains knowledge of available domain managers?
    • A. 

      Broker

    • B. 

      Clients

    • C. 

      Probes

    • D. 

      Consoles

  • 44. 
    What are the three types of systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) notifications?
    • A. 

      Compound events, alarm, and trend.

    • B. 

      Compound events, problems, and network.

    • C. 

      Auto-discovery, compound, and symptomatic events.

    • D. 

      Compound events, problems, and symptomatic events.

  • 45. 
    What color on the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) alarm log indicates one or more events?
    • A. 

      Blue

    • B. 

      Orange

    • C. 

      Purple

    • D. 

      Yellow

  • 46. 
    How many different categories of information does the performance monitor provide you about your network?
    • A. 

      7

    • B. 

      14

    • C. 

      19

    • D. 

      21

  • 47. 
    What device provides a capability for digital network diagnostics and developing communications software?
    • A. 

      Systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS).

    • B. 

      Protocol analyzer.

    • C. 

      Network root router.

    • D. 

      Windows advanced server.

  • 48. 
    What provides information concerning the network utilization and frame errors that are related to a specific protocol?
    • A. 

      Media access control (MAC) node statistics.

    • B. 

      Connection statistics.

    • C. 

      Protocol statistics.

    • D. 

      Node discovery.

  • 49. 
    What reports errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad frame check sequence (FCS), short frames, and jabbers?
    • A. 

      Media access control (MAC) node statistics.

    • B. 

      Connection statistics.

    • C. 

      Protocol statistics.

    • D. 

      Node discovery.

  • 50. 
    What automatically runs in the background when the protocol analyzer application is activated?
    • A. 

      Media access control (MAC)

    • B. 

      Connection statistics.

    • C. 

      Protocol statistics.

    • D. 

      Node discovery.

  • 51. 
    What provides information concerning the bandwidth utilization and the number of connections that are related to specific nodes?
    • A. 

      Media access control (MAC)

    • B. 

      Connection statistics.

    • C. 

      Protocol statistics.

    • D. 

      Node discovery.

  • 52. 
    What is a measure used to verify the eligibility of a subject and the ability of the subject to access certain information?
    • A. 

      Authentication.

    • B. 

      Recertification.

    • C. 

      Accreditation.

    • D. 

      Identification.

  • 53. 
    What are three primary ways to authenticate one-self?
    • A. 

      Finger and voiceprints, or retinal scans.

    • B. 

      Passwords, finger prints, or identification cards.

    • C. 

      Passwords, fortezza cards, or identification cards.

    • D. 

      Something you know, something you have, or something are.

  • 54. 
    Knowledge-based identification and authentication methods require the user to provide something you
    • A. 

      Know.

    • B. 

      Have.

    • C. 

      Need.

    • D. 

      Read.

  • 55. 
    The Air Force requires a network password to be at least how many characters long?
    • A. 

      6

    • B. 

      7

    • C. 

      8

    • D. 

      9

  • 56. 
    What regulation covers remanence security?
    • A. 

      AFPD 33–2.

    • B. 

      AFSSI 8580.

    • C. 

      AFSSI 5020.

    • D. 

      AFI 33–115v1.

  • 57. 
    Storage media that retains data after power is removed is considered
    • A. 

      Classified

    • B. 

      Volatile.

    • C. 

      Sensitive.

    • D. 

      Sanitized.

  • 58. 
    Which standard form is used to annotate storage media has been sanitized?
    • A. 

      700

    • B. 

      701

    • C. 

      711

    • D. 

      712

  • 59. 
    Who can declassify storage media that has been sanitized?
    • A. 

      Information assurance officer (IAO).

    • B. 

      Designated approval authority (DAA).

    • C. 

      Information system security officer.

    • D. 

      Information owner.

  • 60. 
    What is the process of physically damaging the media to render it unusable in a computer and render the data on the media irretrievable by any known exploitation methods?
    • A. 

      Destroying.

    • B. 

      Degaussing.

    • C. 

      Sanitizing.

    • D. 

      Overwriting.

  • 61. 
    What is the process of erasing magnetic media by reducing the magnetic flux to virtual zero by applying a reverse magnetizing field?
    • A. 

      Degausser.

    • B. 

      Degaussing.

    • C. 

      Destroying.

    • D. 

      Sanitizing.

  • 62. 
    What is the preferred method of sanitizing magnetic media?
    • A. 

      Degaussing.

    • B. 

      Overwriting.

    • C. 

      Formatting.

    • D. 

      Deleting.

  • 63. 
    What is a comprehensive evaluation and validation of an Air Force information system (IS) to establish the degree to which it complies with assigned information assurance (IA) controls based on standardized procedures?
    • A. 

      Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP).

    • B. 

      Plan of action & milestones (POA&M).

    • C. 

      Accreditation.

    • D. 

      Certification.

  • 64. 
    What is a formal declaration by a designated approving official (DAA) that an information system is approved to operate in a particular security mode using a prescribed set of safeguards at an acceptable level of risk?
    • A. 

      Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP).

    • B. 

      Plan of action & milestones (POA&M).

    • C. 

      Accreditation.

    • D. 

      Certification.

  • 65. 
    What is the Department of Defense process for certifying and accrediting information systems to operate on the global information grid (GIG)?
    • A. 

      Enterprise information technology data repository (EITDR).

    • B. 

      Security, interoperability, supportability, sustainability, and usability (SISSU).

    • C. 

      Department of Defense Information Technology System Certification and Accreditation Process (DITSCAP).

    • D. 

      Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP).

  • 66. 
    What documentation is required to permanently connect to the global information grid (GIG) system?
    • A. 

      Denial of authorization to operation (DATO).

    • B. 

      Interim authorization to operate (IATO).

    • C. 

      Authorization to operate (ATO).

    • D. 

      Interim authorization to test (IATT).

  • 67. 
    What documentation signifies that a system is not allowed to connect to the global information grid (GIG)?
    • A. 

      Denial of authorization to operation (DATO).

    • B. 

      Interim authorization to operate (IATO).

    • C. 

      Authorization to operate (ATO).

    • D. 

      Interim authorization to test (IATT).

  • 68. 
    What is the database of record for registering all systems and applications?
    • A. 

      Security, interoperability, supportability, sustainability, and usability (SISSU).

    • B. 

      Enterprise information technology data repository (EITDR).

    • C. 

      Department of Defense Information Technology System Certification and Accreditation Process (DITSCAP).

    • D. 

      Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP).

  • 69. 
    What process, along with AFI 33–210, Air Force Certification and Accreditation (C&A) Program (AFCAP), provides the basic framework of the certification & accreditation (C&A)?
    • A. 

      Information technology (IT) lean reengineering.

    • B. 

      Enterprise information technology data repository (EITDR).

    • C. 

      Security, interoperability, supportability, sustainability, and usability (SISSU).

    • D. 

      Department of Defense information assurance certification and accreditation process (DIACAP).

  • 70. 
    What is a collection of computing environments connected by one or more internal networks under the control of a single approval authority and security policy?
    • A. 

      Enclave.

    • B. 

      Bastion.

    • C. 

      Circuits.

    • D. 

      Base.

  • 71. 
    What do you call the consolidated list of requirements that a program office must adhere to when fielding a system?
    • A. 

      Enterprise information technology data repository (EITDR).

    • B. 

      Security, interoperability, supportability, sustainability, and usability (SISSU).

    • C. 

      Department of Defense Information Technology System Certification and Accreditation Process (DITSCAP).

    • D. 

      Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP).

  • 72. 
    How many non-secure internet protocol router network (NIPRNet) gateways does the Air Force possess?
    • A. 

      15

    • B. 

      16

    • C. 

      32

    • D. 

      64

  • 73. 
    Which agency must approve all information protection tools prior to their use?
    • A. 

      Defense Information System Agency (DISA).

    • B. 

      Air Force Communication Agency (AFCA).

    • C. 

      Air Force computer emergency response team (AFCERT).

    • D. 

      Headquarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF).

  • 74. 
    What device is placed outside the boundary protection mechanism to monitor all attempted attacks?
    • A. 

      Intrusion detection system (IDS).

    • B. 

      De-militarized zone (DMZ).

    • C. 

      Vulnerability scanner.

    • D. 

      Firewall.

  • 75. 
    What are examples of network attacks that bypass the firewall?
    • A. 

      Identification spoofing and tunneling.

    • B. 

      Tunneling and application-based attacks.

    • C. 

      Second message encryption and identification spoofing.

    • D. 

      Application-based attacks and second message encryption.

  • 76. 
    What is the intrusion practice of encapsulating a message that would be rejected by the firewall inside a second message that will pass through the firewall?
    • A. 

      Tunneling.

    • B. 

      Identification spoofing.

    • C. 

      Application-based attacks.

    • D. 

      Second message encryption.

  • 77. 
    A base web-server that interfaces with the public must be placed in what area of a base network?
    • A. 

      At the core.

    • B. 

      None are allowed.

    • C. 

      Outside the base network.

    • D. 

      De-militarized zone (DMZ).

  • 78. 
    What is the simplest and least expensive way to stop inappropriate network addresses?
    • A. 

      Proxy.

    • B. 

      Bastion host.

    • C. 

      Packet filtering.

    • D. 

      Intrusion detection.

  • 79. 
    What type of firewall consists of a screening router and a set of rules that accept or reject a message based on information in the message’s header (a packet): the source address, the destination address, and the port?
    • A. 

      Proxy

    • B. 

      Bastion host.

    • C. 

      Packet filtering.

    • D. 

      Intrusion detection.

  • 80. 
    What type of firewall is used to separate secure sites, networks, or network segments from less secure areas?
    • A. 

      Proxy.

    • B. 

      Bastion host.

    • C. 

      Packet filtering.

    • D. 

      Intrusion detection.

  • 81. 
    What type of firewall generates audit trails of all network-related activity for monitoring and intrusion detection purposes?
    • A. 

      Intrusion detection.

    • B. 

      Packet filtering.

    • C. 

      Bastion host.

    • D. 

      Proxy.

  • 82. 
    What network device performs rigorous examinations of systems to identify weaknesses that might allow security violations?
    • A. 

      Network management software.

    • B. 

      Intrusion detection devices.

    • C. 

      Vulnerability scanners.

    • D. 

      Firewalls.

  • 83. 
    What action represents one of the greatest vulnerabilities to internal networks?
    • A. 

      Personnel that continue to misuse the network by surfing the web.

    • B. 

      Access to the network through backdoors left by system administrators

    • C. 

      Network-connected desktop systems with modems that make calls to the public-switched network.

    • D. 

      Network-connected computer systems with modems that make calls to and accept calls from the public-switched network.

  • 84. 
    What do you call a current and perceived capability, intention, or attack, directed to cause denial of service?
    • A. 

      Vulnerability

    • B. 

      Threat.

    • C. 

      Compromise.

    • D. 

      Tunneling

  • 85. 
    An information system on your network that is not set to require the use of a common access card (CAC) or password would be considered a
    • A. 

      Threat.

    • B. 

      Vulnerability

    • C. 

      Compromise.

    • D. 

      Risk.

  • 86. 
    A program that replicates by attaching itself to a program is a
    • A. 

      Virus.

    • B. 

      Trojan horse.

    • C. 

      Worm

    • D. 

      Bot

  • 87. 
    What type of malicious logic can form large networks that can be used to launch a variety of attacks without an information system owner’s knowledge?
    • A. 

      Virus

    • B. 

      Trojan horse

    • C. 

      Worm

    • D. 

      Bot

  • 88. 
    What type of malicious logic can become active on an information system without the need to infect a file?
    • A. 

      Virus

    • B. 

      Trojan Horse

    • C. 

      Worm

    • D. 

      Bot

  • 89. 
    What is a cryptographic key and certificate delivery system that makes possible secure electronic transactions and exchanges of sensitive information between relative strangers?
    • A. 

      Public key cryptography.

    • B. 

      Public key infrastructure (PKI).

    • C. 

      Key distribution center.

    • D. 

      Asymmetric key infrastructure.

  • 90. 
    What can be used to encrypt a message so that it can only be decrypted by the recipient?
    • A. 

      Token

    • B. 

      Public Key

    • C. 

      Private Key

    • D. 

      Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) certificate

  • 91. 
    What is a file that is kept with you and will allow you to decrypt files encrypted specifically for you using your openly available encryption code?
    • A. 

      Token.

    • B. 

      Public key

    • C. 

      Private key.

    • D. 

      Public key infrastructure (PKI) certificate.

  • 92. 
    What is an electronic document that officially links together a user’s identity with his public key?
    • A. 

      Token.

    • B. 

      Public key.

    • C. 

      Private key.

    • D. 

      Public key infrastructure (PKI) certificate.

  • 93. 
    Which component of the public key infrastructure (PKI) is responsible for establishing, authenticating, maintaining, and revoking certificates?
    • A. 

      Certificate policy manager.

    • B. 

      Registration authority.

    • C. 

      Certificate authority.

    • D. 

      Certificate repository.

  • 94. 
    The two ways key establishment can occur are key
    • A. 

      Transfer and agreement.

    • B. 

      Transfer and interchange.

    • C. 

      Generation and agreement.

    • D. 

      Generation and interchange.

  • 95. 
    Which public key algorithm is exclusively a key establishment protocol?
    • A. 

      Rivest-Shamir-Adleman (RSA).

    • B. 

      Diffie and Hellman.

    • C. 

      Elliptic curve digital signature algorithm (ECDSA).

    • D. 

      Elliptic curve Diffie-Hellman (ECDH).

  • 96. 
    What is the primary unclassified public key infrastructure (PKI) token for individual PKI keys and certificates in the Air Force?
    • A. 

      Hardware token

    • B. 

      Software token

    • C. 

      Common access card

    • D. 

      Identification (ID) key

  • 97. 
    Which team provides a communication link between forces securing the area and setting up support facilities?
    • A. 

      Open system standards teams.

    • B. 

      Combat integrated system teams.

    • C. 

      Initial communications support teams.

    • D. 

      Sustained communications support teams.

  • 98. 
    Sustained communications support becomes a part of the deployment if it exceeds
    • A. 

      15 days

    • B. 

      30 days

    • C. 

      45 days

    • D. 

      90 days

  • 99. 
    Who provides uninterrupted flow of mission critical information to field and in-garrison units for the duration of a contingency?
    • A. 

      Open system standards teams.

    • B. 

      Combat integrated system teams.

    • C. 

      Initial communications support teams.

    • D. 

      Sustained communications support teams.

  • 100. 
    What program is known as a state of the art ground-to-ground communications infrastructure designed to provide base level full spectrum communications to the commander and all agencies on base?
    • A. 

      Commercial-off-the-shelf (COTS).

    • B. 

      Combat integrated systems.

    • C. 

      Theater deployable communications (TDC).

    • D. 

      Integrated communications access package (ICAP).

  • 101. 
    Which original components were very susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge?
    • A. 

      Read only memory (ROM).

    • B. 

      Basic input/output system (BIOS).

    • C. 

      Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).

    • D. 

      Electronic erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM).

  • 102. 
    What is considered to be a computer’s main storage?
    • A. 

      Random access memory (RAM).

    • B. 

      Read only memory (ROM).

    • C. 

      Basic input/output system (BIOS).

    • D. 

      Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).

  • 103. 
    What is considered as nonvolatile permanent memory?
    • A. 

      Read only memory (ROM).

    • B. 

      Basic input/output system (BIOS).

    • C. 

      Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).

    • D. 

      Electronic erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM).

  • 104. 
    What is a form of firmware that contains the computer’s startup instructions?
    • A. 

      Cache.

    • B. 

      Basic input/output system (BIOS).

    • C. 

      Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).

    • D. 

      Electronic erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM).

  • 105. 
    What is defined as an asynchronous signal from a computer hardware device indicating the need for attention from a central processing unit (CPU) or a synchronous event?
    • A. 

      Cache

    • B. 

      Buffer.

    • C. 

      Interface.

    • D. 

      Interrupt.

  • 106. 
    Which controller component interprets an electronic signal, prioritizes it, and requests the attention of the central processing unit (CPU)?
    • A. 

      Disk request.

    • B. 

      Utility resource.

    • C. 

      Priority interrupt

    • D. 

      Integrated resource.

  • 107. 
    Which interrupt request (IRQ) line number is normally used for the floppy disk controller?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      8

  • 108. 
    Which is a term used to describe that data is whole or complete?
    • A. 

      Driver.

    • B. 

      Parity bit.

    • C. 

      Data integrity.

    • D. 

      Error correction.

  • 109. 
    What is considered as a technique or method of checking data integrity?
    • A. 

      Fault.

    • B. 

      Parity.

    • C. 

      Interrupt.

    • D. 

      Asynchronous.

  • 110. 
    Which is a very simple example of an error detecting code?
    • A. 

      Interrupt

    • B. 

      Parity bit.

    • C. 

      Asynchronous

    • D. 

      Data integrity.

  • 111. 
    What is a way of utilizing a group of storage devices as if they were physically connected to a server when they are not?
    • A. 

      Network attached storage (NAS).

    • B. 

      Storage area network (SAN).

    • C. 

      Redundant array of independent disks (RAID).

    • D. 

      Array storage.

  • 112. 
    What is an advantage of using a storage area network (SAN) architecture?
    • A. 

      Ease of replacing the hard drive.

    • B. 

      Ease of replacing network connectivity.

    • C. 

      Ease of replacing server.

    • D. 

      Multiple users can access the server at once.

  • 113. 
    What is the connection type of choice for storage area networks (SAN)?
    • A. 

      Fibre channel

    • B. 

      ATA over Ethernet (AoE).

    • C. 

      Small computer system interface (SCSI).

    • D. 

      Internet small computer system interface (iSCSI).

  • 114. 
    Which storage device can be easily connected to a network and appears as a network drive?
    • A. 

      Storage area network (SAN).

    • B. 

      Redundant array of independent disks (RAID).

    • C. 

      Network attached storage (NAS).

    • D. 

      RHD

  • 115. 
    Which storage device has the means of providing data storage reliability using multiple hard drives?
    • A. 

      Storage area network (SAN).

    • B. 

      Network attached storage (NAS).

    • C. 

      Small computer system interface (SCSI).

    • D. 

      Redundant array of independent disks (RAID).

  • 116. 
    The hard drives in a redundant array of independent disks (RAID) array are presented to the server as
    • A. 

      One single hard drive.

    • B. 

      A collection of hard drives.

    • C. 

      A single RAID array.

    • D. 

      A remote storage device.

  • 117. 
    Which technology is often used in redundant array of independent disks (RAID) array that can be daisy chained?
    • A. 

      Small computer system interface (SCSI).

    • B. 

      Serial attached (SAS) SCSI.

    • C. 

      Serial advanced technology attachment (SATA).

    • D. 

      Peripheral component interconnect express (PCIe).

  • 118. 
    Which is not a characteristic of high-order languages?
    • A. 

      They are nearly self-documenting.

    • B. 

      They use English-like statements.

    • C. 

      Source codes that are written closest to machine language.

    • D. 

      Programs are transportable between computers with few changes.

  • 119. 
    What best describes programming machine code?
    • A. 

      Another term for firmware

    • B. 

      Statements that correspond to complex actions

    • C. 

      Instructions in a form that is acceptable to the computer.

    • D. 

      Source code that, when compiled, is appropriate for the computer.

  • 120. 
    Which selection is a set of markup symbols or codes inserted in a file intended for display on a Web browser page?
    • A. 

      Standard Generalized Markup Language (SGML).

    • B. 

      Extensible Markup Language (XML).

    • C. 

      HyperText Markup Language (HTML).

    • D. 

      Dynamic HTML (DHTML).

  • 121. 
    Which Web application is most likely to succeed Hypertext Markup Language (HTML)?
    • A. 

      Dynamic HTML (DHTML).

    • B. 

      Extensible Markup Language (XML).

    • C. 

      Standard Generalized Markup Language (SGML).

    • D. 

      Extensible HTML (XHTML).

  • 122. 
    A standard Web application used to pass a Web user’s request to a server’s application program and to exchange data back to the user is called a
    • A. 

      Transport layer security (TLS).

    • B. 

      Common gateway interface (CGI).

    • C. 

      Data encryption standard (DES).

    • D. 

      Public key infrastructure (PKI).

  • 123. 
    Which program can be used to automatically launch programs on a preset schedule?
    • A. 

      Check disk.

    • B. 

      Disk quotas

    • C. 

      Disk defragmenter.

    • D. 

      Task scheduler

  • 124. 
    Which protocol is commonly used for managing the security of a message transmission on the Internet?
    • A. 

      Secure socket layer (SSL).

    • B. 

      Public key infrastructure (PKI).

    • C. 

      Data encryption standard (DES)

    • D. 

      Transport layer security (TLS).

  • 125. 
    Which error-checking tool allows you to monitor the file system for errors?
    • A. 

      Check disk.

    • B. 

      Disk quotas.

    • C. 

      Task scheduler.

    • D. 

      Disk defragmenter.

  • 126. 
    Which numbering system characteristic is the leftmost non-zero digit of a numeric value?
    • A. 

      Least significant digit (LSD).

    • B. 

      Most significant digit (MSD).

    • C. 

      Exponent.

    • D. 

      Radix.

  • 127. 
    What should each organization have that spells out which systems are prioritized in what order for the basis of protecting those systems from disasters?
    • A. 

      Preventive controls.

    • B. 

      List of critical devices

    • C. 

      Recovery strategies.

    • D. 

      Emergency action plans.

  • 128. 
    Which type of backup would you use at the end of the week to save all data that you select on your systems?
    • A. 

      Incremental.

    • B. 

      Differential

    • C. 

      Daily.

    • D. 

      Normal.

  • 129. 
    Which type of backup will backup all files that have been altered in the last 24 hours?
    • A. 

      Daily

    • B. 

      Normal

    • C. 

      Incremental.

    • D. 

      Differential.

  • 130. 
    What is based around a central directory database containing information about all the domain controllers in the network?
    • A. 

      Active directory.

    • B. 

      Domains manager.

    • C. 

      Domain name service (DNS).

    • D. 

      Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP).

  • 131. 
    What is a group of users, servers, and other resources that share a centralized database of account and security information?
    • A. 

      Domain.

    • B. 

      Forest.

    • C. 

      Schema.

    • D. 

      Tree.

  • 132. 
    Where does a copy of the active directory database reside?
    • A. 

      Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) servers.

    • B. 

      Domain name service (DNS) servers.

    • C. 

      Domain controllers.

    • D. 

      Global catalog servers.

  • 133. 
    What kind of server contains the master listing of all active directory objects in the forest?
    • A. 

      Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP).

    • B. 

      Domain controller.

    • C. 

      Global catalog.

    • D. 

      Member.

  • 134. 
    What is a set of rules that can be set to affect active directory leaf objects to control what can be done by a user?
    • A. 

      Access control lists.

    • B. 

      Access policy objects.

    • C. 

      Group policy objects.

    • D. 

      Group rules sets.

  • 135. 
    Which type of interface is friendlier for the average user to use?
    • A. 

      Command line interface.

    • B. 

      Graphical user interface

    • C. 

      Menu driven interface

    • D. 

      Palo Alto Research Center user interface.

  • 136. 
    Which of the following is not one of the elements that most graphical user interfaces are composed of?
    • A. 

      Windows.

    • B. 

      Icons.

    • C. 

      Menus.

    • D. 

      Programs

  • 137. 
    Sitting at a computer and loading a software patch onto it is an example of what type of software patch?
    • A. 

      Automatic.

    • B. 

      Attended.

    • C. 

      Unattended.

    • D. 

      Remote.

  • 138. 
    Which components of domain name service (DNS) contain a database of associated names and IP addresses?
    • A. 

      Name servers.

    • B. 

      Resolvers.

    • C. 

      Resource records.

    • D. 

      Forward lookup zone.

  • 139. 
    Which type of patch would utilize a remote installation services (RIS)?
    • A. 

      Automatic.

    • B. 

      Local.

    • C. 

      Manual.

    • D. 

      Unattended.

  • 140. 
    Which query is made by one name server to another name server?
    • A. 

      Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) query.

    • B. 

      Domain name service (DNS) query.

    • C. 

      Recursive query.

    • D. 

      Non-recursive query

  • 141. 
    The group of IP addresses that a dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) server manages is known as a
    • A. 

      Pool.

    • B. 

      Range.

    • C. 

      Scope.

    • D. 

      Zone.

  • 142. 
    Which software program manages an IP address allocation for a network?
    • A. 

      Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP).

    • B. 

      Domain name service (DNS).

    • C. 

      Active directory (AD).

    • D. 

      DHCP server.

  • 143. 
    What is the minimum number of scopes a dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) server can have?
    • A. 

      One.

    • B. 

      Two.

    • C. 

      Three.

    • D. 

      Five.

  • 144. 
    According to Air Force dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) policies, how long is the lease that a noncritical workstation will have applied to them?
    • A. 

      15 days.

    • B. 

      30 days.

    • C. 

      45 days.

    • D. 

      60 days.

  • 145. 
    What type of service allows network administrators to install upgrades on any number of client computers at one time from a centralized location?
    • A. 

      Domain name service (DNS).

    • B. 

      Internet information services (IIS).

    • C. 

      Remote installation services (RIS.

    • D. 

      Web

  • 146. 
    Which is not a component of Internet information services (IIS)?
    • A. 

      FTP server.

    • B. 

      Internet services manager.

    • C. 

      Simple mail transport protocol (SMTP).

    • D. 

      Simple network management protocol (SNMP).

  • 147. 
    What component of windows unifies and simplifies day to day system management tasks?
    • A. 

      Domain name service (DNS).

    • B. 

      Internet information services (IIS).

    • C. 

      Microsoft management console (MMC).

    • D. 

      Remote installation services (RIS).

  • 148. 
    Which type of group manages user’s rights assignments and access permissions?
    • A. 

      Universal.

    • B. 

      Distribution.

    • C. 

      Security.

    • D. 

      Access.

  • 149. 
    Which special identity can represent users currently logged on to a particular computer and accessing a given resource located on that computer?
    • A. 

      Anonymous logon.

    • B. 

      Everyone.

    • C. 

      Network.

    • D. 

      Interactive.

  • 150. 
    What defines the rules by which operations can be performed on a particular resource?
    • A. 

      Rights.

    • B. 

      Permissions.

    • C. 

      Access control lists.

    • D. 

      Hardware configuration.

  • 151. 
    A feature of networking that enables individuals to designate resources they want other users to be able to access through the network is called
    • A. 

      Rights.

    • B. 

      Sharing.

    • C. 

      Permissions.

    • D. 

      Access control lists.

  • 152. 
    What permission always overrides all other permissions assigned to a user or group to which the user belongs?
    • A. 

      Full control.

    • B. 

      No access.

    • C. 

      Change.

    • D. 

      Write.

  • 153. 
    When a new folder or file is created on a new technology file system (NTFS) partition, what permissions are automatically assigned?
    • A. 

      Global group permissions.

    • B. 

      Everyone group permission.

    • C. 

      No permissions are automatically assigned.

    • D. 

      Inherited permissions of the folder it’s contained in.

  • 154. 
    Which exchange service is the first service launched when Microsoft Exchange starts and the last to stop when it is shut down?
    • A. 

      Mailbox service.

    • B. 

      System attendant.

    • C. 

      Simple mail transport protocol (SMTP).

    • D. 

      Post office protocol version 3 (POP3) service.

  • 155. 
    In Exchange System Manager, which container holds configuration objects such as Queues, Mailbox stores and Public Folder stores and protocols information?
    • A. 

      Global settings.

    • B. 

      System policies.

    • C. 

      Tools.

    • D. 

      Servers.

  • 156. 
    Which type of lists uses pointers to connect each element together?
    • A. 

      Derived.

    • B. 

      Linked.

    • C. 

      Ordered.

    • D. 

      Sequential.

  • 157. 
    A set of data elements (values) organized using a model of horizontal rows and vertical columns whose data is calculated in response to a query is called a
    • A. 

      List.

    • B. 

      Schema.

    • C. 

      Table.

    • D. 

      View.

  • 158. 
    What is the most common type of operation in sequential query language (SQL)?
    • A. 

      Clauses.

    • B. 

      Expressions.

    • C. 

      Queries.

    • D. 

      Statements.

  • 159. 
    What type of sequential query language (SQL) statement would you use to make the changes you were working on permanent?
    • A. 

      Data.

    • B. 

      Query.

    • C. 

      Schema.

    • D. 

      Transaction.

  • 160. 
    Which is the most commonly used sequential query language (SQL) data statement?
    • A. 

      Commit.

    • B. 

      Select.

    • C. 

      Where.

    • D. 

      Update.

  • 161. 
    Which sequential query language (SQL) server feature tracks changes and is used to ensure data integrity?
    • A. 

      Buffers.

    • B. 

      Concurrency.

    • C. 

      Locking.

    • D. 

      Logging.

  • 162. 
    Which UNIX capability can execute numerous programs at the same time?
    • A. 

      Multi-user

    • B. 

      Multiprocessing.

    • C. 

      Time sharing

    • D. 

      Multitasking.

  • 163. 
    Which UNIX ability can run on different types of hardware with few relatively minor changes?
    • A. 

      Portability.

    • B. 

      Flexibility.

    • C. 

      Simplicity.

    • D. 

      Base line programming.

  • 164. 
    Which UNIX operating system component interacts directly with the system hardware?
    • A. 

      File system.

    • B. 

      VI editor.

    • C. 

      Kernel.

    • D. 

      Shell.

  • 165. 
    Which UNIX component provides a logical way to organize, store, retrieve, manipulate, and manage data?
    • A. 

      File system.

    • B. 

      VI editor.

    • C. 

      Kernel.

    • D. 

      Shell.

  • 166. 
    Which UNIX shell is the most compact and is often used for writing shell scripts?
    • A. 

      C shell.

    • B. 

      Bourne shell.

    • C. 

      Korn shell.

    • D. 

      D shell.

  • 167. 
    Normally, when you create a file with a text editor, the file is set up with
    • A. 

      Read and write permission for you and read-only permission for others.

    • B. 

      Write permission for you and read only permission for others.

    • C. 

      Read, write, and execute for you and read, write for others.

    • D. 

      Read and write permission for you and read, write for others.

  • 168. 
    To change permissions on a shell script, you use the UNIX command
    • A. 

      Chown.

    • B. 

      Chgrp.

    • C. 

      Chmod.

    • D. 

      Chper.

  • 169. 
    The simplest place to put your function definitions is in your
    • A. 

      Function.

    • B. 

      Dev.

    • C. 

      Definition.

    • D. 

      Profile.

  • 170. 
    What do you type to quit a UNIX shell?
    • A. 

      Exit.

    • B. 

      Quit.

    • C. 

      X.

    • D. 

      Xit.

  • 171. 
    How many characters do most UNIX system administrators and users tend to use for filenames?
    • A. 

      10.

    • B. 

      12.

    • C. 

      14.

    • D. 

      16.

  • 172. 
    UNIX™ disks are divided into logical sections called
    • A. 

      Sectors.

    • B. 

      Sections.

    • C. 

      Reams.

    • D. 

      Partitions.

  • 173. 
    The /dev/dsk and /dev/rdsk directories are subdirectories of which directory?
    • A. 

      Root.

    • B. 

      System.

    • C. 

      Device.

    • D. 

      Home.

  • 174. 
    What does the 0 following the c in the device name c0t6d0s7 represent?
    • A. 

      Controller.

    • B. 

      Partition.

    • C. 

      Drive number

    • D. 

      Bus target number

  • 175. 
    What does the 7 in the device name c0t6d0s7 represent?
    • A. 

      Bus target number.

    • B. 

      Drive number

    • C. 

      Controller.

    • D. 

      Partition.

  • 176. 
    What is the basic unit for storing and manipulating a collection of logically related information known as data?
    • A. 

      Directories.

    • B. 

      Partitions.

    • C. 

      Slices.

    • D. 

      Files.

  • 177. 
    Hard links are created using which UNIX command?
    • A. 

      Cd.

    • B. 

      Hd.

    • C. 

      Lm.

    • D. 

      Ln.

  • 178. 
    Which UNIX mechanism provides for communication with system device drivers through the file system one character at a time?
    • A. 

      Named pipes.

    • B. 

      Character devices.

    • C. 

      Block devices.

    • D. 

      Sockets.

  • 179. 
    Which UNIX mechanism enables programs to communicate with one another through the file system?
    • A. 

      Named pipes.

    • B. 

      Character devices.

    • C. 

      Block devices.

    • D. 

      Sockets.

  • 180. 
    Which UNIX command displays the current working directory?
    • A. 

      Ls.

    • B. 

      Ls-s

    • C. 

      Pwf.

    • D. 

      Pwd.

  • 181. 
    Which UNIX command allows you to move to different directories within a file system using absolute or relative pathnames?
    • A. 

      Ls.

    • B. 

      Cd.

    • C. 

      Pwf.

    • D. 

      Pwd.

  • 182. 
    Which UNIX command takes any characters from standard input and then echoes them to standard output?
    • A. 

      Cat.

    • B. 

      Mkdir.

    • C. 

      Pwd.

    • D. 

      Pwf.

  • 183. 
    Which UNIX command deletes files from within a directory?
    • A. 

      Lm.

    • B. 

      Rm.

    • C. 

      Pr.

    • D. 

      Ps.

  • 184. 
    Which UNIX command looks at an individual file and finds a specified pattern (string)?
    • A. 

      Grep.

    • B. 

      Find.

    • C. 

      Crypt.

    • D. 

      Group.

  • 185. 
    Which UNIX command changes the group ownership of one or more files?
    • A. 

      Chgrp.

    • B. 

      Chown.

    • C. 

      Whodo.

    • D. 

      Finger.

  • 186. 
    Which UNIX command changes the ownership of one or more files to a new owner?
    • A. 

      Chgrp.

    • B. 

      Chown.

    • C. 

      Whodo.

    • D. 

      Finger.

  • 187. 
    Which UNIX command sets access and modification times for each file to the current time?
    • A. 

      Chgrp.

    • B. 

      Chown.

    • C. 

      Touch.

    • D. 

      Finger.

  • 188. 
    How many primary groups can a user be a member of?
    • A. 

      One.

    • B. 

      Two.

    • C. 

      Three.

    • D. 

      Four.

  • 189. 
    Which UNIX vi mode allows users to execute set commands?
    • A. 

      Edit.

    • B. 

      Text input.

    • C. 

      Command.

    • D. 

      Append.

  • 190. 
    Which UNIX vi character represents the end of the file?
    • A. 

      *.

    • B. 

      &.

    • C. 

      ?

    • D. 

      $.

  • 191. 
    While using UNIX vi to edit a file, what would you enter to save the buffer contents and stay in same file?
    • A. 

      W.

    • B. 

      W!.

    • C. 

      Wq.

    • D. 

      !.

  • 192. 
    In UNIX, which package of programs lets a terminal handle many sessions at once?
    • A. 

      UNIX™ windows system.

    • B. 

      Multi-user manager.

    • C. 

      Multi-session manager.

    • D. 

      UNIX™ session manager.

  • 193. 
    What is the most common UNIX windows system?
    • A. 

      U windows.

    • B. 

      X windows.

    • C. 

      UX windows

    • D. 

      UZ windows

  • 194. 
    Which UNIX default command starts the X windows system?
    • A. 

      Xwnds.

    • B. 

      Xstart.

    • C. 

      Xinit.

    • D. 

      X.

  • 195. 
    The act of choosing the window you type is called setting the
    • A. 

      Active window.

    • B. 

      Input focus

    • C. 

      X window.

    • D. 

      Window manager.

  • 196. 
    What action puts unneeded windows out of the way without quitting the program inside them?
    • A. 

      Iconifying.

    • B. 

      Previewing.

    • C. 

      Paging.

    • D. 

      Desktop management

  • 197. 
    Which UNIX command from the menu bar moves a window to the bottom of the stack of windows?
    • A. 

      Resize.

    • B. 

      Move.

    • C. 

      Lower.

    • D. 

      Restore.

  • 198. 
    The first step in quitting an xterm session is to
    • A. 

      Quit all non-controlling programs.

    • B. 

      Quit all controlling programs.

    • C. 

      Type quit and press enter

    • D. 

      Type exit and press enter.

  • 199. 
    The key to shutting down an xterm window is to know which of your programs is the
    • A. 

      Controlling program.

    • B. 

      Exiting program.

    • C. 

      Executing program.

    • D. 

      Hard link file.

  • 200. 
    Which UNIX command does the system administrator need to use to create the manual database prior to users being able to access the man –k command?
    • A. 

      Catman.

    • B. 

      Manbld.

    • C. 

      Mancat.

    • D. 

      Man-b.