Pathopharmacology Exam! Ultimate Trivia Quiz

41 Questions | Total Attempts: 47

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Pathopharmacology Exam! Ultimate Trivia Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Occlusion of the circumflex artery during an MI would interrupt blood supply to the:
    • A. 

      Left and right ventricles and much of the intraventricular septum

    • B. 

      Posterior intraventricular sulcus and smaller branches of the ventricles

    • C. 

      Upper right ventricle, right marginal branch, and right ventricle to the apex

    • D. 

      Left atrium and the lateral wall of the left ventricle

  • 2. 
    The coronary ostia is located in the:
    • A. 

      Right atrium

    • B. 

      Left atrium

    • C. 

      Superior vena cava

    • D. 

      Aorta

  • 3. 
    The ratio of coronary capillaries to cardiac muscle cells is:
    • A. 

      1:1 (1 capillary to 1 muscle cell)

    • B. 

      1:2 (1 capillary to 2 muscle cells)

    • C. 

      1:4 (1 capillary to 4 muscle cells)

    • D. 

      1:10 (1 capillary to 10 muscle cells)

  • 4. 
    The function of P cells found in the sinoatrial node and Purkinje fibers is that they:
    • A. 

      Are receptors for pain stimuli, such as the pain that occurs during an infarction

    • B. 

      Prolong the refractory period before the next contraction

    • C. 

      Are assumed to be the site of impulse formation

    • D. 

      Initiate repolarization of the myocardium

  • 5. 
    Depolarization of the cardiac muscle cell occurs as the result of a:
    • A. 

      Decrease in the permeability of the cell membrane to potassium

    • B. 

      Rapid movement of sodium into the cell membrane

    • C. 

      Decrease in the movement of sodium out of the cell

    • D. 

      Rapid movement of calcium out of the cell

  • 6. 
    Which of the following events occurs during phase 1 of the normal myocardial cell depolarization and repolarization?
    • A. 

      Repolarization when potassium moves out of the cells

    • B. 

      Repolarization when sodium rapidly enters into cells

    • C. 

      Early repolarization when sodium slowly enters the cells

    • D. 

      Early repolarization when calcium slowly enters the cells

  • 7. 
    Which phase of the normal myocardial cell depolarization and repolarization correlates with diastole?
    • A. 

      Phase 0

    • B. 

      Phase 1

    • C. 

      Phase 2

    • D. 

      Phase 3

    • E. 

      Phase 4

  • 8. 
    In the normal electrocardiogram, the PR interval represents:
    • A. 

      Atrial depolarization

    • B. 

      Ventricular depolarization

    • C. 

      Atrial activation to onset of ventricular activity

    • D. 

      Electrical systole of the ventricles

  • 9. 
    The cardiac electrical impulse normally begins spontaneously in the sinoatrial (SA) node because:
    • A. 

      Of its superior location in the right atrium

    • B. 

      It is the only area of the heart capable of spontaneous depolarization

    • C. 

      It has a rich sympathetic innervation via the vagus nerve

    • D. 

      It depolarizes more rapidly than other automatic cells of the heart

  • 10. 
    The ___ period follows depolarization of the myocardium and represents a period during which no new cardiac potential can be propagated.
    • A. 

      Refractory

    • B. 

      Hyperpolarization

    • C. 

      Threshold

    • D. 

      SA

  • 11. 
    Which of the following triggers an immune response within the bloodstream that can result in an embolus?
    • A. 

      Amniotic fluid

    • B. 

      Fat

    • C. 

      Bacteria

    • D. 

      Air

  • 12. 
    Which statement best describes thrombangitis obliterans (Bueger disease)?
    • A. 

      An inflammatory disorder of the small and medium-size arteries in the feet and sometimes the hands

    • B. 

      A vasospastic disorder of the small arteries and arterioles of the fingers, and less commonly, the toes

    • C. 

      An autoimmune disorder of the large arteries and veins of the upper and lower extremities

    • D. 

      A neoplastic disorder of the lining of the arteries and veins of the upper extremities.

  • 13. 
    Which of the following statements best describes Raynaud disease?
    • A. 

      An inflammatory disorder of the small and medium-size arteries in the feet and sometimes the hands

    • B. 

      A neoplastic disorder of the lining of the arteries and veins of the upper extremities.

    • C. 

      A vasospastic disorder of the small arteries and arterioles of the fingers, and less commonly, the toes

    • D. 

      An autoimmune disorder of the large arteries and veins of the upper and lower extremities

  • 14. 
    What changes in veins occur to create varicose veins?
    • A. 

      An increase in osmotic pressure

    • B. 

      Damage to the valves within veins

    • C. 

      Damage to the venous endothelium

    • D. 

      An increase in hydrostatic pressure

  • 15. 
    Superior vena cava syndrome is a progressive ___ of the superior vena cava (SVC) that leads to venous distention of the upper extremities and head.
    • A. 

      Inflammation

    • B. 

      Occlusion

    • C. 

      Distention

    • D. 

      Sclerosis

  • 16. 
    A local state in which cells are temporarily deprived of blood supply is defined as:
    • A. 

      Infarction

    • B. 

      Ischemia

    • C. 

      Necrosis

    • D. 

      Inflammation

  • 17. 
    The risk of developing coronary artery disease (CAD) is increased up to threefold by:
    • A. 

      DM

    • B. 

      HTN

    • C. 

      Obesity

    • D. 

      High ETOH consumption

  • 18. 
    Nicotine increases atherosclerosis by the release of:
    • A. 

      Histamine

    • B. 

      Nitric oxide

    • C. 

      Angiotensin II

    • D. 

      Epinephrine

  • 19. 
    Which of the following is manufactured by the liver and primarily contains cholesterol and protein?
    • A. 

      Very low density lipoproteins (VLDLs)

    • B. 

      Low density lipoproteins (LDLs)

    • C. 

      High density lipoproteins (HDLs)

    • D. 

      Triglycerides (TGs)

  • 20. 
    Which elevated value may be protective of the development of atherosclerosis?
    • A. 

      Very low density lipoproteins (VLDLs)

    • B. 

      Low density lipoproteins (LDLs)

    • C. 

      High density lipoproteins (HDLs)

    • D. 

      Triglycerides (TGs)

  • 21. 
    High altitudes may produce hypoxemia through:
    • A. 

      Shunting

    • B. 

      Hypoventilation

    • C. 

      Decreased inspired oxygen

    • D. 

      Diffusion abnormalities

  • 22. 
    Alveolar dead space is a result of:
    • A. 

      Pulmonary edema

    • B. 

      Pulmonary emboli

    • C. 

      Atelectasis

    • D. 

      Pneumonia

  • 23. 
    The most common cause of pulmonary edema is:
    • A. 

      Right sided heart failure

    • B. 

      Left sided heart failure

    • C. 

      Mitral valve prolapse

    • D. 

      Aortic stenosis

  • 24. 
    Pulmonary edema begins at a PCWP or left atrial pressure of ___mmHg
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      20

    • C. 

      30

    • D. 

      40

  • 25. 
    ___ atelectasis is the collapse of lung tissue caused from the lack of collateral ventilation through the pores of Kohn.
    • A. 

      Compression

    • B. 

      Perfusion

    • C. 

      Absorption

    • D. 

      Hypoventilation

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