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150 Questions | Total Attempts: 37

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Military Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What results from the collection, processing, analysis, evaluation, and interpretation of information
    • A. 

      Information

    • B. 

      Access

    • C. 

      Product

    • D. 

      Intelligence

  • 2. 
    What is produced from gathering information about foreign military capabilities, intentions, plans, disposition, and equipment?
    • A. 

      Intelligence

    • B. 

      Military Intelligence

    • C. 

      Product

    • D. 

      FISINT

  • 3. 
    What are the three levels of intelligence
    • A. 

      Strategic, operational, tactical

    • B. 

      High level, mid level, low level

    • C. 

      Top secret, secret, confidential

    • D. 

      Operational, ISR, strategy

  • 4. 
    Who serves as the President's senior advisory board for all national security and defense matters?
    • A. 

      JCS

    • B. 

      DNI

    • C. 

      SECDEF

    • D. 

      NSC

  • 5. 
    What is the function of the Department of State?
    • A. 

      Prevents terrorist attacks within the U.S. and reduces America’s vulnerability to terrorism

    • B. 

      Overtly collects political, economic, and technical information concerning foreign energy matters and nuclear weapons tests

    • C. 

      Overtly collects and produces political, military, and economic information relevant to U.S. foreign policy

    • D. 

      Overtly collects foreign financial and monetary information

  • 6. 
    Who provides timely, objective, and relevant all-source foreign intelligence to warfighters, defense planners, and national security policy makers worldwide?
    • A. 

      DIA

    • B. 

      FBI

    • C. 

      CIA

    • D. 

      DNI

  • 7. 
    What is/are the function(s) of the National Security Agency (NSA)
    • A. 

      The unified cryptologic organization of the U.S.

    • B. 

      Produces foreign Signals Intelligence (SIGNIT) information

    • C. 

      Protects U.S. Government information systems

    • D. 

      All of the Above

  • 8. 
    Which of these is not a U.S. Military Service Cryptologic Component?  
    • A. 

      INSCOM

    • B. 

      AFISRA

    • C. 

      ONI

    • D. 

      FLTCYBERCOM

  • 9. 
    Which GEOINT product allows collection during adverse weather conditions?
    • A. 

      Electro-optical

    • B. 

      Multispectral

    • C. 

      Infrared

    • D. 

      Radar

  • 10. 
    What are the three sub-disciplines of SIGINT?
    • A. 

      COMINT, ELINT, FISINT

    • B. 

      COMINT, MASINT, IMINT

    • C. 

      FISINT, OPELINT, HUMINT

    • D. 

      TECHELINT, MASINT, FISINT

  • 11. 
    What are sub-categories of MASINT?
    • A. 

      Electro-optical, radar, materials & debris

    • B. 

      Nuclear radiation, geophysical, radio frequency

    • C. 

      Radar, infrared, nuclear radiation

    • D. 

      Both a & b

  • 12. 
    Which of the sub-categories of MASINT involves the physical collection and analysis of atmospheric trace elements associated with nuclear, biological, chemical (NBC) or other events?
    • A. 

      Nuclear radiation

    • B. 

      Geophysical

    • C. 

      Materials & debris

    • D. 

      Electro-optical

  • 13. 
    What is the oldest of the all the intelligence disciplines?
    • A. 

      SIGINT

    • B. 

      HUMINT

    • C. 

      OSINT

    • D. 

      IMINT

  • 14. 
    What does a 1N2XXC collect?
    • A. 

      COMINT

    • B. 

      IMINT

    • C. 

      SIGINT

    • D. 

      FISINT

  • 15. 
    Which AFSC monitors and records SIGINT information?
    • A. 

      IN4XX

    • B. 

      1A8X2

    • C. 

      IN2XXA

    • D. 

      1A8X1

  • 16. 
    What is the definition of access?
    • A. 

      The opportunity afforded to an individual to obtain classified information

    • B. 

      Determination that classified information no longer requires any degree of protection against unauthorized disclosure

    • C. 

      Determination that an individual requires access to specific classified information in order to perform a lawful government function

    • D. 

      The ability and opportunity to obtain knowledge of classified information

  • 17. 
    Information or material whose unauthorized disclosure could cause damage to national security
    • A. 

      Secret

    • B. 

      Top Secret

    • C. 

      Confidential

    • D. 

      Unclassified

  • 18. 
    What is the determination that classified information no longer requires any degree of protection against unauthorized disclosure?
    • A. 

      Derivative classification

    • B. 

      Declassification

    • C. 

      Downgrade

    • D. 

      Upgrade

  • 19. 
    Which of these is not part of the Five-Step OPSEC Process?
    • A. 

      Assess the Threat

    • B. 

      Identify Critical Information

    • C. 

      Analyze Vulnerabilities

    • D. 

      Apply Countermeasures & Monitor their Successes

  • 20. 
    What are the three sub-categories of COMSEC?
    • A. 

      Crypto security, transmission security, emissions security

    • B. 

      INFOSEC, EMSEC, COMSEC

    • C. 

      EMSEC, OPSEC, transmission security

    • D. 

      COMPUSEC, crypto security, INFOSEC

  • 21. 
    What protects information processed and stored on computers and adheres to password security?
    • A. 

      OPSEC

    • B. 

      INFOSEC

    • C. 

      COMPUSEC

    • D. 

      COMSEC

  • 22. 
    What occurs when there is suspected disclosure of classified information to an unauthorized person?
    • A. 

      Compromise improbable

    • B. 

      Compromise certain

    • C. 

      Compromise possible

    • D. 

      Compromise probable

  • 23. 
    What are the the sections of Executive Order 13526?
    • A. 

      1.2 - Outlines classification levels, 1.4 - Outlines classification categories, 2 - Outlines derivative classification policies, 3 - Outlines declassification & downgrade policies

    • B. 

      1.2 - Outlines classification categories, 1.4 - Outlines classification levels, 2 - Outlines derivative classification policies, 3 - Outlines declassification & downgrade policies

    • C. 

      1.2 - Outlines classification levels, 1.4 - Outlines classification categories, 2 - Outlines declassification & downgrade policies, 3 - Outlines derivative classification policies,

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 24. 
    What does a banner line show?
    • A. 

      Classification of a particular paragraph

    • B. 

      The highest level of classification contained on a page or the overall highest classification of the complete document

    • C. 

      Caveats

    • D. 

      Classification authority blocks

  • 25. 
    Which caveat requires NOFORN to be attached to it?
    • A. 

      TK

    • B. 

      HCS

    • C. 

      SI

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 26. 
    What does the FGI caveat denote?
    • A. 

      U.S. information shared with foreign entities

    • B. 

      U.S. information kept close hold

    • C. 

      Who the information can be released to

    • D. 

      Foreign owned or foreign produced information shared with the U.S.

  • 27. 
    Which color coding refers to Confidential information?
    • A. 

      Green

    • B. 

      Blue

    • C. 

      Red

    • D. 

      Yellow

  • 28. 
    What is required for access to classified information?
    • A. 

      Proper clearence

    • B. 

      Need-to-know

    • C. 

      Non-disclosure agreement

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 29. 
    Which coversheet is for SCI material?
    • A. 

      AF Form 353

    • B. 

      SF 703

    • C. 

      SF 704

    • D. 

      SF 705

  • 30. 
    Which form is the AF702?
    • A. 

      Security container information

    • B. 

      Activity security checklist

    • C. 

      Security container checklist

    • D. 

      Talent Keyhole coversheet

  • 31. 
    What is media sticker SF709 used for?
    • A. 

      TS stickers

    • B. 

      S stickers

    • C. 

      None of these

    • D. 

      U stickers

  • 32. 
    When transporting classified between buildings and information is double wrapped, ____ is on the inside and ____ is on the outside 
    • A. 

      Coversheet, plain

    • B. 

      Plain, coversheet

    • C. 

      Coversheet 1, coversheet 2

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 33. 
    Who is the only entity who can authorize sharing information with third party countries?
    • A. 

      DNI

    • B. 

      FBI

    • C. 

      FDO

    • D. 

      JCS

  • 34. 
    Which of these describes a U.S. Person?
    • A. 

      U.S. Citizen

    • B. 

      Permanent resident alien

    • C. 

      Corporation incorporated in the U.S. except for one owned or controlled by a foreign government

    • D. 

      Unincorporated association substantially composed of U.S. citizens or permanent resident aliens

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 35. 
    Which three regulations govern Intelligence Oversight?
    • A. 

      EO 13256, DoD 5240.01, AFI 14-104

    • B. 

      AFI 14-104, EO 12333, DoD 5250.01

    • C. 

      EO 12333, AFI 14-104, DoD 5240.01

    • D. 

      EO 13256, DoD 5240.01, AFI 14-205

  • 36. 
    What is the description of a Request for Information (RFI)
    • A. 

      Used to fill identified intelligence gap & required physical collection

    • B. 

      Query from one organization to another, information is readily available

    • C. 

      Anticipated intelligence requirements, based on mission statement, OPLAN, and commander's intent

    • D. 

      All the information needed to meet an intelligence requirement, the five Ws and how

  • 37. 
    What is the process of developing raw information into finished intelligence for policymakers to use in decision-making and action?
    • A. 

      ATO Cycle

    • B. 

      Information Cycle

    • C. 

      ATO Intelligence

    • D. 

      Intelligence Cycle

  • 38. 
    What is used to fill sudden, short-term needs for specific intelligence?
    • A. 

      Standing requirement

    • B. 

      Field/ad hoc requirement

    • C. 

      Collection requirement

    • D. 

      Priority intelligence requirement

  • 39. 
    Which collection conceals the identity of the sponsor?
    • A. 

      Overt

    • B. 

      Covert

    • C. 

      Primary

    • D. 

      Secondary

  • 40. 
    What is discreet collection?
    • A. 

      Conducted quietly to avoid curiosity, public interest or interference

    • B. 

      Conducted in the open and acknowledged by the sponsor

    • C. 

      Obtaining intelligence documents, reports, estimates, and publications from available sources

    • D. 

      Conceals the existence of an operation, conceals the sponsor and activities

  • 41. 
    What are the 4 sources of Analysis and Production?
    • A. 

      Intelligence, Evaluation, Analysis, Interpretation

    • B. 

      Interpretation, Analysis, Integration, Expertise

    • C. 

      Integration, Information, Evaluation, Analysis

    • D. 

      Analysis, Evaluation, Integration, Interpretation

  • 42. 
    What is comprised of staff and resources to plan, direct, and execute joint air operations in support of the JFC operations plan?
    • A. 

      ATO

    • B. 

      JFACC

    • C. 

      AOC

    • D. 

      Strategy Division

  • 43. 
    Which AOC division controls long rang planning of aerospace and information operations. Additionally, this division plans the war at least 72 hours out
    • A. 

      Strategy Division

    • B. 

      Combat Operations Division

    • C. 

      Combat Plans Division

    • D. 

      ISR Division

  • 44. 
    What is the role of the Strategy Plans Team?
    • A. 

      Bridge gap between operation and tactical, develops the AOD

    • B. 

      Evaluates effectiveness of JAOP, informs JFACC about execution, recommends operational changes to JFACC

    • C. 

      Initiated the ATO and provides near-term operational planning

    • D. 

      Develop a coherent JAOP, air part of the campaign plan, identify clear aerospace objectives

  • 45. 
    Which product documents the JFACC's plan to integrate and coordinate operations across all phases of air power?
    • A. 

      Air Operations Directive (AOD)

    • B. 

      Joint Air Operations Plan (JAOP)

    • C. 

      Operational Assessment Report

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 46. 
    What initiates the Air Tasking Order (ATO) cycle?
    • A. 

      JAOP

    • B. 

      Operational Assessment Team

    • C. 

      AOD

    • D. 

      Combat Plans Division (CPD)

  • 47. 
    Who provides near-term operational planning as it plans the ATO 48-72 hours out?
    • A. 

      Combat Operations Division

    • B. 

      Combat Plans Division

    • C. 

      Strategy Division

    • D. 

      Targeting Effects Team

  • 48. 
    What is the function of the targeting effects team?
    • A. 

      Compiles working copy of the Joint Integrated Prioritized Target List (JIPTL) from component Target Nomination Lists

    • B. 

      Consults with Ops Assessment and components to verify that each nomination is still a valid target

    • C. 

      Consolidates, de-conflicts, and coordinates nominations

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 49. 
    Which team helps develop the Air Battle Plan (ABP)?
    • A. 

      C2 Planning Team

    • B. 

      MAAP Team

    • C. 

      ATO Production Team

    • D. 

      Targeting Effects Team

  • 50. 
    Which team is the main POC for the SPINS?
    • A. 

      ATO Production Team

    • B. 

      Targeting Effects Team

    • C. 

      C2 Planning Team

    • D. 

      MAAP Team

  • 51. 
    Which product is a prioritized list of desired kinetic and non-kinetic effects identified for action during a particular ATO period?
    • A. 

      JIPTL

    • B. 

      MAAP

    • C. 

      ATO

    • D. 

      SPINS

  • 52. 
    What is the foundation of the ATO?
    • A. 

      AOD

    • B. 

      ABP

    • C. 

      JIPTL

    • D. 

      MAAP

  • 53. 
    Which product tasks air and space assets and capabilities according to the approved MAAP?
    • A. 

      SPINS

    • B. 

      ATO

    • C. 

      JIPTL

    • D. 

      ABP

  • 54. 
    At any given time how many ATOs will be in carious stages of planning, execution, and assessment?
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      5

    • D. 

      6

  • 55. 
    Which AOC division helps monitor and execute the ATO while fighting Today's war?
    • A. 

      ISRD

    • B. 

      SD

    • C. 

      CPD

    • D. 

      COD

  • 56. 
    What are the Combat Operations Division's teams?
    • A. 

      Offensive Operations Team, Defensive Operations Team, Senior Intelligence Duty Office (SIDO), Interface Control Team

    • B. 

      Analysis Production and Fusion Team, Targeting & Tactical Assessment Team, ISR Ops Team, Processing, Exploitation & Dissemination Management Team

    • C. 

      Airlift Control Team, Air Refueling Control Team, Air Mobility Control Team, Aeromedical Evacuation Control Team

    • D. 

      NALE, MARLO, SOLE, NIST

  • 57. 
    Which COD Team is lead by the Senior Air Defense Officer?
    • A. 

      Offensive Operations Team

    • B. 

      SIDO Team

    • C. 

      Defensive Operations Team

    • D. 

      Interface Control Team

  • 58. 
    Who supervises all ISR operations within the current ATO and is responsible for threat warning, situational awareness, and predictive analysis of the adversary?
    • A. 

      SIDO

    • B. 

      SODO

    • C. 

      DNI

    • D. 

      CCO

  • 59. 
    Which of these is not a description/function of the ISR Division?
    • A. 

      Considered the focal point for ISR Integration and Functions

    • B. 

      Determining CSAR information, locations of alternate airfields and automatic retrograde criteria

    • C. 

      Provides context for understanding an adversary's intentions by conducting dynamic ISR operations and IPOE

    • D. 

      Ensures JFACC and AOC intelligence requirements are optimally stated and IPOE products and continuously updated and available to all AOC divisions

  • 60. 
    Which ISRD team is responsible for all source IPOE?
    • A. 

      Targeting and Tactical Assessment Team

    • B. 

      ISR Ops Team

    • C. 

      ACF Team

    • D. 

      PED Team

  • 61. 
    Which ISRD Team is comprised of the Collection Management Cell and Request for Information Management Cell?
    • A. 

      ACF Team

    • B. 

      Targeting and Tactical Assessment Team

    • C. 

      PED Team

    • D. 

      ISR Ops Team

  • 62. 
    Which AOC division is responsible for integrating the total air mobility effort for the JFACC?
    • A. 

      Strategy Divsion

    • B. 

      Combat Operations Division

    • C. 

      Combat Plans Division

    • D. 

      Air Mobility Division

  • 63. 
    Which of these is not a team of the Air Mobility Division?
    • A. 

      Airlift Control Team

    • B. 

      Air Mobility Control Team

    • C. 

      Aerospace Operations Team

    • D. 

      Air Refueling Control Team

  • 64. 
    Which liaison team coordinates and integrates all SOF activities in the entire battlespace?
    • A. 

      MARLO

    • B. 

      NALE

    • C. 

      SOLE

    • D. 

      NIST

  • 65. 
    What is the correct order of the Joint Air Tasking Order?
    • A. 

      MAAP, TET, Strategy, ATO Production, Combat Operations, Ops Assessment

    • B. 

      Strategy, Ops Assessment, COmbat Operations, ATO Production, MAAP, TET

    • C. 

      TET, Combat Operations, MAAP, Ops Assessment, ATO Production, Strategy

    • D. 

      Strategy, TET, MAAP, ATO Production, Combat Operations, Ops Assessment

  • 66. 
    Which of these is not a definition of TACS?
    • A. 

      Integrated collection of USAF systems

    • B. 

      Facilitates the command guidance of the National Command Authority (NCA), joint force commander (JFC), and joint force air component commander (JFACC)

    • C. 

      Enables centralized control and decentralized execution

    • D. 

      Detects, tracks, identifies, and reports airborne targets to the command tactical picture and the integrated theater common operational picture

  • 67. 
    Which TACS component is located 100 to 200 miles from the Forward Edge of Battle?
    • A. 

      Control and Reporting Element

    • B. 

      Air Support Ops Center

    • C. 

      Control and Reporting Cell

    • D. 

      Airborne Warning and Control System

  • 68. 
    Which function of the CRC provides continuous exchange of information concerning friendly, hostile, and unidentified air, land, and surface contacts?
    • A. 

      Theater Air Defense

    • B. 

      Tactical Datalink Management

    • C. 

      Surveillance

    • D. 

      Battle Management Command and Control

  • 69. 
    What TACS component is subordinate to the CRC, extends radar coverage and is located 25 to 100 feet from the FEBA?
    • A. 

      Air Supports Ops Center

    • B. 

      Surveillance

    • C. 

      Battle Management Command and Control

    • D. 

      Control and Reporting Element

  • 70. 
    Which TACS element is typically located with the Senior Army Tactical Headquarters?
    • A. 

      Air Supports Ops Center

    • B. 

      Theater Air Defense

    • C. 

      Special Tactics Team

    • D. 

      Wings Center Team

  • 71. 
    Which of these is not a role/mission of the Air Support Ops Center?
    • A. 

      Primary mission of rapid reaction to immediate CAS requests

    • B. 

      May support and coordinate attacks on known or suspected surface-to-surface missile sites

    • C. 

      Advises ground commanders on the capabilities and limitations of air and space power

    • D. 

      Information exchange and coordination of tactical support for ground forces

  • 72. 
    Who is the principal AF liaison and control element aligned with Army maneuver units?
    • A. 

      Special Tactics Team

    • B. 

      Tactical Air Control Party

    • C. 

      Wing Operations Center

    • D. 

      Forward Air Controller-Airborne

  • 73. 
    Which TACS element has the role/mission of 1) USAF Special Operations elements, 2) locates, identifies, and marks drop, landing, and extraction zones, 3) provides limited airspace control at assault zones, landing zones, and extraction zones
    • A. 

      Theater Air Control Party

    • B. 

      Wing Operations Center

    • C. 

      Air Support Operations Center

    • D. 

      Special Tactics Team

  • 74. 
    Which TACS element receives the ATO, translates the ATO into special missions, and forwards mission results to the AOC?
    • A. 

      Wing Operations Center

    • B. 

      Tactical Air Control Party

    • C. 

      Special Tactics Teams

    • D. 

      Control and Reporting Center

  • 75. 
    Which is not a role/mission of the AWACS?
    • A. 

      E-3B/C aircraft

    • B. 

      E-8C aircraft

    • C. 

      Airborne platform responsible for performing air battle management, airspace control, fighter control, and early warning

    • D. 

      Can perform same gap-filling role as CRE

  • 76. 
    Which is a not a role/mission of the Joint Surveillance Target Attack Radar System (JSTARS)?
    • A. 

      E-8C aircraft

    • B. 

      Provides wide-area ground surveillance

    • C. 

      Detects, classifies, tracks, and provides attack support for time sensitive ground and slow moving airborne targets

    • D. 

      Advises ground commanders on the capabilities and limitations of air and space power

  • 77. 
    Which TACS components has the following roles/missions: 1) Typical Platforms: A-10, F16C/CG; 2) Normally an airborne extension of the TACP; 3) Controls aircraft engaged in CAS; 4) Coordinates air strikes between ground forward air controller and air support fighters?
    • A. 

      Air Support Ops Center

    • B. 

      WOC

    • C. 

      STT

    • D. 

      FAC-A

  • 78. 
    Which organization is not a major sub-section of the Pentagon?
    • A. 

      Army

    • B. 

      Navy

    • C. 

      Air Force

    • D. 

      Marines

  • 79. 
    What is comprised of the highest ranking members of each major branch of the armed forces?
    • A. 

      JCS

    • B. 

      CJCS

    • C. 

      DNI

    • D. 

      CoS

  • 80. 
    Who acts in an advisory capability to the President and the SECDEF? 
    • A. 

      CJCS

    • B. 

      DNI

    • C. 

      DIR NSA/CSS

    • D. 

      JCS

  • 81. 
    What is also known as a Unified Command?
    • A. 

      MAJCOM

    • B. 

      NAVCOM

    • C. 

      COCOM

    • D. 

      ARCOM

  • 82. 
    Which COCOM's mission is to maintain forces to conduct military operations and international military engagement in Europe, parts of the Middle East, and Eurasia?
    • A. 

      USAFE

    • B. 

      PACOM

    • C. 

      CENTCOM

    • D. 

      EUCOM

  • 83. 
    Whose AOR includes 20 countries in Central Asia and Southwest Asia, including Egypt?
    • A. 

      PACOM

    • B. 

      EUCOM

    • C. 

      CENTCOM

    • D. 

      AFRICOM

  • 84. 
    Whose mission is to promote security and peaceful development in the Asia-Pacific region and maintains oversight of 43 countries across the region?
    • A. 

      PACOM

    • B. 

      PACAF

    • C. 

      CENTCOM

    • D. 

      SOCOM

  • 85. 
    Which COCOM is based in Miami FL, conducts military operations in Central/South America and includes 31 countries?
    • A. 

      SOCOM

    • B. 

      NORTHCOM

    • C. 

      SOUTHCOM

    • D. 

      PACOM

  • 86. 
    Where is USNORTHCOM located and what is their primary mission?
    • A. 

      Peterson AFB & provides command and control of DoD homeland defense efforts

    • B. 

      Peterson AFB & provides air, land, and sea transportation for the DoD in times of peace and war

    • C. 

      Scott AFB & provides command and control of DoD homeland defense efforts

    • D. 

      Offutt AFB & provides air, land, and sea transportation for the DoD in times of peace and war

  • 87. 
    Which COCOM is not a functional command?
    • A. 

      SOCOM

    • B. 

      TRANSCOM

    • C. 

      STRATCOM

    • D. 

      SOUTHCOM

  • 88. 
    Whose mission is to posture bombers, missiles and submarines to deter attacks, prepare the nation's nuclear war plans, performs strategic reconnaissance and is headquartered at Offutt AFB, NE?
    • A. 

      AMC

    • B. 

      TRANSCOM

    • C. 

      STRATCOM

    • D. 

      INSCOM

  • 89. 
    Which COCOM is subordinate to STRATCOM?
    • A. 

      SOCOM

    • B. 

      TRANSCOM

    • C. 

      NAVCOM

    • D. 

      CYBERCOM

  • 90. 
    Which service command has an Operational entity and an Institutionalized entity? 
    • A. 

      Navy

    • B. 

      Army

    • C. 

      Air Force

    • D. 

      Marines

  • 91. 
    Which of these is/are descriptions of the Navy Department?
    • A. 

      Executive Offices headed by the Secretary of the Navy and the Chief of Naval Operations

    • B. 

      Operating Forces - includes service vessels, submarines, and aircraft

    • C. 

      Shore Establishment - supports fleet forces from US based locations

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 92. 
    Who is the only service specifically tasked by Congress to operate combined arms in three dimensions: air, land, and sea?
    • A. 

      Navy

    • B. 

      Air Force

    • C. 

      Marines

    • D. 

      Air Force

  • 93. 
    Whose mission is to defend the US and protect its interests through air and space power and involves the Executive Chain of Command and Wing and below organizations?
    • A. 

      ACC

    • B. 

      AFSPC HQ

    • C. 

      HQ AF (HAF)

    • D. 

      AFMC

  • 94. 
    Which MAJCOM is located at Langley AFB, is the primary provider of combat forces to the COCOMs and operates fighter, bomber, reconnaissance, and battle-management aircraft?
    • A. 

      AFMC

    • B. 

      ACC

    • C. 

      AFSOC

    • D. 

      AETC

  • 95. 
    Where is Air Force Material Command located and what is their primary mission?
    • A. 

      Wright Patterson AFB, provides airlift and air refueling missions for U.S. Forces

    • B. 

      Scott AFB, provides airlift and air refueling missions for U.S. Forces

    • C. 

      Scott AFB, develops, acquires, and sustains aerospace power

    • D. 

      Wright Patterson AFB, develops, acquires, and sustains aerospace power

  • 96. 
    Which MAJCOM is located at Randolph AFB, and primary mission is to recruit, train and educate personnel?
    • A. 

      AFISRA

    • B. 

      AFGSC

    • C. 

      AFSPC

    • D. 

      AETC

  • 97. 
    Who aligns ICBM and dual capable bomber forces under a single command and is headquartered at Barksdale AFB?
    • A. 

      AFGSC

    • B. 

      AFSPC

    • C. 

      AFSOC

    • D. 

      AFNC

  • 98. 
    Where is PACAF headquartered and what is their primary mission?
    • A. 

      Hurlburt Field, promote peace and stability, deter aggression, and swiftly defeat enemies in the Asia-Pacific region

    • B. 

      Hickam AFB, promote peace and stability, deter aggression, and swiftly defeat enemies in the Asia-Pacific region

    • C. 

      Hurlburt Field, supports global special operations missions

    • D. 

      Hickam AFB, supports global special operations missions

  • 99. 
    Whose primary missions is to direct air operations in a theater spanning three continents supporting both USEUCOM and USAFRICOM?
    • A. 

      AFSPC

    • B. 

      AFSOC

    • C. 

      ACC

    • D. 

      USAFE

  • 100. 
    Who is subordinate to AFSPACECOM and includes the 24 AF?
    • A. 

      CYBERCOM

    • B. 

      AFSPC

    • C. 

      AFRC

    • D. 

      AFCYBER

  • 101. 
    Who is a Field Operating Agency subordinate to HAF A2 and provides multisource ISR products and resources to the US IC? Includes cyber, cryptologic and geospatial intelligence
    • A. 

      55th Wing

    • B. 

      AFISRA

    • C. 

      AFCYBER

    • D. 

      NASIC

  • 102. 
    Who overseas national-level ISR missions using a variety of platforms including, U-2, Global Hawk, Reaper, Predator, and the DCGS?
    • A. 

      70th Wing

    • B. 

      480th Wing

    • C. 

      55th Wing

    • D. 

      AFISRA

  • 103. 
    Who analyzes the characteristics and performance of foreign weapons systems?
    • A. 

      NASIC

    • B. 

      NGA

    • C. 

      NSA

    • D. 

      FISINT

  • 104. 
    What is/are the mission(s) of the Air Force Technical Applications Center (AFTAC)?
    • A. 

      Collect, produce and advance technical data to observe foreign nuclear tests for treaty monitoring

    • B. 

      Respond to global nuclear events, and prevent strategic surprise

    • C. 

      All of the above

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 105. 
    How many core DGSs are there?
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      5

    • D. 

      6

  • 106. 
    Which unit runs DGS-2 and there are they located?
    • A. 

      497th ISR GP; Langley AFB, VA

    • B. 

      692nd ISR GP; Hickam AFB, HI

    • C. 

      694th ISR GO; Osan AB, Korea

    • D. 

      548th ISR GP; Beale AFB, CA

  • 107. 
    Which DGS is assigned to the 693rd ISR GP at Ramstein AB, Germany?
    • A. 

      DGS-1

    • B. 

      DGS-2

    • C. 

      DGS-4

    • D. 

      DGS-5

  • 108. 
    Which of these is not an aspect of Joint Operations Planning?
    • A. 

      Three broad operational activities, four planning functions, and a number of related products

    • B. 

      Joint Plans and orders developed with strategic and military end states in mind

    • C. 

      Intelligence analysts develop products that help commanders and planners understand the complex and interconnected operational environment

    • D. 

      National security policy is developed by the NSC and approved by the President

  • 109. 
    What is focused on specific details to monitor, plan, and execute mobilization, deployment, employment, sustainment, redeployment, and demobilization activities associated with joint operations?
    • A. 

      Intelligence Preparation of the Operational Environment

    • B. 

      Joint Operations Planning

    • C. 

      Deliberate Planning

    • D. 

      ATO

  • 110. 
    What falls under Situational Awareness with regards to fundamentals associated with planning and intelligence support to planning?
    • A. 

      Addresses procedures for describing the operational environment and threats to National Security

    • B. 

      Involves continuous monitoring of National and International political and military situations

    • C. 

      Allows commanders to determine and analyze emerging crises, notify decision makers, and determine specific nature of threats

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 111. 
    What can be in the form of briefings or written reports?
    • A. 

      Intelligence Reports

    • B. 

      ATOs

    • C. 

      Intelligence Products

    • D. 

      ADPs

  • 112. 
    What helps determine adversary sources of strength, weaknesses, and critical vulnerabilities?
    • A. 

      Intelligence Products

    • B. 

      Intelligence Reports

    • C. 

      Intelligence Briefings

    • D. 

      Raw Intelligence

  • 113. 
    What describes Intelligence Preparation of the Operational Environment (IPOE)?
    • A. 

      Consists of analytical methodologies to reduce uncertainties concerning the enemy, environment, and terrain in a specific area

    • B. 

      Includes conditions, circumstances, and influences that impact capabilities and decisions of friendly, adversary, and neutral forces

    • C. 

      Encompasses physical areas and factors of air, land, maritime, space, and information domains

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 114. 
    • A. 

      Ad-Hoc Planning

    • B. 

      Strategic Planning

    • C. 

      Deliberate Planning

    • D. 

      Crisis Action Planning

  • 115. 
    Which type of planning is used for time-sensitive developments of OPORDs in response to a situation that may result in actual military operations?
    • A. 

      Crisis Action Planning

    • B. 

      Deliberate Planning

    • C. 

      IPOE

    • D. 

      Strategic Planning

  • 116. 
    What planning function encompasses the following components: 1) Formulates politico-military assessments at the strategic level 2) Develops planning guidance 3) Formulates concepts and strategic military operations 4) Develops and evaluates military strategy and objectives
    • A. 

      Strategic Planning

    • B. 

      Strategic Guidance

    • C. 

      Operations Planning

    • D. 

      Combat PLans

  • 117. 
    What identifies major US national security concerns, how they will be addresses and is produced by the National Security Council (NSC)?
    • A. 

      National Security Strategy (NSS)

    • B. 

      National Defense Strategy (NDS)

    • C. 

      National Military Strategy (NMS)

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 118. 
    What is an accurate description of the NDS?
    • A. 

      Develops planning guidance, consists of IPOE, produced by the SECDEF

    • B. 

      Derived from NSS and NDS, produced by CJCS, outlines how DoD will support NSS

    • C. 

      Produced by CJCS and SECEF, based on NSS, develops planning guidance

    • D. 

      Produced by the SECDEF, based on the NSS, outlines how DoD will support NSS

  • 119. 
    What is produced by the CJCS, outlines how the military will implement the NDS and NSS, and prioritizes and focuses the military's efforts by defining national military objectives?
    • A. 

      ATO

    • B. 

      NMS

    • C. 

      ABP

    • D. 

      JCS

  • 120. 
    Which aspect of Planning Functions features the following aspects: 1) COCOM Commander develops several alternatives for achieving objectives 2) Each alternative contains an initial CONOP that identifies major capabilities required and task organization, major operational tasks to be accomplished by components, a concept of employment, and assessment of risk for each alternative 3) CONOP - A verbal or graphic statement that clearly and concisely expresses what the JFC intends to accomplsih and how it will be done using available resources
    • A. 

      Concept Development

    • B. 

      Strategic Guidance

    • C. 

      Deliberate Planning

    • D. 

      Crisis Action Planning

  • 121. 
    Which of these describes a Commander's Estimate?
    • A. 

      Involves the least amount of detail and focuses on producing multiple alternatives to address a contingency

    • B. 

      Product for this level can be a briefing, command directive, commander's estimate, or a memorandum

    • C. 

      Both A & B

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 122. 
    What describes the CONOPS, major forces, concepts of support, and anticipated times for completing the mission?
    • A. 

      Commander's Estimate

    • B. 

      OPLAN

    • C. 

      BPLAN

    • D. 

      OPORD

  • 123. 
    Which Planning Function is used to fully develop campaign plans, contingency plans or orders, with applicable supporting annexes, and to refine preliminary feasibility analysis
    • A. 

      Concept Development

    • B. 

      Strategic Guidance

    • C. 

      Plan Development

    • D. 

      Plan Assessment

  • 124. 
    What is an abbreviated OPLAN that may require considerable expansion or alteration to convert it into a complete OPLAN or OPORD?
    • A. 

      ATO

    • B. 

      AOC

    • C. 

      EXORD

    • D. 

      CONPLAN

  • 125. 
    What is a written description of a combatant commander's concept of operations to counter a perceived threat and is a complete and detailed joint plan containing a  full description of the CONOPS, all annexes applicable to the plan, and a TPFDD?
    • A. 

      OPLAN

    • B. 

      CONPLAN

    • C. 

      OPORD

    • D. 

      EXORD

  • 126. 
    Who briefs a final plan to the SECDEF or a designated representative?
    • A. 

      CJCS

    • B. 

      SECAF

    • C. 

      MAJCOM Commander

    • D. 

      COCOM Commander

  • 127. 
    What does RATE stand for?
    • A. 

      Refine, Adapt, Terminate, Evaluate

    • B. 

      Refine, Adapt, Terminate, Execute

    • C. 

      Redo, Addition, Titillate, Execute

    • D. 

      Redo, Addition, Titillate, Evaluate

  • 128. 
    What begins when the President decides to use a military option to resolve a crisis and when the President or CJCS issues an order to execute an operation to the JFC?
    • A. 

      Evaluation

    • B. 

      Excitement

    • C. 

      Exhilleration

    • D. 

      Execution

  • 129. 
    • A. 

      OPLAN

    • B. 

      CONPLAN

    • C. 

      EXORD

    • D. 

      OPORD

  • 130. 
    What defines the time to initiate operations and conveys guidance not provided earlier?
    • A. 

      EXORD

    • B. 

      OPORD

    • C. 

      OPLAN

    • D. 

      CONPLAN

  • 131. 
    Who receives the OPORD and develops the ATO?
    • A. 

      AOC

    • B. 

      JAOP

    • C. 

      MAAP Team

    • D. 

      ATO Production Team

  • 132. 
    The WOC/Flying Units execute the _____ and reports ______.
    • A. 

      Mission, mission results

    • B. 

      ATO, product

    • C. 

      ATO, mission results

    • D. 

      ABP, ATO results

  • 133. 
    What Officer Assignment option is described by the following: 1) Plans, tasks, and monitors ISR ops 2) Majority of intel imbedded in ISRD 3) Develops ISR ops strategy as part of the JAOP 4) Supports target identification and weaponeering in support of ATO 5) Provides unit support, CFACC analysis support, and collection/reporting guidance
    • A. 

      GEOINT

    • B. 

      OSS

    • C. 

      AOC

    • D. 

      DCGS

  • 134. 
    What Officer Assignment is described by the following: 1) Directs ISR C2, analysis, and exploitation of intelligence derived from global ISR missions across multiple combatant commands 2) Leads operation of 24/7 ISR center providing real-time threat analysis and targeting for tactical combatant command 
    • A. 

      DCGS

    • B. 

      OSS

    • C. 

      SIGINT

    • D. 

      State Positions

  • 135. 
    Which is not a definition of the Officer Assignment of SIGINT?
    • A. 

      Orchestrates time-sensitive collection and reporting

    • B. 

      Provides intelligence support to fighter squadrons, air control squadrons, and Wing Leadership

    • C. 

      Supports critical decision making by military leaders and policy makers

    • D. 

      Directs threat warning support to JCS-directed ISR missions

  • 136. 
    Which is a definition of the Officer Position of Misc Intelligence Positions?
    • A. 

      SOF intelligence support to flying assets and ground teams similar to OSS operations support

    • B. 

      Tactical ISR support similar to DCGS, but tailored to assets like MQ-1 Predator and MQ-9 Reaper

    • C. 

      Exercise or adversary tactics squadrons

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 137. 
    Who has the single greatest impact on mission accomplishment?
    • A. 

      Commander

    • B. 

      Wingman

    • C. 

      Supervisor

    • D. 

      Self

  • 138. 
    What is training needed to qualify intelligence personnel for basic duties in an assigned position without regard for a specific unit's mission?
    • A. 

      MQT

    • B. 

      OJT

    • C. 

      JQS

    • D. 

      IQT

  • 139. 
    • A. 

      Training needed to qualify intelligence personnel for basic duties in an assigned position without regard to a specific unit's mission

    • B. 

      Training needed to qualify intelligence personnel to perform their specific unit mission in an assigned position

    • C. 

      Training needed to to qualify intelligence personnel to perform intelligence duties with regard to a specific AFSC

    • D. 

      Training needed to qualify intelligence personnel to perform specific missions with regards to their respective MAJCOM

  • 140. 
    What is needed for intelligence personnel to maintain their proficiency at their assigned qualification and exceeds the minimum upgrade requirements?
    • A. 

      Advanced Training

    • B. 

      External Training

    • C. 

      Continuation Training

    • D. 

      Initial Training

  • 141. 
    What is the correct order for Enlisted Skill Level Upgrade Training?
    • A. 

      3 Level (Apprentice), 5 Level (Journeyman), 9 Level (Superintendent), 7 Level (Craftsman)

    • B. 

      5 Level, 7 Level, 9 Level, 3 Level

    • C. 

      3 Level, 5 Level, 7 Level, 9 Level

    • D. 

      9 Level, 7 Level, 5 Level, 3 Level

  • 142. 
    What is a comprehensive core training document that identifies life-cycle education and training requirements, training support resources, and minimum core task requirements for a specialty?
    • A. 

      JQS

    • B. 

      MQT

    • C. 

      AF Form 623

    • D. 

      CFETP

  • 143. 
    What is the standard folder used as a training record that reflects past and current qualifications, and is used to determine training requirements? Additionally, what is used to document an individual's training progression?
    • A. 

      AF Form 623A, AF Form 623

    • B. 

      AF Form 623, AF Form 797

    • C. 

      AF Form 623, AF Form 623A

    • D. 

      AF Form 797, AF Form 623A

  • 144. 
    Which is not a description of the AEF Construct?
    • A. 

      Used by Combatant Commanders to obtain forces not already assigned or available in order to accomplish an assigned mission

    • B. 

      A force generation construct that allows the AF to prepare and present forces/capabilities to Combatant Commanders globally

    • C. 

      Designed to be predictable, transparent, and equitable

    • D. 

      Allows home stations to reconstitute forces so the capability can be provided on a sustained basis

  • 145. 
    What is described by the following: 1) Aligns functional capabilities with deploy-to-dwell ratios 2) Aligns AEF battle rhythms and provides increased predictability of vulnerability periods 3) Airmen are vulnerable for deployment and are deployed based on the need for their capabilities by Combatant Commanders 4) Airmen will not deploy for longer periods or for more often than their capabilities are required
    • A. 

      AEF

    • B. 

      Tempo Taskings

    • C. 

      RFF

    • D. 

      Tempo Bands

  • 146. 
    Who approves the recommended sourcing solution for a Request for Forces (RFF)?
    • A. 

      President

    • B. 

      Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff

    • C. 

      Secretary of Defense

    • D. 

      Secretary of the Air Force

  • 147. 
    What provides Airmen the ability to shoot, move, and communicate to survive in hostile "outside the wire" environments?
    • A. 

      CAST

    • B. 

      ST

    • C. 

      CST

    • D. 

      SST

  • 148. 
    What provides Airmen training on skills that are not traditionally USAF tasks?
    • A. 

      ST

    • B. 

      CST

    • C. 

      CAST

    • D. 

      SST

  • 149. 
    What is not a category of the Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET)
    • A. 

      In-Lieu-Of

    • B. 

      Ad-Hoc

    • C. 

      Operational Support

    • D. 

      Joint Force/Capability Solution

  • 150. 
    What is described by the following: 1) Supporting operations 24/7 worldwide from an individuals home station 2) Provides continuity for a CONUS unit by maintaining specially trained personnel for critical duty positions 3) An individual at a CONUS base providing live ISR support for another unit in a deployed location overseas 4) When the mission is complete, the Airmen are able to leave their duty position and go home at the end of the day
    • A. 

      Deployment

    • B. 

      Re-Deployment

    • C. 

      TDY

    • D. 

      Deployed in-place Operations