1.
When processing Air Mobility Command (AMC) mission capability (MICAP)/very, very important parts (VVIP)/forward supply system (FSS) shipments, how must the cargo be stored to allow for ready identification and expeditious movement of the material?
Correct Answer
B. Segregated from other cargo in the terminal.
Explanation
The cargo must be segregated from other cargo in the terminal to allow for ready identification and expeditious movement of the material.
2.
Air Mobility Command (AMC) mission capability (MICAP)/very, very important parts (VVIP)/forward supply system (FSS) shipments are transferred on a hand-receipt basis using
Correct Answer
A. Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES) or manually produced cargo manifests.
Explanation
Air Mobility Command (AMC) mission capability (MICAP)/very, very important parts (VVIP)/forward supply system (FSS) shipments can be transferred using either the Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES) or manually produced cargo manifests. Both methods serve as a way to track and document the transfer of these important shipments. The use of GATES allows for electronic tracking and management of the shipments, while manually produced cargo manifests involve creating a physical document to track the transfer. Either method can be used depending on the preference and capabilities of the organization handling the shipments.
3.
When using category B passenger missions to move Air Mobility Command (AMC) mission capability (MICAP)/very, very important parts (VVIP)/forward supply system (FSS) shipments, the shipment must fit into the baggage compartment and not exceed
Correct Answer
B. 100 pounds.
Explanation
When using category B passenger missions to move Air Mobility Command (AMC) mission capability (MICAP)/very, very important parts (VVIP)/forward supply system (FSS) shipments, the shipment must fit into the baggage compartment and not exceed 100 pounds.
4.
When processing an originating Air Mobility Command (AMC) Mission Capability
(MICAP)/very, very important parts (VVIP)/Forward Supply System (FSS) shipment, which form do you use to control and monitor each shipment?
Correct Answer
A. Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 36, Originating AMC MICAP/VVIP Control Log.
Explanation
The correct form to use when processing an originating AMC MICAP/VVIP/FSS shipment is Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 36, Originating AMC MICAP/VVIP Control Log. This form is specifically designed to control and monitor each shipment for the Air Mobility Command.
5.
Who does the Air Clearance Authority (ACA) at Ramstein AB, Germany, notify after a green sheet request is submitted?
Correct Answer
D. Load planning.
Explanation
After a green sheet request is submitted, the Air Clearance Authority (ACA) at Ramstein AB, Germany, notifies the Load Planning department. This department is responsible for planning the loading of cargo onto aircraft and ensuring that it is done safely and efficiently. They would need to be informed of the green sheet request in order to coordinate and prioritize the loading of the requested cargo.
6.
Who does the Air Clearance Authority (ACA) at Travis AFB, California, notify after a green sheet request is submitted?
Correct Answer
B. Customer Service Branch (CSB).
Explanation
After a green sheet request is submitted, the Air Clearance Authority (ACA) at Travis AFB, California, notifies the Customer Service Branch (CSB).
7.
You have received and signed an Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 101, Green Sheet Request. What is entered into the Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES) in the prime Transportation Control Movement Document (TCMD) record and trailer data to show the shipment as green sheet?
Correct Answer
D. A “G” in the special priority field and the phrase “Green sheet as of [the Greenwich Meantime hour
and date the request was received] only.
Explanation
The correct answer is a “G” in the special priority field and the phrase “Green sheet as of [the Greenwich Meantime hour and date the request was received] only. This is because the special priority field is used to indicate the priority level of the shipment, and "G" specifically denotes a green sheet shipment. Additionally, the phrase "Green sheet as of [the Greenwich Meantime hour and date the request was received] only" is entered to indicate that the shipment is a green sheet and to specify the exact time and date when the request was received.
8.
When processing palletized green sheet cargo using manual procedures, what two documents must you annotate to ensure that the shipment is properly identified?
Correct Answer
A. Department of Defense (DD) Form 1384, Transportation Control and Movement Document, and
the DD Form 2775, Pallet Identifier.
Explanation
When processing palletized green sheet cargo using manual procedures, the two documents that must be annotated to ensure that the shipment is properly identified are the Department of Defense (DD) Form 1384, Transportation Control and Movement Document, and the DD Form 2775, Pallet Identifier. These documents provide important information about the cargo and help in tracking and identifying the shipment accurately.
9.
If you do not have enough airlift to move all green sheet cargo on hand for a particular destination, how do you move the remaining cargo and who must you notify?
Correct Answer
C. In the sequence in which it was green sheeted by each specific service; notify the TACC.
Explanation
If there is not enough airlift to move all the green sheet cargo for a particular destination, the remaining cargo should be moved in the sequence in which it was green sheeted by each specific service. The Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC) must be notified in this case.
10.
When processing purple sheet cargo, if the shipment is not transportation priority one with an expedited handling indicator of “999,” what do you enter into the appropriate fields in the Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES)?
Correct Answer
B. TP1; “999.”
Explanation
When processing purple sheet cargo that is not transportation priority one with an expedited handling indicator of "999," you enter TP1; "999." into the appropriate fields in the Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES).
11.
While you are processing and inspecting the DD Form 1387-2, Special Handling Data/Certification, for a classified shipment, if none of the information entered in the blocks of the form is classified, the shipper completes how many total copies of the form?
Correct Answer
D. Four.
Explanation
If none of the information entered in the blocks of the form is classified, the shipper completes four total copies of the form.
12.
When a classified shipment arrives damaged or improperly documented, packaged, marked, or labeled at an originating station, you refuse the shipment unless
Correct Answer
A. It arrives by commercial conveyance.
Explanation
When a classified shipment arrives damaged or improperly documented, packaged, marked, or labeled at an originating station, you refuse the shipment unless it arrives by commercial conveyance. This means that if the shipment arrives by any other means, such as military or government transport, it may not be refused and must be accepted regardless of its condition or documentation.
13.
Security and classified shipments must be inventoried and accountability transferred using an Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 214, Security Cage Log, or equivalent. This action is required
Correct Answer
B. At the closest shift change to 0001 hours local time each day.
Explanation
Security and classified shipments must be inventoried and accountability transferred using an Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 214, Security Cage Log, or equivalent. This action is required each time a shipment is placed in or removed from the storage facility. The closest shift change to 0001 hours local time each day ensures that the inventory and accountability of the shipments are maintained regularly and consistently. This timing allows for proper tracking and security measures to be in place for the shipments.
14.
When processing Defense Courier Service (DCS) material, the DCS representative’s first choice to escort the material in the absence of a dedicated courier is
Correct Answer
A. A space-required passenger selected from a printed copy of the list of eligible passengers.
Explanation
The DCS representative's first choice to escort the material in the absence of a dedicated courier is a space-required passenger selected from a printed copy of the list of eligible passengers. This means that if there is no dedicated courier available, the DCS representative will choose a passenger who has a requirement to travel on the same flight and is listed as eligible on the printed copy.
15.
What must you place inside the container for use at the destination station before sealing a container of registered mail?
Correct Answer
B. Content listing.
Explanation
Before sealing a container of registered mail for use at the destination station, you must place a content listing inside the container. This listing provides a detailed record of the items contained in the container, ensuring that the recipient knows what is inside and can verify its contents upon arrival.
16.
After you have containerized registered mail shipments into one box, what is the first step in sealing the container?
Correct Answer
D. Tape the container shut and prominently annotate the boxcar seal number, as well as both
individuals’ signatures, across the tape.
Explanation
The first step in sealing the container after containerizing registered mail shipments is to tape the container shut and prominently annotate the boxcar seal number, as well as both individuals' signatures, across the tape. This ensures that the container is securely sealed and provides a clear record of who sealed it and the seal number for tracking purposes.
17.
What must you do before aircraft departure if an aircrew member notices a discrepancy with a registration number on a registered mail shipment?
Correct Answer
A. Correct it and generate a new manifest.
Explanation
Before aircraft departure, if an aircrew member notices a discrepancy with a registration number on a registered mail shipment, they must correct it and generate a new manifest. This ensures that the correct information is recorded and that the shipment is properly accounted for.
18.
Before transferring custody of registered mail on a terminating mission, you and the aircrew member will
Correct Answer
A. Inspect the container to verify the contents.
Explanation
The correct answer is to inspect the container to verify the contents. This is important to ensure that the registered mail is being transferred correctly and that the contents match what is documented. By inspecting the container, you can confirm that the items are secure and in the proper condition for transfer. This step helps to maintain accountability and prevent any potential issues or discrepancies during the custody transfer process.
19.
You are receipting for a terminating registered mail shipment and the manifested transportation control number (TCN) does not match the TCN on the shipment. What is your next step after annotating the manifested TCN as a short shipment and listing the correct TCN at the bottom of the manifest as an over shipment?
Correct Answer
C. Annotate all copies of the manifest with a statement describing the discrepancy; then you and the
crew member both sign the statement to confirm the discrepancy.
Explanation
After annotating the manifested TCN as a short shipment and listing the correct TCN at the bottom of the manifest as an over shipment, the next step is to annotate all copies of the manifest with a statement describing the discrepancy. Both you and the crew member should then sign the statement to confirm the discrepancy.
20.
What should you do if human remains are not embalmed and refrigeration is not available?
Correct Answer
D. Contact Mortuary Affairs.
Explanation
If human remains are not embalmed and refrigeration is not available, the appropriate action to take is to contact Mortuary Affairs. Mortuary Affairs is responsible for handling and managing deceased individuals, including the proper storage and transportation of remains. They will be able to provide guidance and assistance in this situation to ensure that the remains are handled in a respectful and appropriate manner.
21.
Where are human remains loaded when considering the possibility that cargo jettisoning may occur?
Correct Answer
B. In the forward-most available level cargo position.
Explanation
Human remains are loaded in the forward-most available level cargo position when considering the possibility of cargo jettisoning. This means that the remains are placed in the cargo area closest to the front of the aircraft. This is done to ensure that in the event of cargo jettisoning, the remains are not at risk of being jettisoned along with the cargo. Placing the remains in the forward-most position helps to ensure their safety and prevents any potential mishaps during the flight.
22.
When must you review the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 106, Biologicals/Reicing/Refrigeration Log, to ensure that perishable shipment reicing is accomplished as necessary?
Correct Answer
D. At the beginning of each shift.
Explanation
At the beginning of each shift, reviewing the AMC Form 106 is necessary to ensure that perishable shipment reicing is accomplished as required. This ensures that the perishable items are properly stored and maintained at the correct temperature throughout the shift, minimizing the risk of spoilage or damage. Regular review of the form allows for timely action to be taken if any issues or discrepancies are identified, ensuring the safe and effective transportation of perishable items.
23.
When can you open a diagnostic specimen shipment to reice it?
Correct Answer
C. When closing instructions are provided with the shipment.
Explanation
You can only open a diagnostic specimen shipment to receive it when closing instructions are provided with the shipment. This indicates that there are specific guidelines or procedures that need to be followed when handling the specimen. Without these instructions, it is not safe or appropriate to open the shipment.
24.
As a member of the special handling section, you’re handed a piece of unclassified cargo identified as nuclear weapons related material (NWRM). This cargo is treated as
Correct Answer
C. Classified, protected cargo.
Explanation
The correct answer is "classified, protected cargo" because the cargo is identified as nuclear weapons related material (NWRM), which indicates that it contains sensitive and classified information. Additionally, being a member of the special handling section suggests that you are responsible for handling and protecting classified materials.
25.
“Assemblies and subassemblies identified by the military departments that comprise or could comprise a standardized war reserve nuclear weapon as it would exist once separated/removed from its intended delivery vehicle” is the Office of Secretary of Defense definition of what type of material?
Correct Answer
D. Nuclear Weapons-Related Material.
Explanation
The correct answer is "Nuclear Weapons-Related Material." This is because the definition provided by the Office of Secretary of Defense states that it refers to assemblies and subassemblies that make up or could make up a standardized war reserve nuclear weapon once separated from its intended delivery vehicle. This definition specifically relates to materials that are directly related to nuclear weapons.
26.
In addition to individuals who are required by function to handle Nuclear Weapons-Related Material (NWRM), what percentage of authorized aerial port personnel must be appointed in writing and must complete the NWRM fundamentals course annually?
Correct Answer
A. 5%.
Explanation
According to the given information, only a percentage of authorized aerial port personnel need to be appointed in writing and complete the NWRM fundamentals course annually. The percentage mentioned is 5%.
27.
During engine running on/off-load (ERO) operations, the aircraft engines must be in what mode before load team members approach the aircraft?
Correct Answer
C. Low speed ground idle or reverse thrust only.
Explanation
During engine running on/off-load (ERO) operations, the aircraft engines must be in low speed ground idle or reverse thrust mode before load team members approach the aircraft. This is because these modes ensure that the engines are running at a safe speed and are not producing excessive forward thrust, which could pose a danger to the load team members.
28.
During engine running on/off-load (ERO) operations, after being signaled by an aircrew member, load team members use a route that takes them
Correct Answer
A. Perpendicular to the aircraft fuselage until they reach the aircraft centerline.
Explanation
During engine running on/off-load (ERO) operations, the load team members are instructed to use a route that takes them perpendicular to the aircraft fuselage until they reach the aircraft centerline. This is done after being signaled by an aircrew member. This route ensures that the load team members approach the aircraft in a safe and efficient manner, allowing them to properly assist the loadmaster in lowering the ramp. By moving perpendicular to the fuselage, they can easily access the centerline of the aircraft, which is the most direct and shortest route to reach the aircraft.
29.
During engine running on/off-load (ERO) operations, who must you coordinate with before off-loading passengers through the crew entrance door?
Correct Answer
B. Aircraft commander, command post, and ERO functional areas only.
Explanation
During engine running on/off-load (ERO) operations, it is necessary to coordinate with the aircraft commander, command post, and ERO functional areas. These individuals and departments play a crucial role in ensuring the safety and efficiency of the off-loading process. The aircraft commander has overall authority and responsibility for the aircraft and its operations, while the command post serves as a central communication hub for coordinating and managing airfield activities. The ERO functional areas are specifically involved in the on/off-loading operations and have the necessary expertise and resources to support this process effectively.
30.
Before entering an area where concurrent servicing operations are already in progress, you must report to the
Correct Answer
B. Concurrent servicing supervisor (CSS).
Explanation
Before entering an area where concurrent servicing operations are already in progress, it is necessary to report to the concurrent servicing supervisor (CSS). This is important to ensure coordination and safety among different servicing operations happening simultaneously. The CSS is responsible for overseeing and managing the concurrent servicing operations and can provide guidance and instructions to personnel entering the area.
31.
During concurrent servicing operations, what action must you take if a spark occurs when you first ground yourself?
Correct Answer
A. Reground yourself periodically during operations.
Explanation
When a spark occurs when you first ground yourself, it indicates a buildup of static electricity. To prevent any potential damage or harm, it is important to reground yourself periodically during operations. This helps to dissipate the static electricity and reduce the risk of a spark occurring again. By regrounding yourself, you are ensuring that you maintain a safe and static-free environment while working.
32.
During concurrent servicing operations, passengers can enter or exit the aircraft only if
Correct Answer
A. A jet way or stairs are used and refueling operations are on the other side of the aircraft.
Explanation
Passengers can enter or exit the aircraft only if a jet way or stairs are used and refueling operations are on the other side of the aircraft. This means that during concurrent servicing operations, when both passengers are boarding or disembarking and refueling is taking place, it is important to ensure that the jet way or stairs are used for passenger access and that refueling operations are conducted on the opposite side of the aircraft. This is done to ensure the safety of the passengers and to prevent any potential hazards or accidents that may occur during refueling.
33.
A passenger is considered a deportee when she or he
Correct Answer
B. Fails to meet border clearance requirements and is refused entry into the country.
Explanation
A passenger is considered a deportee when they fail to meet border clearance requirements and are refused entry into the country. This means that they have been denied entry by immigration authorities due to not meeting the necessary criteria for entry, such as having the proper visa or documentation. As a result, they are considered deportees and may be required to return to their country of origin.
34.
If a distinguished visitor (DV) requests honors while traveling, which DV honors code do you use?
Correct Answer
A. H.
Explanation
The correct answer is H. When a distinguished visitor (DV) requests honors while traveling, the DV honors code used is H.
35.
If a distinguished visitor (DV) requests no honors while traveling, but requests transportation, which DV honors code do you use?
Correct Answer
D. T.
Explanation
When a distinguished visitor (DV) requests no honors but still requires transportation, the appropriate DV honors code to use is "T." This code indicates that the DV should receive transportation services without any additional honors or ceremonies.
36.
If a distinguished visitor (DV) requests no honors while traveling, but requests quarters only, which DV honors code do you use?
Correct Answer
C. Q.
Explanation
When a distinguished visitor (DV) requests no honors while traveling but requests quarters only, the DV honors code that should be used is Q. This means that the visitor does not want any formal honors or ceremonies, but only requires accommodations or quarters for their stay.
37.
Which feature on some organic aircraft allows a large-bodied passenger to use standard seat belts?
Correct Answer
A. Side-wall seats designed to carry fully-equipped paratroopers.
Explanation
Side-wall seats designed to carry fully-equipped paratroopers are able to accommodate large-bodied passengers using standard seat belts because they are specifically designed to be sturdy and secure. These seats are built to withstand the weight and movement of fully-equipped paratroopers during flight, so they are able to safely restrain larger passengers as well. The seat belts on these seats are likely to be reinforced and adjustable, allowing for a comfortable and secure fit for passengers of various sizes.
38.
What must a female passenger who is less than 6 weeks postpartum present to passenger agents in order to travel?
Correct Answer
C. A medical officer or civilian equivalent’s certification that she is medically sound.
Explanation
A female passenger who is less than 6 weeks postpartum must present a medical officer or civilian equivalent's certification that she is medically sound in order to travel. This certification ensures that the passenger is in good health and fit to travel after giving birth.
39.
Which unique passenger would cause transportation working capital fund (TWCF) cargo to be downloaded up to two hours prior to aircraft block time?
Correct Answer
B. Mission route support (MRS).
Explanation
Mission route support (MRS) is the unique passenger that would cause transportation working capital fund (TWCF) cargo to be downloaded up to two hours prior to aircraft block time. This means that when MRS is on board, the cargo needs to be unloaded earlier than usual to accommodate their presence. The other options, Phoenix Raven (PR), Defense Courier Service (DCS), and Air Mobility Command (AMC) mobility mission observers (MMO), do not have this requirement.
40.
If a mission essential ground personnel (MEGP) passenger notifies the Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC) within three hours of aircraft departure, then he/she
Correct Answer
D. Is normally not added to the mission if it will adversely impact already-manifested passengers.
Explanation
If a mission essential ground personnel (MEGP) passenger notifies the Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC) within three hours of aircraft departure, they are normally not added to the mission if it will adversely impact already-manifested passengers. This means that if adding the MEGP passenger will negatively affect the passengers who are already scheduled to be on the flight, they will not be added.
41.
If a customer has a problem, what is the most important thing you can do to provide great customer service?
Correct Answer
B. Listen.
Explanation
Listening is the most important thing you can do to provide great customer service because it shows that you care about the customer's problem and are willing to understand their needs. By actively listening, you can gather important information and address the customer's concerns effectively.
42.
In which two ways can you build rapport with your customers?
Correct Answer
A. Listening and asking good questions.
Explanation
Building rapport with customers can be achieved by actively listening to them and asking good questions. Listening allows you to understand their needs, concerns, and preferences, showing that you value their input. Asking good questions helps to engage customers in meaningful conversations, allowing you to gather more information and demonstrate your interest in their satisfaction. By combining these two approaches, you can establish a strong connection with customers, enhance their trust in you, and ultimately improve the overall customer experience.
43.
Once you receive the mission load report (MLR) from the previous station, your next step is to
Correct Answer
C. Determine how much traffic requires download and how much is continuing on the aircraft.
Explanation
This answer is correct because after receiving the mission load report (MLR) from the previous station, the next step would be to determine how much traffic requires download and how much is continuing on the aircraft. This step is important in order to properly manage the cargo and passengers on the aircraft and ensure that everything is accounted for during the mission.
44.
When accomplishing a departure mission load report (MLR), you forward the report to the downline stations after the
Correct Answer
B. Senior controller approves it, but no later than 30 minutes after mission departure.
Explanation
The correct answer is that the senior controller approves the departure mission load report, but no later than 30 minutes after mission departure. This means that the report must be forwarded to the downline stations within this time frame.
45.
You are accomplishing a departure mission load report (MLR) without the Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES). What document does the load information come from?
Correct Answer
C. AF Form 4080, Load Plan Sequence/Breakdown Worksheet.
Explanation
The load information for the departure mission load report (MLR) without GATES comes from the AF Form 4080, Load Plan Sequence/Breakdown Worksheet.
46.
When accomplishing a departure mission load report (MLR), when the cargo breakdown section includes rolling stock and multipallet trains, what other information about those items is included?
Correct Answer
C. The fuselage station on the aircraft where the item starts and stops.
Explanation
The correct answer is the fuselage station on the aircraft where the item starts and stops. This information is included in the cargo breakdown section of the departure mission load report (MLR) for rolling stock and multipallet trains. This helps in determining the location of these items on the aircraft during loading and unloading.
47.
When accomplishing a departure mission load report (MLR) with human remains cargo on board, which of the following answers best represents the information that must be included in the report and in which section the information is placed.
Correct Answer
A. SSgt Jim Jones/USAF/Dover AFB Mortuary Affairs; special interest cargo section.
Explanation
The correct answer is SSgt Jim Jones/USAF/Dover AFB Mortuary Affairs; special interest cargo section. This answer includes the name and affiliation of the person responsible for the report (SSgt Jim Jones/USAF/Dover AFB Mortuary Affairs) and specifies that the cargo being transported is human remains. The special interest cargo section is the appropriate section to include this information.
48.
When completing the inbound side of the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 77, Aircraft Ground Handling Record, what do you enter into the Location block for Air Mobility Command Mission Capable (AMC MICAP) shipments?
Correct Answer
D. The location of the aircraft for which the AMC MICAP is destined.
Explanation
When completing the inbound side of the AMC Form 77 for AMC MICAP shipments, you enter the location of the aircraft for which the shipment is destined. This is important information for tracking and ensuring that the shipment is properly delivered to the correct aircraft.
49.
When completing the inbound side of the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 77, Aircraft Ground Handling Record, in the Explosives block for cargo/mail data off-load you enter the total
Correct Answer
A. Weight of explosives off-loaded at your station.
Explanation
The correct answer is "weight of explosives off-loaded at your station." This is because when completing the inbound side of the AMC Form 77, you need to enter the total weight of explosives that have been off-loaded at your station. The other options mentioned are either incorrect or not relevant to this specific scenario.
50.
When completing the outbound side of the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 77, Aircraft Ground Handling Record, you enter in the Loadmaster Scheduled Show block the loadmaster/boom operator scheduled show time
Correct Answer
D. And the initials of the command post and ATOC representatives passing/receiving the information
only.
Explanation
The correct answer is "and the initials of the command post and ATOC representatives passing/receiving the information only." This means that when completing the outbound side of the AMC Form 77, you should enter the initials of both the command post and ATOC representatives who are responsible for passing and receiving the information regarding the loadmaster/boom operator scheduled show time.