3D156 Volume 1

125 Questions | Total Attempts: 42

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Volume Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    • A. 

      AFI 36-2101, Air Force Training Program

    • B. 

      AFI 36-2108, Airman Classification System

    • C. 

      AFI 21-116, Communications Maintenance Functions

    • D. 

      3D1X6 Carerr Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)

  • 2. 
    • A. 

      Inflammables

    • B. 

      Electrolytes

    • C. 

      Corrosives

    • D. 

      Irritants

  • 3. 
    General purpose detergents (spray and wipe) used in most work centers are
    • A. 

      Corrosive

    • B. 

      Eye irritants

    • C. 

      Skin irritants

    • D. 

      Respiratory irritants

  • 4. 
    • A. 

      Cooling

    • B. 

      Heating

    • C. 

      Irritation

    • D. 

      Cell damage

  • 5. 
    Being distracted from a task while thinking of personal problems is an example of which type of human hazard factor?
    • A. 

      Emotional

    • B. 

      Domestic

    • C. 

      Physical

    • D. 

      Mental

  • 6. 
    • A. 

      Nearest engineering and installation element

    • B. 

      Work center supervisor

    • C. 

      Unit commander

    • D. 

      Wing safety

  • 7. 
    In which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health Standard (AFOSHSTD) will you find guidance on proper inspection, maintenace, and use of the pesonal fall arrest system (PFAS)?
    • A. 

      91-31, Personal Protective Equipment

    • B. 

      91-50, Communications Cable, Antenna, and Communications Electronics Systems

    • C. 

      91-100, Aircraft Flight Line - Ground Operations and Activities

    • D. 

      91-501, Air Force COnsolidated Occupational Safety Standard

  • 8. 
    Some of the common elements of a fixed base are fixed
    • A. 

      Navigation systems and a temporary control tower

    • B. 

      Navigation systems, heli pad, and a permanent control tower

    • C. 

      Navigation systems, weather systems, and a permanent control tower

    • D. 

      Navigation systems, weather systems, passenger services terminal, and permanent control tower

  • 9. 
    • A. 

      Performing the responsibilites as prescribed in the unit type code (UTC)

    • B. 

      Performing the tasks of an airfield system technician

    • C. 

      Being flexible and able to adapt to your surroundings

    • D. 

      Being flexible and maintaining good health

  • 10. 
    When modulating the signal and carrier signal are combined within a modulator, the output signal contains
    • A. 

      Modulating signal, upper sideband, lower sideband

    • B. 

      Carrier, upper sideband, and lower sideband

    • C. 

      Upper sideband and modulating signal

    • D. 

      Carrier and modulating signal

  • 11. 
    If a carrier frequency of 1 MHz and a modulating tone of 10 kHz goes to the modulator, the output signals include
    • A. 

      1.01 MHz, 1 MHz, and 0.99 MHz

    • B. 

      1.1 MHz, 1 MHz, and 0.9 MHz

    • C. 

      1.11 MHz, 1 MHz, and 0.99 MHz

    • D. 

      1.111 MHz, 1 MHz, 0.999 MHz

  • 12. 
    Define bandwith in terms of radio frequency transmission
    • A. 

      The amount of data that can be carried from one point to another in a given period of time

    • B. 

      The amount of requency deviation divided by the frequency of the modulating signal

    • C. 

      The amount of change in the carrier frequency as a result of the modulation process

    • D. 

      The amount of space and the transmitted signal will occupy in the frequency spectrum

  • 13. 
    If the modulating audio signal is 10 kHz wide, what is the bandwidth of the transmitted amplitude modulated signal?
    • A. 

      5 kHz

    • B. 

      10 kHz

    • C. 

      15 kHz

    • D. 

      20 kHz

  • 14. 
    The bandwidth of an amplitude modulated signal is
    • A. 

      Two times the modulating signal

    • B. 

      The same as the modulating signal

    • C. 

      Determined by the modulation index

    • D. 

      Defined in terms of maximum amount of modulation

  • 15. 
    If an oscilloscope displays a modulation envelope having an Emax of 200 volts and an Emin of 20 volts, what is the modulation percentage?
    • A. 

      81.8

    • B. 

      85.8

    • C. 

      88

    • D. 

      122

  • 16. 
    Reducing modulation to less than 100 percent gives
    • A. 

      More total power

    • B. 

      A reduction in carrier power

    • C. 

      No reduction in carrier power

    • D. 

      A reduction in carrier and sideband power

  • 17. 
    The output of of the oscillator in a frequency modulation modulator increases in frequency with each
    • A. 

      Positive half cycle of the carrier

    • B. 

      Negative half cycle of the carrier

    • C. 

      Positive half cycle of the modulating signal

    • D. 

      Negative half cycle of the modulating signal

  • 18. 
    A 5 kHz modulating signal has enough peak voltage to cause a deviation of 15 kHz. What is the modulation index?
    • A. 

      5

    • B. 

      0.5

    • C. 

      0.3

    • D. 

      3

  • 19. 
    A narrow frequency band between adjacent stations to prevent frequency modulated sidebands from overlapping is called
    • A. 

      Space

    • B. 

      Guard band

    • C. 

      Buffer zone

    • D. 

      Prevention field

  • 20. 
    • A. 

      Phase

    • B. 

      Height

    • C. 

      Amplitude

    • D. 

      Frequency

  • 21. 
    In phase modulation, the carrier's
    • A. 

      Phase is shifted at the rate of the modulating signal

    • B. 

      Phase shifts below the rate of the modulating signal

    • C. 

      Amplitude is shifted at the rate of the modulating signal

    • D. 

      Amplitude is shifted with the phase of the modulating signal

  • 22. 
    In phase modulation, the amount of phase shift is
    • A. 

      Proportional to the frequency of the modulating signal

    • B. 

      Proportional to the amplitude of the modulating signal

    • C. 

      Inversely proportional to the frequency of the modulating signal

    • D. 

      Inversely proportional to the amplitude of the modulating signal

  • 23. 
    • A. 

      Descrete amplitudes are assigned to the sampling pulses

    • B. 

      A binary code number is assigned to the sample

    • C. 

      The quantizer limits the amplitude of the pulses

    • D. 

      The analog signal is band limited

  • 24. 
    • A. 

      Sampling

    • B. 

      Rectifying

    • C. 

      Oscillating

    • D. 

      Band limiting

  • 25. 
    • A. 

      Width

    • B. 

      Position

    • C. 

      Duration

    • D. 

      Amplitude

  • 26. 
    In asynchronous transmissions, what is used by the receiving device to veryify that the transmission was received correctly?
    • A. 

      Control bit

    • B. 

      Parity bit

    • C. 

      Start bit

    • D. 

      Stop bit

  • 27. 
    When using the veritcal redundancy check, the number of ones in a data bit pattern determines
    • A. 

      Parity

    • B. 

      Block check character

    • C. 

      Whether transmission is synchronous or asynchronous

    • D. 

      The American standard code for information interchange (ASCII)

  • 28. 
    When using the longitudinal redundancy check method of error correction, what does the receiver compare with the transmitter to ensure an accurate transmission of data?
    • A. 

      The checksum

    • B. 

      Block check character

    • C. 

      The sum of transmitted bits

    • D. 

      The American standard code for information interchange (ASCII) character set

  • 29. 
    • A. 

      Checksum and cyclic redundancy check

    • B. 

      Longitudinal redundancy check and checksum

    • C. 

      Cyclic redundancy check and vertical redundancy check

    • D. 

      Vertical redundancy check and longitudinal redundancy check

  • 30. 
    • A. 

      Checksum

    • B. 

      Block check character

    • C. 

      Cyclic redundacy check

    • D. 

      Vertical redundancy check

  • 31. 
    When using forward error control as a method of error correction, where does error correctoin take place?
    • A. 

      Receiving end

    • B. 

      In the oscillator

    • C. 

      Transmitting end

    • D. 

      In the primary buffers

  • 32. 
    • A. 

      112.000-149.950

    • B. 

      116.000-149.950

    • C. 

      220.000-399.950

    • D. 

      225.000-399.950

  • 33. 
    The power output in watts, into a 50 ohm resistive load, for the AN/GRT-21 and AN/GRT-22 Transmitters is
    • A. 

      8-12

    • B. 

      10-12.5

    • C. 

      10-15

    • D. 

      12-20

  • 34. 
    The AN/GRT-21 and AN/GRT-22 transmitters' percent of modulation tolerance for any sine qave frequency between 300 and 6,000 hz is
    • A. 

      85% +-5%

    • B. 

      90% +-5%

    • C. 

      90% +-10%

    • D. 

      100% +-10%

  • 35. 
    In the AN/GRT-21 and AN/GRT-22, what is the role of the clipper circuit in the buffer modulator A5 module?
    • A. 

      Suppress harmonics

    • B. 

      Prevent overmodulation

    • C. 

      Keep the audio at a constant 2.5 V level

    • D. 

      Ensure minimum distortion due to overdriving the amplifiers

  • 36. 
    In the AN/GRT-22 transmitter, what is the purpose of the E/L relay when operationg with the linear power amp (LPA) in the 50 watt mode?
    • A. 

      Bypass the LPA in the event of high voltage standing wave ratio (VSWR)

    • B. 

      Bypass the LPA in the even of overmodulation

    • C. 

      Bypass the antenna in the event of high VSWR

    • D. 

      Route the high current directly to the antenna

  • 37. 
    Comparing the AN/GRT-21 and the AN/GRT-22, why does the UHF multiplier module possess one more stage of amplification than the VHF multiplier?
    • A. 

      VHF verison has more power in the preamplification circuitry

    • B. 

      VHF multiplier is followed by a stronger power amplifier

    • C. 

      Filter/amplifier in the UHF radio is considerably weaker

    • D. 

      4th harmonic is weaker than the 2nd harmonic

  • 38. 
    In the A10 module of the AN/GRT-21, the purpose of the TUNE/OPERATE switch is to
    • A. 

      Tune the servo drive

    • B. 

      Energize the transmit/receive (T/R) relay

    • C. 

      Protect the tunable filter during tuning operation

    • D. 

      Protect the power supply during tuning operation

  • 39. 
    In the Control RF/Modulator A6 of the AN/GRT-21/22, what occurs if the 50 watt output decreases?
    • A. 

      The E/L relay energizes

    • B. 

      The AR1 increases its amplification and brings the output back up

    • C. 

      The increase at AR1's output causes the APC amplifier to conduct less

    • D. 

      The conduction of Q3 increases which cause a more positive APC voltage

  • 40. 
    In the Tuned Cavity (A7) of the LPA, C1 and C2 are tuned to pass what signal(s)?
    • A. 

      Operating frequency only

    • B. 

      Operating frequency and the 4th harmonic

    • C. 

      Operating frequency and the 2nd harmonic

    • D. 

      AC voltages required for tube operation

  • 41. 
    The LPA forward and reverse power sensor voltages are amplified and level shifted in the LPA A5 module for what purpose?
    • A. 

      To operate the T/R relay in the exciter

    • B. 

      To provide AGC

    • C. 

      To enable development of plate and screen voltages

    • D. 

      APC voltage development and VSWR detection

  • 42. 
    • A. 

      When we change frequencies, the IF changes by an amount equal to the change in the local oscillator frequency

    • B. 

      When we change frequencies, the IF does not change, local oscillator frequency does

    • C. 

      Changing the local oscillator frequency has no effect on our operating frequency

    • D. 

      In order to change the operating frequency, we must change the IF only

  • 43. 
    • A. 

      Intermediate frequency (IF) filter

    • B. 

      Audio detector

    • C. 

      Tunable filter

    • D. 

      Power supply

  • 44. 
    With an operating frequency of 150 MHz and an IF of 10.7 MHz, which of the following is a possible image frequency?
    • A. 

      21.4 MHz

    • B. 

      140.7 MHz

    • C. 

      160.14 MHz

    • D. 

      171.4 MHz

  • 45. 
    In an amplitude modulation (AM) receiver detector circuit, why is a nonlinear device necessary?
    • A. 

      Ensure only the proper IF signal is amplified

    • B. 

      Supply the desired sensitivity of the input circuitry

    • C. 

      Filter out an extraneous signals

    • D. 

      Cause heterodyning

  • 46. 
    In addition to sensitivity, what are the basic requirements for any type of demodulation?
    • A. 

      Nonlinearity, RF carrier signal, filtering, and conversion

    • B. 

      Nonlinerarity, RF carrier signal, and filtering

    • C. 

      Linearity, RF carrier signal, and filtering

    • D. 

      Nonlinearity

  • 47. 
    • A. 

      They are relatively complex devices

    • B. 

      They can nonly handle relatively small signals

    • C. 

      They give high fidelity detection for signals of sufficient amplitude

    • D. 

      They are relatively simple devices and provide a tremendous amount of power gain

  • 48. 
    • A. 

      680

    • B. 

      1,360

    • C. 

      7,000

    • D. 

      7,5000

  • 49. 
    The audio frequency response of AN/GRR-23/24 receivers from 300 to 3,000 Hz is
    • A. 

      Less than 10 decibels (dB)

    • B. 

      Not more than +1 dB and -2 dB

    • C. 

      Not more than +3 dB and -3 dB

    • D. 

      100 mW into a 600-ohm load

  • 50. 
    The AN/GRR-23/24 receivers max squelch sensitivity is
    • A. 

      Not greater than 3.0 micro-volts

    • B. 

      Greater than 3.0 micro-volts

    • C. 

      6 micro-volts

    • D. 

      50 micro-volts

  • 51. 
    In the AN/GRR-23, which module provides the function of pre-selection?
    • A. 

      The oscialltor synthesizer A1 module

    • B. 

      The antenna coupler A7 module

    • C. 

      The mixer multiplier A2 module

    • D. 

      The tunable filter FL2 module

  • 52. 
    • A. 

      Noise limiter A5

    • B. 

      Buffer amplifier A5

    • C. 

      Crystal pulse filter A3

    • D. 

      AGC/Squelch module A3

  • 53. 
    In the AN/GRR-24 mixer/multiplier (A2), what frequency is C12 tuned to pass?
    • A. 

      Intermediate frequency

    • B. 

      Only the fourth harmonic

    • C. 

      Oscillator input frequency

    • D. 

      Frequency of the AC power source

  • 54. 
    • A. 

      20 watts for both

    • B. 

      20 watts for AN/GRC-171 and 25 watts for AN/GRC-211

    • C. 

      20 watts for AN/GRC-211 and 25 watts for AN/GRC-171

    • D. 

      25 watts for both

  • 55. 
    Sidetone in a transceiver radio is
    • A. 

      A detected sample of the modulated RF output

    • B. 

      A detected sample of the AF output

    • C. 

      Used as a backup output

    • D. 

      Not used by the operator

  • 56. 
    • A. 

      There are separate receive and transmit audio amplifiers and filters

    • B. 

      The radio contains two oscillator synthesizers; one for transmit and one for receive

    • C. 

      The radio contains two power supplies; one for transmit circuits and one for receive circuits

    • D. 

      A REFLECTOMETER is used to monitor the RF power before the A8 module

  • 57. 
    • A. 

      No AC power is consumed

    • B. 

      The output power is 25 watts

    • C. 

      Both key lines are high

    • D. 

      Both key lines are low

  • 58. 
    • A. 

      A RF preamplifier

    • B. 

      Local frequency thumbwheels

    • C. 

      Front panel metering

    • D. 

      Radio set control

  • 59. 
    • A. 

      One switching regulator and several series regulators

    • B. 

      One series regulator and several switching regulators

    • C. 

      One switching regulator

    • D. 

      One series regulator

  • 60. 
    • A. 

      Tuned

    • B. 

      Tuning up

    • C. 

      Tuning down

    • D. 

      Completely disabled

  • 61. 
    • A. 

      Tuned

    • B. 

      Tuning up

    • C. 

      Tuning down

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 62. 
    On how many different channels can the RT-1319/URC transceiver operate?
    • A. 

      8,360

    • B. 

      5,040

    • C. 

      3,600

    • D. 

      1,440

  • 63. 
    • A. 

      90% +-5%

    • B. 

      90% +-7.5%

    • C. 

      87% +-7.5%

    • D. 

      87% +-5%

  • 64. 
    • A. 

      Modulator

    • B. 

      Guard receiver

    • C. 

      Data converter

    • D. 

      Frequency synthesizer

  • 65. 
    During RT-1319/URC receiver signal processing, through what do plain text audio signals pass just prior to entering the guard receiver for amplification?
    • A. 

      Low pass filter

    • B. 

      Detector circuit

    • C. 

      Squlech control circuit

    • D. 

      Series of pre-amplifier circuits

  • 66. 
    • A. 

      Modulator

    • B. 

      Synthersizer

    • C. 

      Transmitter

    • D. 

      Data converter

  • 67. 
    • A. 

      The radio shuts down

    • B. 

      Output power is reduced to two watts

    • C. 

      Output power is reduced to five watts

    • D. 

      The decimal point on the frequency display flashes

  • 68. 
    In a RT-1319/URC transceiver, how can you tell if the source voltage drops below +20 VDC?
    • A. 

      The radio shuts down

    • B. 

      Output defaults to 2 watt mode

    • C. 

      The decimal point on the frequency display flashes

    • D. 

      The display panel goes blank, but power indicator stays lit

  • 69. 
    Resistance of the conductor material in a transmission line leads to which type of loss?
    • A. 

      Copper

    • B. 

      Radiation

    • C. 

      Inductive

    • D. 

      Skin-effect

  • 70. 
    The amount of skin-effect loss is directly proportional to the
    • A. 

      Line length

    • B. 

      Signal frequency

    • C. 

      Amount of I2R loss

    • D. 

      Signal voltage level

  • 71. 
    Leakage loss in a transmission line can be minimized by using a
    • A. 

      Thinner conductor

    • B. 

      Thicker conductor

    • C. 

      Ver low resistance dielectric

    • D. 

      Very high resistance dielectric

  • 72. 
    • A. 

      Inductance and resistance

    • B. 

      Inductance and capacitance

    • C. 

      Resistance and capacitance

    • D. 

      Length and type of shielding

  • 73. 
    • A. 

      The frequency where XL becomes so low that the signal is shunted

    • B. 

      The frequency where XC causes the signal to be shunted

    • C. 

      The lowest frequency that the lnie can pass successfully

    • D. 

      The frquency at which standing waves are maximum

  • 74. 
    • A. 

      12 meters

    • B. 

      3 meters

    • C. 

      1.5 meters

    • D. 

      1.2 meters

  • 75. 
    • A. 

      Wavelength is inversely related to frequency

    • B. 

      Wavelength is directly related to frequency

    • C. 

      Wavelength is determined by length of line

    • D. 

      Wavelength is expressed in lambdas

  • 76. 
    • A. 

      8.33 meters

    • B. 

      8.33 wavelengths

    • C. 

      83.3 meters

    • D. 

      83.3 wavelengths

  • 77. 
    A nonresonant transmission line is a line
    • A. 

      Having reflected waves

    • B. 

      Having no reflected waves

    • C. 

      With maximum voltage across its open termination

    • D. 

      With maximum voltage across its shorted termination

  • 78. 
    When discussing transmission lines,
    • A. 

      Resonant lines are often referred to as flat lines

    • B. 

      Maximum power transfer results from a resonant line

    • C. 

      Maximum power transfer results from a nonresonant line

    • D. 

      Significant loss and damage to equipment will result from use of a nonresonant line

  • 79. 
    On a transmission line with an open termination, the wave is reflected back to the source and
    • A. 

      Signal loss would be negligible

    • B. 

      There would be significant signal loss

    • C. 

      The current would be at maximum at the termination

    • D. 

      The voltage would be at minimum at the termination

  • 80. 
    The purpose of a balun is to
    • A. 

      Enable us to weigh a transmission line

    • B. 

      Provide an impedance match between two antennas

    • C. 

      Allow multiple antennas to be connected to one receiver

    • D. 

      Provide an impedance match between transmission line and antenna

  • 81. 
    • A. 

      Scatter

    • B. 

      Reflection

    • C. 

      Frequency hopping

    • D. 

      Line of sight (LOS)

  • 82. 
    If an antenna's electric lines of force lie in a vertical direction, it can be said that the antenna is
    • A. 

      Vertically polarized

    • B. 

      Highly bi-directional

    • C. 

      Horizontally plarized

    • D. 

      Impervious to man made interference

  • 83. 
    • A. 

      AS-3472/G

    • B. 

      AT-197/GR

    • C. 

      AS-1181/UR

    • D. 

      AS-1097/GR

  • 84. 
    The antenna designed for use in the VHF band is the
    • A. 

      AS-3473/G

    • B. 

      AT-197/GR

    • C. 

      AS-1097/GR

    • D. 

      AS-1181/UR

  • 85. 
    The AS-1097/GR antenna is designed to ooperate using what band?
    • A. 

      VHF

    • B. 

      UHF

    • C. 

      HF

    • D. 

      VHF and UHF

  • 86. 
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Four

    • D. 

      Eight

  • 87. 
    • A. 

      It can interface radios operating on different frequency bands with one antenna

    • B. 

      It can interface multiple radios with multiple antennas in a single unit

    • C. 

      It can interface multiple radios with a single antenna

    • D. 

      Multicouplers all have auto tune functions

  • 88. 
    • A. 

      Circuit jacks

    • B. 

      Rotary switch

    • C. 

      Range push button

    • D. 

      Touch-hold button

  • 89. 
    • A. 

      Rotary switch

    • B. 

      Power up self test

    • C. 

      Range push button

    • D. 

      Touch hold push button

  • 90. 
    • A. 

      Microamps DC

    • B. 

      Miliamps/amps AC

    • C. 

      Milliamps/amps DC

    • D. 

      Microamps AC

  • 91. 
    When testing a diode with the FLuke 8025A, the lead across a good diode produces an OL (open) on the display in one direction while reversing the leads produces
    • A. 

      SL (short) on the display

    • B. 

      Continuous audible tone

    • C. 

      A wavering audible tone

    • D. 

      Three short beeps

  • 92. 
    • A. 

      Time/division (time/div)

    • B. 

      Second/division (sec/div)

    • C. 

      Time/centimeter (time/cm)

    • D. 

      Second/centimeter (sec/cm)

  • 93. 
    • A. 

      Current probe

    • B. 

      Passive 1:1 probe

    • C. 

      Passive divider, 1:10 probe

    • D. 

      Active field effect transistor probe

  • 94. 
    • A. 

      Current probe

    • B. 

      Passive 1:1 probe

    • C. 

      Active (FET) probe

    • D. 

      Passive divider, 10:1 probe

  • 95. 
    • A. 

      Current probe

    • B. 

      Passive 1:1 probe

    • C. 

      Active (FET) probe

    • D. 

      Passive divider, 10:1 probe

  • 96. 
    • A. 

      Oscilloscope

    • B. 

      Earth ground tester

    • C. 

      Frequency counter

    • D. 

      Spectrum analyzer

  • 97. 
    Resistance readings on the ground under test are plotted on a graph of
    • A. 

      Resistance versus distance

    • B. 

      Current versus distance

    • C. 

      Frequency versus time

    • D. 

      Amplitude versus time

  • 98. 
    • A. 

      Between the auxiliary potential electrode and the eath ground electrode

    • B. 

      Between the auxiliary current electrode and the earth ground electrode

    • C. 

      Between the auxiliary potential and auxiliary current electrodes

    • D. 

      Between the earth ground electrode and outer stake "Z"

  • 99. 
    A radio frequency generator is used to
    • A. 

      Monitor odd harmonics

    • B. 

      Align telemety receivers

    • C. 

      Modulate subcarrier oscillators

    • D. 

      Check galvanometer frequency response

  • 100. 
    A radio frequency generator is used to
    • A. 

      Monitor odd harmonics

    • B. 

      Align telemetry receivers

    • C. 

      Modulate subcarrier oscillators

    • D. 

      Check galvanometer frequency response

  • 101. 
    The 10:1 power ratio represented by 1 bel can also be represtented by how many decibels (dB)?
    • A. 

      1 dB

    • B. 

      3 dB

    • C. 

      6 dB

    • D. 

      10 dB

  • 102. 
    During what operation is the radio frequency blanking output used on the HP 436A power meter?
    • A. 

      While in WATT mode operation

    • B. 

      While in REMOTE mode operation

    • C. 

      During the automatic zeroing operation

    • D. 

      During calibration adjustment operation

  • 103. 
    Plug in elements of the wattmeter are selected based on the
    • A. 

      Selection of the autorange function

    • B. 

      Frequency and power to be measured

    • C. 

      1 mW standard and relative decibels

    • D. 

      Absolute and relative power levels to be measured

  • 104. 
    The user sets two switches on the front panel of the wattmeter to correspond to the
    • A. 

      Power range of the reverse element

    • B. 

      Power range of the forward element

    • C. 

      Frequency range of the forward element

    • D. 

      Frequency range of the reverse element

  • 105. 
    One of the most common mistakes when measuring line levels with the AM-48 Personal Transmission Test Set is
    • A. 

      Introducing AC noise into the circuit through the use of the AC adapter

    • B. 

      Having the speaker volume turned all the way down

    • C. 

      Incorrect slection of the terminate or bridge mode

    • D. 

      Reversing the polarity of the transmit pair

  • 106. 
    • A. 

      50 and 500 ohm

    • B. 

      50 and 500 ohm

    • C. 

      600 and 900 ohm

    • D. 

      600 and 10,000 ohm

  • 107. 
    • A. 

      Period

    • B. 

      Scaling

    • C. 

      Totalize

    • D. 

      Time interval

  • 108. 
    • A. 

      Peak-peak voltage

    • B. 

      Frequency stability

    • C. 

      Amplitude modulation

    • D. 

      Subcarrier oscillator outputs

  • 109. 
    The portable instrument landing system receiver (PIR) is powered by
    • A. 

      7.1 VAC

    • B. 

      7.1 VDC

    • C. 

      7.2 VAC

    • D. 

      7.2 VDC

  • 110. 
    • A. 

      +/- 3 degrees

    • B. 

      +/- 6 degrees

    • C. 

      +/- 180 degrees

    • D. 

      +/- 360 degrees

  • 111. 
    The maximum input voltage for a vector voltmeter should be limited to less than how many volts root mean square (VMRS)?
    • A. 

      1.5

    • B. 

      2.0

    • C. 

      2.5

    • D. 

      3.0

  • 112. 
    • A. 

      00-20-10, Air Force Test Equipment Procedures

    • B. 

      00-20-14, Air Force Metrology and Calibration Program

    • C. 

      00-25-236, Air Force Precision Measurement Equipment Laboratory Policies and Procedures

    • D. 

      00-25-234, General Shop Practice Requirements for the Repair, Maintenance, and Test of Electrical Equipment

  • 113. 
    For the ILS localizer, the area "B" surface roughness should not exceed
    • A. 

      +/- 0.5 ft

    • B. 

      +/- 1 ft

    • C. 

      +/- 2 ft

    • D. 

      +/- 3 ft

  • 114. 
    For the ILS glideslope, the area "B" surface roughness should not exceed
    • A. 

      +/- 0.5 ft

    • B. 

      +/- 1 ft

    • C. 

      +/- 2 ft

    • D. 

      +/- 3 ft

  • 115. 
    When siting navigational equipment, the area surrounding the localizer should be free of reflecting objects within a radius of
    • A. 

      200 ft

    • B. 

      500 ft

    • C. 

      1,000 ft

    • D. 

      2,500 ft

  • 116. 
    When siting navigation equpiment, the area in front of the glide slope must be free of reflecting objects within
    • A. 

      200 ft

    • B. 

      500 ft

    • C. 

      1,000 ft

    • D. 

      2,500 ft

  • 117. 
    Metallic fences, power lines, and control lines are not permitted within how many feet of a very high frequency omni directional and radio range (VOR) site?
    • A. 

      250 ft

    • B. 

      500 ft

    • C. 

      750 ft

    • D. 

      1,000 ft

  • 118. 
    • A. 

      Radar systems

    • B. 

      Spectum operations

    • C. 

      Cyber space systems

    • D. 

      Radio frequency transmisson systems

  • 119. 
    The pirmary users of the light gun are the
    • A. 

      Security forces

    • B. 

      Flight line drivers

    • C. 

      Air traffic controllers

    • D. 

      Radar approach controller

  • 120. 
    • A. 

      Nickel Cadmium

    • B. 

      Carbon zinc

    • C. 

      Lead-acid

    • D. 

      Lithium

  • 121. 
    • A. 

      Sag

    • B. 

      Spike

    • C. 

      Noise

    • D. 

      Blackout

  • 122. 
    • A. 

      Sag

    • B. 

      Spike

    • C. 

      Noise

    • D. 

      Blackout

  • 123. 
    • A. 

      Passive standby

    • B. 

      Line interactive

    • C. 

      Double conversion

    • D. 

      Ferror resonant standby

  • 124. 
    • A. 

      Passive standby

    • B. 

      Line interactive

    • C. 

      Double conversion

    • D. 

      Ferro resonant standby

  • 125. 
    • A. 

      Single phase power

    • B. 

      Double phase power

    • C. 

      Three phase power

    • D. 

      Four phase power