NHA Practice Exam

150 Questions | Total Attempts: 957

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NHA Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    A person diagnosed with dementia usually:
    • A. 

      Complains a lot

    • B. 

      Stresses failures

    • C. 

      Displays a loss of intellectual capacity

    • D. 

      Appears to be completely unconcerned

  • 2. 
    Gerontology is best defined as the study of the:
    • A. 

      Aging processes

    • B. 

      Psychology of aging

    • C. 

      Illnesses of the aged

    • D. 

      ADL levels of the aged

  • 3. 
    One of the current proposals regarding the developmentally disabled stresses changing the emphasis in active treatment to:
    • A. 

      One of choice

    • B. 

      Independent living

    • C. 

      Occupational therapy

    • D. 

      Acquiring social skills

  • 4. 
    The most important factor in the treatment and care of the developmentally disabled is:
    • A. 

      The process

    • B. 

      The end result

    • C. 

      Documentation

    • D. 

      Record keeping

  • 5. 
    A resident cannot be discharged or transferred if the:
    • A. 

      Resident contracts HIV

    • B. 

      Resident's needs cannot be met

    • C. 

      Resident's health has improved significantly

    • D. 

      Resident has failed to pay after reasonable notice

  • 6. 
    Assume that 150 doses of medication were prescribed by the resident's physician to be administered in a given time period.  However, 2 doses ordered were not given and 3 doses were incorrectly administered as prescribed.  What was the medication error rate?
    • A. 

      2.0 percent

    • B. 

      3.0 percent

    • C. 

      3.3 percent

    • D. 

      5.0 percent

  • 7. 
    It is standard operating procedure to:
    • A. 

      Monitor restraints every two hours

    • B. 

      Monitor restraints every 30 minutes

    • C. 

      Release patients from restraints every two hours and leave them out of the restraint for at least one hour

    • D. 

      Release patients from restraints every hour and leave them out of the restraint for at least 10 minutes

  • 8. 
    The director of nursing may serve as charge nurse only if the facility:
    • A. 

      Has applied for a waiver

    • B. 

      Is licensed for less than 100 beds

    • C. 

      Has an average daily occupancy of 60 residents or less

    • D. 

      Accepts only residents requiring minimal nursing services

  • 9. 
    The OBRA outcome-oriented survey is focused on the:
    • A. 

      Review of physical resources

    • B. 

      Quality of care actually provided

    • C. 

      Monitoring of management procedures

    • D. 

      Compliance with state and federal regulations

  • 10. 
    Mrs. Jones fell and fractured her hip while gardening in her back yard and was admitted to the local hospital.  She had been in very good health prior to the accident.  She was admitted to the local hospital and had surgery performed to repair the fracture.  During her stay in the hospital, her family determined that she may need to be admitted to the nursing facility for physical therapy with the expressed intent of having her discharged back to her home as soon as therapy was completed.  Upon her admission to the nursing home, the Director of Nurses was informed by her staff that Mrs. Jones was incontinent of bladder.  Which statement is true as related to the actions the DON must take?
    • A. 

      The family should be notified of this complication and asked that a month's worth of adult briefs be supplied for Mrs. Jones.

    • B. 

      A complete assessment should be done to determine the reason Mrs. Jones is incontinent and place her on a bladder-training program if appropriate.

    • C. 

      Make Mrs. Jones and/or her responsible party aware that the facility specializes in short-term rehabilitation and does not accept incontinent patients.

    • D. 

      The attending physician should be immediately contacted with a request that he/she come to the facility to perform a complete assessment to determine the reason Mrs. Jones has become incontinent.

  • 11. 
    • A. 

      The facility can prohibit all residents from smoking inside the building, but must provide them a climate controlled smoking area.

    • B. 

      The facility can prohibit all employees from smoking inside the building, but must allow them access to a climate-controlled smoking area on campus.

    • C. 

      The facility must allow those residents who lived in the facility prior to the implementation of the new polic to smoke in a designated, climate controlled area.

    • D. 

      The facility is not allowed to prohibit residents from smoking in designated areas in the nursing home as that right is protected under the Federal Resident Rights for Nursing Home Residents.

  • 12. 
    In most states, which of the following cannot be appointed as the agent under an advance directive?
    • A. 

      A Friend

    • B. 

      An attorney

    • C. 

      A family member

    • D. 

      The attending physician

  • 13. 
    The Patient Self-Determination Act should be:
    • A. 

      Enforced by the social service department.

    • B. 

      Discussed during the resident assessment.

    • C. 

      Mailed out annually to all residents and families.

    • D. 

      Given to the resident and family at the time of admission.

  • 14. 
    To be effective a resident council should:
    • A. 

      Be controlled by the administrator.

    • B. 

      Have the participation of residents and employees.

    • C. 

      Be given the opportunity to control the activities of the facility.

    • D. 

      Have continued support by the administration and the residents.

  • 15. 
    A curator, as used in civil law, equates to a:
    • A. 

      Payee.

    • B. 

      Guardian.

    • C. 

      Next of kin.

    • D. 

      Family member.

  • 16. 
    When a new resident is admitted, the social worker should help the family during the initial separation period by:
    • A. 

      Maintaining family contact regarding the resident's condition.

    • B. 

      Telling the family that the facility will handle the resident's condition.

    • C. 

      Advising the family not to visit until the resident has adjusted to the facility.

    • D. 

      Advising the family to have someone visit each day until the resident is adjusted.

  • 17. 
    Empathy may best be defined as the:
    • A. 

      Capacity to share the interests of another person.

    • B. 

      Process whereby one strives to be like another person.

    • C. 

      Unconscious conferring of undesirable traits or tendencies on another person.

    • D. 

      Ability to comprehend the meaning and relevance of the thoughts and feelings of another.

  • 18. 
    According to research studies, the most indispensable mineral found to be lacking in the diet of the elderly is:
    • A. 

      Iron.

    • B. 

      Sodium.

    • C. 

      Potassium.

    • D. 

      Magnesium.

  • 19. 
    To maximize the destruction of bacteria on dinnerware, the temperature of rinse water in dishwashers should be:
    • A. 

      110 degrees Fahrenheit

    • B. 

      140 degrees Fahrenheit

    • C. 

      160 degrees Fahrenheit

    • D. 

      180 degrees Fahrenheit

  • 20. 
    Proper food storage is very important.  Of the following problems listed, which is usually the most significant?
    • A. 

      Dented cans

    • B. 

      Temperature control

    • C. 

      Labeling of cans and leftovers

    • D. 

      Utensils left in large containers

  • 21. 
    An unplanned and/or undesired weight loss would be classified as significant if the percentage of loss during a six-month interval was:
    • A. 

      4 percent

    • B. 

      6 percent

    • C. 

      8 percent

    • D. 

      10 percent

  • 22. 
    The most common cause of food poisoning is:
    • A. 

      Infected food handlers.

    • B. 

      Communication with sick persons.

    • C. 

      Contamination of food by insects.

    • D. 

      Improper refrigeration of perishable foods.

  • 23. 
    Nursing personnel should encourage a resident to eat in the dining area unless the resident:
    • A. 

      Is incontinent.

    • B. 

      Cannot eat unassisted.

    • C. 

      Is confined to a wheelchair.

    • D. 

      Has been contraindicated to do so by physician's orders.

  • 24. 
    Who is responsible for implementation of the resident care policies in the facility?
    • A. 

      Medical Director

    • B. 

      Director of Nursing

    • C. 

      The assessment team

    • D. 

      Licensed Nursing Home Administrator

  • 25. 
    The physician must write, sign, and date progress notes:
    • A. 

      Each month

    • B. 

      At each visit.

    • C. 

      As deemed necessary.

    • D. 

      Monthly for the first 90 days.

  • 26. 
    The Social Security Act provides that a facility must have a written transfer agreement with one or more hospitals that are:
    • A. 

      Equipped with a CAT scan and a MRI.

    • B. 

      Withing a radius of 5 miles of the facility.

    • C. 

      Able to provide ambulance transportation.

    • D. 

      Approved for participation under both Medicare and Medicaid.

  • 27. 
    Under OBRA, the Quality Assessment and Assurance Committee is required to meet at least:
    • A. 

      Weekly.

    • B. 

      Monthly.

    • C. 

      Quarterly.

    • D. 

      Annually.

  • 28. 
    Under OBRA, the implementation of which of the following policies is not the responsibility of the medical director?
    • A. 

      Dietary

    • B. 

      Admission

    • C. 

      Personnel

    • D. 

      Infection Control

  • 29. 
    Carcinoma is the medical term for:
    • A. 

      Cancer.

    • B. 

      Cataracts.

    • C. 

      Liver spots.

    • D. 

      Heart disease.

  • 30. 
    The physician who is primarily involved with the causes and histories of diseases is:
    • A. 

      An internist.

    • B. 

      A pathologist.

    • C. 

      A geriatrician.

    • D. 

      A general practitioner.

  • 31. 
    Mr. Boudreaux is an 88-year old resident in the nursing facility.  He is cognitively intact, but has very poor posture and has a history of injuries due to falls.  As the nursing home has a restraint-free policy, what is the best course of action for this resident?
    • A. 

      Discharge the resident as his needs cannot be met without the use of physical restraints.

    • B. 

      Refer him to Rehabilitation Service so they can assess him for appropriate therapy as well as position devices.

    • C. 

      Request the family employ a private sitter to stay with Mr. Boudreaux during the day in order to reduce the chances of him falling and hurting himself.

    • D. 

      Assign the resident to restorative therapy to help him with ambulation issues and have him confined to a geri-chair with appropriate wedges to promote safety and proper posture.

  • 32. 
    Mr. Jones is a patient in St. Catherine's Nursing Home.  He is diagnosed with lung cancer and his physician orders a regimen of chemotherapy in an attempt to arrest the disease.  This type of therapy is considered:
    • A. 

      Pain therapy.

    • B. 

      Cytotoxic therapy.

    • C. 

      Oncological therapy.

    • D. 

      Physiological therapy.

  • 33. 
    The resident activity director has many roles and duties.  However, the first responsibility should be:
    • A. 

      Maintaining adequate records.

    • B. 

      Planning and organizing activity programs.

    • C. 

      Preparing care plans and writing progress notes.

    • D. 

      Completing the assessments and identifying the interests and needs of the residents.

  • 34. 
    Activity coordinators must plan, coordinate, and direct the resident activity programs and in addition:
    • A. 

      Supervise therapeutic programs.

    • B. 

      Record notes in the resident's medical record.

    • C. 

      Conduct the interdisciplinary assessment programs.

    • D. 

      Conduct in-service training programs for all employees.

  • 35. 
    A "remotivation" program as applied to the demented resident generally refers to a:
    • A. 

      Procedure used to recruit residents for group activities.

    • B. 

      Procedure used to encourage resident-staff cooperation.

    • C. 

      Program designed to stimulate the resident's interests in community affairs.

    • D. 

      Group therapy program designed to stimulate the resident's interest in the real world around him.

  • 36. 
    Care plans address activities that are appropriate for each resident based on the:
    • A. 

      Age and sex of the resident.

    • B. 

      Comprehensive assessment.

    • C. 

      Former life style of the resident.

    • D. 

      Recommendations of the nursing staff.

  • 37. 
    Which of the following would not usually be a primary interdisciplinary team member?
    • A. 

      Activity Director

    • B. 

      Rehabilitation Staff

    • C. 

      Nursing Facility Administrator

    • D. 

      Therapeutic Recreation Staff

  • 38. 
    A resident spends most of his time in his room alone and he has few interests except he watches the news on television.  Which of the following activity approaches would perhaps be the most beneficial?
    • A. 

      Take him on group walks in the community.

    • B. 

      Enroll him in male craft projects like building bird houses.

    • C. 

      Invite him to participate in current events including small group discussions.

    • D. 

      Suggest to the attending physician that antidepressant medication be considered.

  • 39. 
    According to Medicare and Medicaid requirements, upon an oral or written request, the resident shall have access to all records, including clinical records, pertaining to himself/herself within:
    • A. 

      24 hours

    • B. 

      48 hours

    • C. 

      3 days

    • D. 

      1 week

  • 40. 
    Medical records are also referred to as clinical records and are utilized by various members of the staff.  However, the person ultimately responsible for accurate and adequate medical records is the:
    • A. 

      Administrator

    • B. 

      Director of Nursing

    • C. 

      Attending Physician

    • D. 

      Medical Record Librarian

  • 41. 
    Medical records may be released by written permission of the resident and if required by any of the following except:
    • A. 

      A court order.

    • B. 

      An attorney at law.

    • C. 

      A third party contract including Medicare.

    • D. 

      Another nursing home to which the resident is being transferred.

  • 42. 
    In cases in which facilities have created the option for an individual's record to be maintained by computer rather than hard copy, which of the following is true?
    • A. 

      Electronic signatures are acceptable.

    • B. 

      Signatures are acceptable with appropriate safeguards.

    • C. 

      Electronic signatures are acceptable only for the medical staff.

    • D. 

      Signatures must be recorded both electronically and on a hard copy.

  • 43. 
    Te person designated as the clinical record clerk must be:
    • A. 

      Certified.

    • B. 

      Licensed.

    • C. 

      A consultant.

    • D. 

      A full-time staff member.

  • 44. 
    Abbreviations are used by nurses in completing charts and other medical records.  The abbreviation stat means:
    • A. 

      Status.

    • B. 

      Statistic.

    • C. 

      Continue.

    • D. 

      Immediately.

  • 45. 
    The 1987 OBRA regulation changed the role of the pharmacists in nursing facilities and greatly increased their responsibility.  Therefore, today the pharmacist must perform all of the following duties except:
    • A. 

      Destroy all unused prescriptions.

    • B. 

      Determine that drug records are in order.

    • C. 

      Conduct a review of each resident's drug regimen.

    • D. 

      Determine that an account of all controlled drugs is maintained and periodically reconciled.

  • 46. 
    If a resident wants to self-administer medication, who is responsible for drug storage and recording the self-administered doses?
    • A. 

      The resident.

    • B. 

      The nursing staff.

    • C. 

      A family member.

    • D. 

      The legal guardian.

  • 47. 
    Which of the following types of drugs are for eternal use only?
    • A. 

      Topical

    • B. 

      Diuretic

    • C. 

      Laxative

    • D. 

      Sedative

  • 48. 
    Stop-order procedures were formerly developed by the pharmaceutical service committee but are now to be developed by the:
    • A. 

      Pharmacist.

    • B. 

      Medical director.

    • C. 

      Pharmacist and the medical director.

    • D. 

      Pharmacist and the director of nursing.

  • 49. 
    If a medication has an automatic stop order, the nurse must:
    • A. 

      Notify the pharmacist.

    • B. 

      Never renew the medication.

    • C. 

      Notify the physician before the last dose is administered.

    • D. 

      Notify the physician at the time the drug is last administered.

  • 50. 
    Drugs prepared (poured) for administration at 8:00 a.m. should be administered and recorded before subsequent doses are prepared and before:
    • A. 

      9:00 AM

    • B. 

      10:00 AM

    • C. 

      11:00 AM

    • D. 

      12:00 Noon

  • 51. 
    The administrator may want to ensure that a rehabilitative team approach is being implemented for a resident and that:
    • A. 

      Some family members assist.

    • B. 

      The staff, including nursing, is involved.

    • C. 

      The physician observes the process and follows up.

    • D. 

      Therapy has its own department and dedicated room.

  • 52. 
    Which of the following is not considered a life-sustaining treatment?
    • A. 

      Physical therapy

    • B. 

      Dialysis treatment

    • C. 

      Use of ventilators

    • D. 

      Cardiopulmonary resuscitation

  • 53. 
    According to OBRA, the facility is required to offer therapeutic activities that:
    • A. 

      Must include games and crafts.

    • B. 

      Support, maintain, and empower.

    • C. 

      Are first approved by the medical staff.

    • D. 

      Are based upon past interests and hobbies.

  • 54. 
    Flexion, rotation, abduction, and adduction are all terms referring to:
    • A. 

      Menus

    • B. 

      Exercises

    • C. 

      Nursing modalities

    • D. 

      Treatment to be provided only by a therapist

  • 55. 
    Which of the following statements relative to range of motion is incorrect?
    • A. 

      Passive ROM is performed by the staff.

    • B. 

      Active ROM is performed by the resident.

    • C. 

      Adequate preventative care must include ROM.

    • D. 

      Active assistive ROM exercises are performed by the resident and the staff.

  • 56. 
    If specialized rehabilitative services are required in the resident's comprehensive plan of care, the facility must provide the services or:
    • A. 

      Dismiss the resident.

    • B. 

      Transfer the resident to an accredited hospital.

    • C. 

      Obtain the required services from an outside resource.

    • D. 

      Utilize the services available in the nursing department and in the activity department.

  • 57. 
    The responsibility of Restorative Aides in the nursing home includes all of the following except:
    • A. 

      Assessing the resident's restorative needs.

    • B. 

      Assisting the resident with his/her bed mobility.

    • C. 

      Assisting the resident with his/her prosthesis care.

    • D. 

      Assisting the resident with Range of Motion, both active and passive.

  • 58. 
    In monitoring work performance, the most essential activity for the administrator is to:
    • A. 

      Hold individual conferences with department heads.

    • B. 

      Review written reports from all department heads and consultants.

    • C. 

      Visit each department and observe daily activities and the environment.

    • D. 

      Conduct staff meetings and secure verbal reports from each department.

  • 59. 
    The key to understanding communication is:
    • A. 

      Reading.

    • B. 

      Listening.

    • C. 

      Watching.

    • D. 

      Interpreting.

  • 60. 
    Which of the following relationships is not regarded as having "privileged communication?"
    • A. 

      Husband/Wife

    • B. 

      Attorney/Client

    • C. 

      Physician/Patient

    • D. 

      Administrator/Family

  • 61. 
    The lack of adequate communication creates a vacuum which will cause the staff to:
    • A. 

      Listen to rumors

    • B. 

      Reject any information

    • C. 

      Cease communication

    • D. 

      Ignore all communication

  • 62. 
    It is very important that staff meetings do not become a:
    • A. 

      Time to complain

    • B. 

      Learning situation

    • C. 

      Sharing experience

    • D. 

      Time to share challenges

  • 63. 
    Under FMLA, if paid leave is provided by the employer:
    • A. 

      Company rules apply in lieu of FMLA.

    • B. 

      The employee is not eligible for coverage under FMLA.

    • C. 

      The rate paid to the employee must equal the employee's current salary.

    • D. 

      The employer can require the employee to substitute eligible leave for any part of the 12 weeks required by the Act.

  • 64. 
    Under the Americans With Disabilities Act, an employer may:
    • A. 

      Test the applicant for drugs.

    • B. 

      Require a "fitness for duty examination" providing it is job related.

    • C. 

      Ask questions relative to family members who may have disabilities.

    • D. 

      Require a pre-employment medical examination to determine if the applicant has a disability.

  • 65. 
    Over 75 percent of the administrator's problems relate to:
    • A. 

      Families.

    • B. 

      Residents.

    • C. 

      Employees.

    • D. 

      Community.

  • 66. 
    "Job" is a term that refers to:
    • A. 

      A collection of tasks that can be performed by an employee.

    • B. 

      The behavior, knowledge, and skills necessary to perform a duty.

    • C. 

      The duties, authority, and qualifications of each employee classification.

    • D. 

      A classification of employees such as secretaries, housekeepers, and nurses.

  • 67. 
    Which of the following determines the tasks, the employee behavior, and the knowledge and skills necessary to care out a certain job?
    • A. 

      Job analysis.

    • B. 

      Job assignment.

    • C. 

      Job relationship.

    • D. 

      Job classification.

  • 68. 
    To develop effective staff rapport, an administrator should:
    • A. 

      Establish a program of peer review.

    • B. 

      Discourage all formal and informal "grapevines".

    • C. 

      Promote employees from within the organization.

    • D. 

      Establish clear lines of authority and responsibility.

  • 69. 
    • A. 

      2.3

    • B. 

      2.5

    • C. 

      2.6

    • D. 

      3.8

  • 70. 
    The primary function of disciplinary action is to:
    • A. 

      Extract compliance.

    • B. 

      Impose punishment.

    • C. 

      Effect a desired behavior change.

    • D. 

      Ensure that the behavior will never be tolerated in the future.

  • 71. 
    It is reasonable to expect that employees who are formally evaluated by their supervisors will:
    • A. 

      Experience no effect from the lack of evaluation.

    • B. 

      Make less progress than those who are not evaluated.

    • C. 

      Make more progress than those who are not evaluated.

    • D. 

      Make about the same progress as those who are evaluated.

  • 72. 
    Pay scales are required for:
    • A. 

      Only wage employees.

    • B. 

      Only salaried employees.

    • C. 

      Only non-administrative personnel.

    • D. 

      Both salaried and wage employees.

  • 73. 
    During an employee interview you may ask:
    • A. 

      For a photograph.

    • B. 

      About child care plans.

    • C. 

      About willingness to work religious holidays.

    • D. 

      About willingness to work a required schedule.

  • 74. 
    Any effective sexual-harassment policy should contain all of the following essential elements except:
    • A. 

      The establishment of a complaint procedure.

    • B. 

      A statement clearly prohibiting sexual harassment.

    • C. 

      A description of conduct that constitutes sexual harassment.

    • D. 

      A warning that anyone who violates the policy will be immediately dismissed.

  • 75. 
    Under COBRA, continuation of employee group medical insurance must be offered except if the:
    • A. 

      Employee retires.

    • B. 

      Employee's marriage is dissolved.

    • C. 

      Employee's work hours are reduced.

    • D. 

      Employee is fired for gross misconduct.

  • 76. 
    EEOC enforces all of the following laws except the:
    • A. 

      Equal Pay Act.

    • B. 

      Fair Labor Standards Act.

    • C. 

      Title VII of the Civil Rights Act.

    • D. 

      Age Discrimination in Employment Act.

  • 77. 
    The "employment-at-will relationship" provide that the employer may:
    • A. 

      Discharge an employee without cause.

    • B. 

      Not discharge an employee without due notice.

    • C. 

      Discharge an employee only with a valid reason.

    • D. 

      Not discharge an employee if the employee is following the job description.

  • 78. 
    The accrual method of accounting is required by Medicaid and Medicare and therefore income and expenses are recorded:
    • A. 

      On a monthly basis.

    • B. 

      As they are capitalized.

    • C. 

      When they are incurred.

    • D. 

      When they are paid or received.

  • 79. 
    Depreciation is correctly defined as:
    • A. 

      A declining balance.

    • B. 

      A cost allocation of equipment.

    • C. 

      The change in value over a stipulated period.

    • D. 

      The decrease in value due to obsolescence, wear ,and tear.

  • 80. 
    Working capital equals the current assets:
    • A. 

      Minus fixed assets.

    • B. 

      Minus current liabilities.

    • C. 

      Divided by current liabilities.

    • D. 

      Minus inventories divided by current liabilities.

  • 81. 
    Which paid fringe benefit is usually the most costly?
    • A. 

      Holidays

    • B. 

      Jury Duty

    • C. 

      Vacations

    • D. 

      Sick Leave

  • 82. 
    In planning a budget, it is most important to know:
    • A. 

      Assets and liabilities.

    • B. 

      Net profit and net worth.

    • C. 

      Past cost and future cost.

    • D. 

      Past experience and projected expectations.

  • 83. 
    When a facility is being sold, which of the following is an intangible asset that is very marketable?
    • A. 

      Supplies

    • B. 

      Goodwill

    • C. 

      Buildings

    • D. 

      Equipment

  • 84. 
    In which of the following areas will an employed nursing home administrator usually have the most input?
    • A. 

      Budget

    • B. 

      Benefits

    • C. 

      Salary Schedules

    • D. 

      Mission Statement

  • 85. 
    The income of a proprietary corporation remaining after all costs, taxes, and dividends have been paid is known as:
    • A. 

      Profit

    • B. 

      Net profit

    • C. 

      Gross income

    • D. 

      Retained earnings

  • 86. 
    After liquidity, the second major objective of financial management is usually:
    • A. 

      Payroll.

    • B. 

      Inventory.

    • C. 

      Profitability.

    • D. 

      Rate structure.

  • 87. 
    Risk management is identifying and solving problems:
    • A. 

      As soon as possible.

    • B. 

      Before they get out of hand.

    • C. 

      That only involve a legal risk.

    • D. 

      To adhere to federal guidelines.

  • 88. 
    Workers' compensation insurance premium rates depend upon the claim experience, state regulations, and:
    • A. 

      Are discounted based upon volume

    • B. 

      The risk class of the occupations involved.

    • C. 

      Safety programs provided for the employees.

    • D. 

      The number of years insured by the same carrier.

  • 89. 
    The key to purchasing supplies is to:
    • A. 

      Obtain bids and accept the lowest price available.

    • B. 

      Purchase in the largest quantity available to reduce cost.

    • C. 

      Let each department purchase their own supplies since they will use them and know what is needed.

    • D. 

      Standardize the products and vendors used, organize a central purchasing department, and minimize the people authorized to purchase.

  • 90. 
    Which of the following is not a primary source of health care malpractice suits:
    • A. 

      Breach or violation of a contract or promise.

    • B. 

      Rendering substandard or poor quality care.

    • C. 

      Failure to obtain effective consent before intervening in the life of a resident.

    • D. 

      Agreeing to withhold prescribed treatment at the request of a competent resident.

  • 91. 
    The best way to maintain an inventory is to:
    • A. 

      Place all orders with a single supplier.

    • B. 

      Observe supply levels in the storeroom.

    • C. 

      Limit access to supplies and requisitioning to specified individuals.

    • D. 

      Record requisitions in an inventory-control system utilizing reorder levels.

  • 92. 
    A fiscal intermediary is usually:
    • A. 

      A CPA

    • B. 

      An HMO

    • C. 

      An insurance company

    • D. 

      A state nursing home association

  • 93. 
    The percentage of gross profit for a facility with a gross income of $555,000, fixed expenses of $195,000, and variable expenses of $305,000 is approximately:
    • A. 

      2.5 percent

    • B. 

      5.5 percent

    • C. 

      9.9 percent

    • D. 

      11.1 percent

  • 94. 
    Employees pay only 50 percent of the cost of:
    • A. 

      FICA

    • B. 

      FUTA

    • C. 

      Worker's Compensation

    • D. 

      Federal Withholding Tax.

  • 95. 
    Which of the following financial statements includes assets and liabilities?
    • A. 

      Balance Sheet

    • B. 

      Statement of cash flow

    • C. 

      Statement of revenues and expenses

    • D. 

      Statement of changes in fund balances

  • 96. 
    Payroll checks should include all of the following information except:
    • A. 

      Gross pay.

    • B. 

      FICA deductions

    • C. 

      Income tax withholding

    • D. 

      Federal unemployment tax

  • 97. 
    An administrator has been advised that utility costs far exceed those of comparable facilities.  The first action should be to:
    • A. 

      Arrange for an energy audit.

    • B. 

      Determine whether excessive hot water is being used.

    • C. 

      Have all lights and equipment turned off when not in use.

    • D. 

      Check all heating and air conditioning units for efficiency.

  • 98. 
    When two agencies or governmental bodies do not agree on interpretations relative to requirements and standards, it is prudent to comply with the order that is:
    • A. 

      More stringent

    • B. 

      Outlined in OBRA

    • C. 

      Federal versus state

    • D. 

      More recently enforced

  • 99. 
    According to surveyors, to determine the comfortable and safe levels of the air temperature in resident rooms and in dining areas, the air temperature should be measured:
    • A. 

      2 feet above the floor

    • B. 

      3 feet above the floor

    • C. 

      4 feet above the floor

    • D. 

      4.5 feet above the floor

  • 100. 
    Life Safety Codes are written for the expressed purpose of:
    • A. 

      Preventing disasters in nursing homes.

    • B. 

      Providing safety and security procedures.

    • C. 

      Providing emergency preparedness protocols.

    • D. 

      Providing a reasonable degree of safety from fires.

  • 101. 
    According to OSHA, all contaminated sharps shall be discarded in sharp containers:
    • A. 

      Immediately after use.

    • B. 

      At the end of every shift.

    • C. 

      Within a reasonable time period.

    • D. 

      After being sheared and broken.

  • 102. 
    The principal cause of odors in a nursing facility is:
    • A. 

      Ventilation systems.

    • B. 

      Incontinent residents.

    • C. 

      Not using disinfectants.

    • D. 

      Improper garbage storage.

  • 103. 
    The major advantage in contracting with a professional pest control company is that:
    • A. 

      Contracting is less expensive than operating the facility's own program.

    • B. 

      The facility staff is not efficient in identifying key areas to target for control.

    • C. 

      Contractors are more thorough in their pest control measures than facility staff.

    • D. 

      Contractors are generally more knowledgeable than staff about rotating appropriate pesticides to ensure effectiveness.

  • 104. 
    An administrator determines that his laundry is slightly understaffed, but the shortage is not enough to hire a full-time employee.  What would be the least economical solution?
    • A. 

      Hire a part-time employee

    • B. 

      All laundry employees to work overtime.

    • C. 

      Stagger employee schedules to provide extended daily laundry service.

    • D. 

      Assign underutilized personnel in another department to the laundry on a part-time basis.

  • 105. 
    The handrails in stairwells must extend beyond the first and last steps by:
    • A. 

      6 inches

    • B. 

      8 inches

    • C. 

      10 inches

    • D. 

      12 inches

  • 106. 
    According to Safe medical Device Reporting, user facilities must keep records for:
    • A. 

      1 year

    • B. 

      2 years

    • C. 

      3 years

    • D. 

      5 years

  • 107. 
    The safety program should include which of the following policies regarding the personal electrical appliances residents bring into the facility?
    • A. 

      Personal appliances should not be allowed in the facility.

    • B. 

      Personal appliances should be inspected prior to initial use and at regular intervals.

    • C. 

      Personal appliances should always be removed from the resident's room and stored when not in use.

    • D. 

      Personal appliances must be inspected and certified as safe by an outside appliance technician.

  • 108. 
    The fires that involve energized electrical equipment are classified as:
    • A. 

      Class A Fires

    • B. 

      Class B Fires

    • C. 

      Class C Fires

    • D. 

      Class D Fires

  • 109. 
    Hazardous communication programs, hepatitis B virus, HIV immunization, and standard precautions are all enforced by:
    • A. 

      ANSI

    • B. 

      DHHS

    • C. 

      OSHA

    • D. 

      EEOC

  • 110. 
    Chemical manufacturers and importers must convey the hazard information to employers by means of labels and:
    • A. 

      Seminars.

    • B. 

      Suppliers.

    • C. 

      A list provided by OSHA.

    • D. 

      Material safety data sheets.

  • 111. 
    An administrator is making rounds in his nursing homes and finds on a housekeeping cart a spray bottle that is not labeled.  What must the administrator do?
    • A. 

      Discard the contents of the spray bottle.

    • B. 

      Terminate the housekeeper immediately.

    • C. 

      Determine the contents of the bottle and label it appropriately.

    • D. 

      Remove the spray bottle and replace it with one that is labeled.

  • 112. 
    The most common accident occurring to employees in a health-care facility is caused by:
    • A. 

      Lifting.

    • B. 

      Burns.

    • C. 

      Falling.

    • D. 

      Lacerations.

  • 113. 
    OSHA accident reports must be posted:
    • A. 

      Annually

    • B. 

      At the end of the fiscal year

    • C. 

      Every year from February 1 through April 30

    • D. 

      When an accident involves more than three persons

  • 114. 
    The primary advantage of fire-detection systems is:
    • A. 

      A warning time.

    • B. 

      That everyone is informed.

    • C. 

      That communication problems are reduced.

    • D. 

      That the fire department is always notified immediately.

  • 115. 
    Backup batteries for generators must provide light for certain areas in a nursing home during emergency situations, however, waivers may be obtained for all areas except:
    • A. 

      Doors

    • B. 

      Nurses' station

    • C. 

      Entrances and exits

    • D. 

      Resident call system

  • 116. 
    All exit doors must swing:
    • A. 

      To the egress

    • B. 

      To the ingress

    • C. 

      One to the egress and one to the ingress

    • D. 

      In either direction but never be propped open

  • 117. 
    According to the Life Safety Code, there must be at least one Class A fire extinguisher for every travel distance of:
    • A. 

      25 feet

    • B. 

      50 feet

    • C. 

      75 feet

    • D. 

      100 feet

  • 118. 
    Which of the following is paid for under Part B of Medicare?
    • A. 

      Dentues

    • B. 

      Prostheses

    • C. 

      Eye Glasses

    • D. 

      Hearing Aides

  • 119. 
    Which of the following does not license, register, or certify professionals such as nurses and therapists?
    • A. 

      Associations

    • B. 

      State Boards

    • C. 

      State Agencies

    • D. 

      Federal Government

  • 120. 
    Which of the following is not required by the Patient Protection and Affordability Care Act of 2010 and the Health Care Education Reconciliation Act of 2010?
    • A. 

      Disclosure of ownership for nursing homes must be made available upon request by DHHS.

    • B. 

      Special Focus Facility (SSF) must be inspected at least every nine months.

    • C. 

      Disclosure of ownership for nursing homes upon request by State Ombudsman.

    • D. 

      Facilities must have available for review the annual surveys and complaint investigations for the preceding three years.

  • 121. 
    In which type of business entity does the owner have the most limited liability?
    • A. 

      Partnership

    • B. 

      Corporation

    • C. 

      Joint Venture

    • D. 

      Sole Proprietorship

  • 122. 
    Bylaws usually contain all of the following except:
    • A. 

      Rules

    • B. 

      Regulations

    • C. 

      Job descriptions

    • D. 

      The mission statement

  • 123. 
    HIPAA requires nursing homes to:
    • A. 

      Employ a person who handles all HIPAA requirements.

    • B. 

      Give hospitals immediate access to a resident's records.

    • C. 

      Have written policies and procedures to ensure the protection of clinical records.

    • D. 

      Have a family member or legal representative approve all transfers of resident clinical information.

  • 124. 
    When a facility wishes to transfer a resident for reasons other than the health of the resident being in danger, generally the notice to transfer must be provided at least:
    • A. 

      1 week prior to the transfer

    • B. 

      10 days prior to the transfer

    • C. 

      15 days prior to the transfer

    • D. 

      30 days prior to the transfer

  • 125. 
    A resident has the right to work in a facility under certain circumstances except when the:
    • A. 

      Position replaces a full-time employee.

    • B. 

      Resident agrees to the work arrangement.

    • C. 

      Compensation is at or above prevailing wage rates.

    • D. 

      Plan of care specifies the nature of the service performed.

  • 126. 
    It is not the role of the ethics committee to:
    • A. 

      Make decisions.

    • B. 

      Evaluate alternate solutions.

    • C. 

      Review policies and procedures from an ethical perspective.

    • D. 

      Educate the residents, families, and staff about ethical decision-making.

  • 127. 
    Which of the following is seldom handled by the governing board?
    • A. 

      Hiring all staff

    • B. 

      Practicing stewardship

    • C. 

      Establishing goals and objectives

    • D. 

      Appointing the licensed nursing home administrator

  • 128. 
    The primary purpose of departmentalization is to:
    • A. 

      Reduce cost.

    • B. 

      Increase personal goals.

    • C. 

      Promote efficient operation.

    • D. 

      Prevent employee arguments.

  • 129. 
    All of the following are usually functions of the governing body of a health-care facility except the:
    • A. 

      Funding sources

    • B. 

      Organizational structure

    • C. 

      Creation of a mission statement

    • D. 

      Creation and implementation of procedures

  • 130. 
    A resident who dies without leaving a will is said to have died:
    • A. 

      Testate

    • B. 

      Intestate

    • C. 

      Inter vivos

    • D. 

      Without probate

  • 131. 
    It is considered a good administrative practice in a nursing facility to adopt regulations covering emergency nursing care for residents who may suffer acute coronary attacks.  Which one of the following approaches to assuring such care is likely to be most effective?
    • A. 

      Obtain signed standing cardiac orders for all residents in advance.

    • B. 

      Frequently review standing orders for a procedure to be followed in the event of such an emergency.

    • C. 

      Institute an ongoing in-service training program to teach the nursing personnel the use of cardiac monitoring equipment.

    • D. 

      Insist that all physicians who admit residents with histories of cardiac disorders write cardiac orders at the time of admission.

  • 132. 
    The ombudsman cannot:
    • A. 

      Have access to facility records

    • B. 

      Issue citations against a facility

    • C. 

      Serve as an advocate for the elderly

    • D. 

      See resident records without written consent or a court order

  • 133. 
    The goals of providing resident support and increasing public awareness may be accomplished by the:
    • A. 

      Resident council

    • B. 

      Ethics committee

    • C. 

      Community council

    • D. 

      Quality improvement team

  • 134. 
    Demographic information relates primarily to:
    • A. 

      Topography

    • B. 

      Health care institutions

    • C. 

      Educational institutions

    • D. 

      Statistics regarding population

  • 135. 
    The number of those who need and who will purchase the services offered by a facility can be determined by:
    • A. 

      A market-opportunity analysis

    • B. 

      A study of hospital census ratios

    • C. 

      A review of existing advertisements

    • D. 

      An assessment of competitive institutions

  • 136. 
    Marketing is oriented to:
    • A. 

      Research

    • B. 

      Advertising

    • C. 

      Consumers' wants and needs

    • D. 

      Various public relation programs

  • 137. 
    Which of the following marketing efforts is perhaps the least effective to increase occupancy?
    • A. 

      Supplementing the work of the nursing staff

    • B. 

      Meeting the personal needs of the resident

    • C. 

      Changing attitudes toward the physically disabled

    • D. 

      Bringing the nursing facility and the community closer together

  • 138. 
    Effective delegation has been established when decisions are made:
    • A. 

      Very quickly

    • B. 

      By first-line supervisors

    • C. 

      At the lowest level authorized to make them

    • D. 

      Through the contribution of ideas by several people

  • 139. 
    When comparing leadership with management, leadership:
    • A. 

      Is rigid

    • B. 

      Inspires

    • C. 

      Specializes

    • D. 

      Requires authority

  • 140. 
    When a resident feels that everyone is against him/her, it is best to:
    • A. 

      Try to help by agreeing

    • B. 

      Be logical and explain everything

    • C. 

      Realize that there is usually no truth in such statements

    • D. 

      Have clear communication among staff so all will be consistent

  • 141. 
    Conflict is best resolved by:
    • A. 

      Orientation.

    • B. 

      Problem solving.

    • C. 

      In-service training.

    • D. 

      Professional training.

  • 142. 
    Which of the following is not a type of authority?
    • A. 

      Line

    • B. 

      Staff

    • C. 

      Functional

    • D. 

      Span of management

  • 143. 
    A basic management principle is to put one person in charge when there are:
    • A. 

      Two or more employees working together

    • B. 

      Three or more employees working together

    • C. 

      Five or more employees working together

    • D. 

      Seven or more employees working together

  • 144. 
    A governing body of designated person(s) us required by:
    • A. 

      ANSI

    • B. 

      OSHA

    • C. 

      OBRA

    • D. 

      EEOC

  • 145. 
    Goal orientation focuses on:
    • A. 

      Missions

    • B. 

      Strategies

    • C. 

      Controlling

    • D. 

      Future acomplishments

  • 146. 
    An entity's mission statement includes each of the following except:
    • A. 

      The types of services offered.

    • B. 

      The entity's responsibilities to its stakeholders

    • C. 

      The clear and succint representation of its purpose

    • D. 

      The procedure for the tasks necessary to achieve the mission

  • 147. 
    The maximum number of shareholders in a closely held corporation is:
    • A. 

      25

    • B. 

      50

    • C. 

      100

    • D. 

      250

  • 148. 
    Which is not true of an LLC?
    • A. 

      An LLC simplifies recordkeeping

    • B. 

      An LLC limits personal liability for business debts

    • C. 

      Partner(s) of an LLC are required to be US citizens

    • D. 

      An LLC combines corporate protections with partnership tax flexibility

  • 149. 
    Laissez-faire, autocratic, and paternal are all forms of:
    • A. 

      Staffing

    • B. 

      Authority

    • C. 

      Goal setting

    • D. 

      Leadership styles

  • 150. 
    Before attempting to improve its public image, it is mandatory that the nursing facility:
    • A. 

      Involve all staff

    • B. 

      Provide good resident care

    • C. 

      Hire specialists in public relations

    • D. 

      Develop a public relations program