Neuroscience

302 Questions

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Neuroscience

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which of the following Brodmann areas is the primary somatosensory cortex?
    • A. 

      BA4

    • B. 

      BA 3, 1, 2

    • C. 

      BA 17

    • D. 

      BA 41

  • 2. 
    The ideal neuroscience method would NOT have ...
    • A. 

      Spatial resolution at cellular level

    • B. 

      Temporal resolution at lifetime level

    • C. 

      Non - invasive

    • D. 

      A simultaneous measure of the whole brain

  • 3. 
    Rolls (2000) described emotions as originating from the presence/removal of appetitive and aversive stimuli, which of the following emotions likely originates from the presence of an aversive stimuli?
    • A. 

      Fear

    • B. 

      Anger

    • C. 

      Relief

    • D. 

      Pleasure

  • 4. 
    Rolls (2000) described emotions as originating from the presence/removal of appetitive and aversive stimuli, which of the following emotions likely originates from omitting an appetitive stimulus?
    • A. 

      Fear

    • B. 

      Anger

    • C. 

      Relief

    • D. 

      Pleasure

  • 5. 
    What is the unambiguous emotional measure that we use in animal models?
    • A. 

      Physiological responses

    • B. 

      Feelings

    • C. 

      Perceptions

    • D. 

      Mood

  • 6. 
    According to Rolls (1980) - perceiving an emotional stimuli elicits
    • A. 

      All of these

    • B. 

      Feelings

    • C. 

      Physiological/behavioural responses

    • D. 

      Thoughts

  • 7. 
    Which of the following is NOT an advantage to using a rat model to study emotions in the brain?
    • A. 

      Easy to genetically manipulate

    • B. 

      Easy to breed and keep

    • C. 

      Well established behavioural tests to use

    • D. 

      Large enough brain to manipulate individual structures

  • 8. 
    Since genetic manipulations in rats is difficult, what is the welcome alternative?
    • A. 

      Mouse

    • B. 

      Aphlyasia

    • C. 

      Monkey

    • D. 

      Dog

  • 9. 
    How can relief be characterised without reference to subjective feelings?
    • A. 

      A state caused by omission of aversive stimuli

    • B. 

      A state caused by presence of a positive reinforcer

    • C. 

      A state caused by presence of aversive stimuli

    • D. 

      A state caused by absence of a positive reinforcer

  • 10. 
    Which brain area, when damaged, was responsible for a drastic change in Phineas Gage's emotional states?
    • A. 

      Prefrontal cortex

    • B. 

      Amygdala

    • C. 

      Hippocampus

    • D. 

      Hypothalamys

  • 11. 
    Papez's theory of emotion did NOT involve which of the following brain areas?
    • A. 

      Prefrontal cortex

    • B. 

      Hippocampus

    • C. 

      Hypothalamus

    • D. 

      Amygdala

  • 12. 
    The dopamine system that originates from the Ventral Tegmental Area and influence emotion is called the?
    • A. 

      Meso-corticolimbic

    • B. 

      Meso-cortical

    • C. 

      Meso-limbic

    • D. 

      Nigrostriatal

  • 13. 
    Which of the following states would be described as a tonic response elicited from an aversive stimuli?
    • A. 

      Anxiety

    • B. 

      Fear

    • C. 

      Terror

    • D. 

      Apprehension

  • 14. 
    Which of the following states would be described as an escape/withdrawal response elicited from an aversive stimuli?
    • A. 

      Anxiety

    • B. 

      Fear

    • C. 

      Terror

    • D. 

      Apprehension

  • 15. 
    Which of the following is not a fear- and anxiety- related disorder in humans that emotion research can assist?
    • A. 

      Schizophrenia

    • B. 

      Phobias

    • C. 

      PTSD

    • D. 

      OCD

  • 16. 
    Classical fear conditioning procedures exposed the ... as having a central role for fear?
    • A. 

      Amygdala

    • B. 

      Thalamus

    • C. 

      Hippocampus

    • D. 

      Hypothalamus

  • 17. 
    The input of somatosensory and auditory input into the amygdala goes through which nucleus?
    • A. 

      Lateral nucleus

    • B. 

      Central nucleus

    • C. 

      Basal nucleus

    • D. 

      Paraventricular nulceus

  • 18. 
    Which lesioned nucleus from the amygdala has the largest effect on reducing freezing behaviour?
    • A. 

      Lateral

    • B. 

      Central

    • C. 

      Basal

    • D. 

      Paraventricular

  • 19. 
    Which nucleus of the amygdala is the 'output' and mediates different conditioned fear responses
    • A. 

      Lateral

    • B. 

      Central

    • C. 

      Basal

    • D. 

      Paraventricular

  • 20. 
    Amorapanth et al. (2000) lesioned different nucleus within the amygdala and found that which one/s was required for conditioned fear?
    • A. 

      Lateral

    • B. 

      Central

    • C. 

      Basal

    • D. 

      Both lateral and central

    • E. 

      All of these

  • 21. 
    Joseph LeDoux (2013) said we should almost exclusively use the word fear to mean ... to reduce misunderstandings
    • A. 

      Theat-induced defensive reactions

    • B. 

      Explicit feeling

    • C. 

      Conscious feeling

    • D. 

      Physiological response

  • 22. 
    The CE nucleus of the amygdala has a number of outputs that mediate different conditioned fear responses, which of the following outputs mediates blood pressure?
    • A. 

      Lateral hypothalamus

    • B. 

      Paraventricular nucleus

    • C. 

      Caudal Gray

    • D. 

      Lateral amygdala

  • 23. 
    The CE nucleus of the amygdala has a number of outputs that mediate different conditioned fear responses, which of the following outputs mediates hormone responses?
    • A. 

      Lateral hypothalamus

    • B. 

      Paraventricular nucleus

    • C. 

      Caudal Gray

    • D. 

      Lateral amygdala

  • 24. 
    The CE nucleus of the amygdala has a number of outputs that mediate different conditioned fear responses, which of the following outputs mediates freezing behaviours?
    • A. 

      Lateral hypothalamus

    • B. 

      Paraventricular nucleus

    • C. 

      Caudal Gray

    • D. 

      Lateral amygdala

  • 25. 
    Which nucleus in the amygdala demonstrates plasticity to learn about fear?
    • A. 

      Lateral

    • B. 

      Central

    • C. 

      Basal

    • D. 

      Paraventricular

  • 26. 
    Which of the following lesions of the hippocampus encouraged exploring of a raised platform, which the rat would normally be adverse to do?
    • A. 

      Ventral and complete

    • B. 

      Ventral only

    • C. 

      Dorsal only

    • D. 

      Dorsal and complete

  • 27. 
    Hippocampal lesions increase the time rats spend in the open areas of the elevated plus maze. What does this firing indicate?
    • A. 

      Hippocampal lesions reduce anxiety

    • B. 

      Hippocampal lesions cause anxiety

    • C. 

      Hippocampus does not play a role in anxiety

    • D. 

      Hippocampus is likely the origin of anxiety

  • 28. 
    The ventral hippocampus has been associated with what element of the FFF response?
    • A. 

      Freeze

    • B. 

      Flight

    • C. 

      Fight

    • D. 

      All of these

  • 29. 
    Approach behaviours and the feeling of desire originate from what emotional state?
    • A. 

      Wanting

    • B. 

      Ecstacy

    • C. 

      Pleasure

    • D. 

      Liking

  • 30. 
    Which of the following techniques to identify brain substrates of reward would be appropriate to measure NT release?
    • A. 

      Intracerebral microdialysis

    • B. 

      Intracranial electrical self-stimulation

    • C. 

      Intracranial drug self-administration

    • D. 

      Instrumental appetitive conditioning

  • 31. 
    Which of the following does NOT increase accumbal dopamine release?
    • A. 

      All of these increase DA release

    • B. 

      Food

    • C. 

      Cocaine

    • D. 

      Alcohol

  • 32. 
    Rewarding stimuli increase dopamine transmission in NAc, animals work to increase DA stimulation within NAc, and DA antagonists block some behavioural effects of rewards. These findings suggest which hypothesis is true?
    • A. 

      NAc dopamine causes desire/wanting

    • B. 

      NAc dopamine causes pleasure/liking

    • C. 

      NAc dopamine causes both liking and wanting

    • D. 

      NAc dopamine cannot be linked to any of these hypotheses

  • 33. 
    Which of the following compounds would block the behavioural effects of rewards such as lever pressing?
    • A. 

      Dopamine antagonist

    • B. 

      Dopamine agonist

    • C. 

      Glutamate agonist

    • D. 

      Glutamate and dopamine agonists

  • 34. 
    The origin of the meso-corticolimbic dopamine associated with pleasure and reward originates from which nuclei?
    • A. 

      Ventral Tegmental Area

    • B. 

      Lateral Hypothalamic

    • C. 

      Ventral Pallidum

    • D. 

      Medial dorsal

  • 35. 
    In rats and humans, what would be considered the centre of reward and pleasure?
    • A. 

      Nucleus Accumbens

    • B. 

      Amygdala

    • C. 

      Hypothalamus

    • D. 

      Hippocampus

  • 36. 
    Which of the following pathways is NOT key to the brain reward circuitry?
    • A. 

      GABAergic projections from LA to VTA

    • B. 

      Meso-corticolimbic dopamine system

    • C. 

      Cholinergic projection from PPTg to VTA

    • D. 

      Glutamate projections from mPFC to VTA

  • 37. 
    Which of the following techniques to identify brain substrates of reward would be appropriate to confirm the importance of a brain nuclei?
    • A. 

      Intracerebral microdialysis

    • B. 

      Intracranial electrical self-stimulation

    • C. 

      Intracranial drug self-administration

    • D. 

      Instrumental appetitive conditioning

  • 38. 
    One issue is, wanting a reward is no indication of whether they like the reward, through experimentation, what was found to the the origin of liking?
    • A. 

      Opiod receptors in NAc shell

    • B. 

      Opiod receptors in NAc core

    • C. 

      Dopamine receptors in NAc shell

    • D. 

      Dopamine receptors in NAc core

  • 39. 
    An appropriate measure of how much an organism 'liked' a particular reward would be?
    • A. 

      Measuring facial expressions

    • B. 

      Measuring behavioural responses e.g. lever pressing

    • C. 

      Intracranial drug self-stimulation

    • D. 

      Intracerebral microdialysis

  • 40. 
    Which of the following is not true?
    • A. 

      Morphine decreases wanting

    • B. 

      Morphine increases liking

    • C. 

      Amphetamine decreases liking

    • D. 

      Amphetamine increases wanting

  • 41. 
    Which of the following is true?
    • A. 

      All of these are true

    • B. 

      The amygdala has a role in responses to appetitive stimuli

    • C. 

      The amygdala has a role in fear-related responses

    • D. 

      DA and NAc have a role in fear-related responses

    • E. 

      DA and NAc have a role in responses to appetitive stimuli

  • 42. 
    A DNQX injection (DA infusion) into the NAc elicits what behaviour?
    • A. 

      Both appetitive and defensive

    • B. 

      Fearful defensive behaviour

    • C. 

      Appetitive approach behaviour

    • D. 

      Nothing behavioural

  • 43. 
    The reality of work with emotions that has been done so far is?
    • A. 

      We have been measuring the fundamental cognitive processes underlying positive and negative stimuli - which might be missing what emotion is all together

    • B. 

      Positive and negative emotions are the same thing, relying on the same mechanisms

    • C. 

      There is a common currency of emotions hence our responses are constrained

    • D. 

      All of these are true

  • 44. 
    Which of the following is NOT a biological sex difference?
    • A. 

      Sexual identity

    • B. 

      Brain sex

    • C. 

      Gonadal sex

    • D. 

      Hormonal sex

  • 45. 
    What molecule in the body cause permanent changes to the body and CNS at a critical period in development?
    • A. 

      Hormones

    • B. 

      Neurotransmitters

    • C. 

      Chromosomes

    • D. 

      Neuropeptides

  • 46. 
    In the sexual differentiation pathway, which of the following components occurs first?
    • A. 

      Development of fetal gonads

    • B. 

      Releasing of fetal hormones

    • C. 

      Juvenile gender identity

    • D. 

      Development of internal sex organs

  • 47. 
    The name for the precursor/immature male gonad system is?
    • A. 

      The Wolffian system

    • B. 

      The Mullerian system

    • C. 

      The Anti-Mullerian system

    • D. 

      The Anti-Wollfian system

  • 48. 
    The name for the precursor/immature female gonad system is?
    • A. 

      The Wolffian system

    • B. 

      The Mullerian system

    • C. 

      The Anti-Mullerian system

    • D. 

      The Anti-Wollfian system

  • 49. 
    The name of the region on the Y chromosome that codes for testes-determining factor is called the ... region?
    • A. 

      SRY

    • B. 

      SRS

    • C. 

      SXY

    • D. 

      SXS

  • 50. 
    The testes are responsible for producing ...
    • A. 

      Neither of these

    • B. 

      Oestrogen

    • C. 

      Mullerian hormone

    • D. 

      Both of these

  • 51. 
    Which of the following testes produced hormones cause defeminisation (the mullerian system withers away)
    • A. 

      Anti-Mullerian hormone

    • B. 

      Oestrogen

    • C. 

      Mullerian hormone

    • D. 

      Androgen

  • 52. 
    Which of the following testes produced hormones causes masculinisation - the development of the Wollfian system further.
    • A. 

      Anti-Mullerian hormone

    • B. 

      Oestrogen

    • C. 

      Mullerian hormone

    • D. 

      Androgens

  • 53. 
    Androgens and masculinisation are NOT responsible for which of the following?
    • A. 

      The development of the Wollfian system

    • B. 

      The development of the prostate vas deferens and seminal vesicles

    • C. 

      The development of the penis and scrotum

    • D. 

      All of these

  • 54. 
    Which of the following  hormones causes feminisation?
    • A. 

      None of these

    • B. 

      Oestrogen

    • C. 

      Mullerian hormone

    • D. 

      Androgens

  • 55. 
    The genetic sex of a human foetus is determined by?
    • A. 

      The father's sperm

    • B. 

      The gonads / sex hormones

    • C. 

      A single factor on the X chromosome

    • D. 

      None of these

  • 56. 
    The most common androgen that people will be familiar with is?
    • A. 

      Testosterone

    • B. 

      Oestrogen

    • C. 

      Adrenaline

    • D. 

      Dopamine

  • 57. 
    One single point mutation can prevent any internal or external sex organs developing in XY individuals, where must this occur?
    • A. 

      In the SRY region

    • B. 

      In the primordial gonads

    • C. 

      In the Wolfferian system

    • D. 

      In any of these options

  • 58. 
    Point mutations in the SRY region of the Y chromosome causes female sex organs and no testes in an XY individual - what is this condition called?
    • A. 

      XY sex reversal

    • B. 

      Androgen insensitivity syndrome

    • C. 

      Turner's syndrome

    • D. 

      Persistent Mullerian duct syndrome

  • 59. 
    Androgen insensitivity syndrome involves a congenital lack of functioning androgen receptors in an XY individual, what is the resultant physiology?
    • A. 

      Female with testes and no internal sex organs

    • B. 

      Male without testes and no internal sex organs

    • C. 

      Female with testes and internal sex organs

    • D. 

      Male with testes but with female internal sex organs

  • 60. 
    The presence of only one X sex chromosome results in a lack of ovaries but otherwise normal female sex organs and genitalia and is better known as?
    • A. 

      Turner's syndrome

    • B. 

      XY sex reversal

    • C. 

      Androgen Insensitivity syndrome

    • D. 

      Persistent Mullerian duct syndrome

  • 61. 
    Persistent Mullerian duct syndrome causes the development of both male and female internal sex organs in an XY individual and is due to a congenital lack of ...
    • A. 

      Anti-Mullerian hormone

    • B. 

      Oestrogen

    • C. 

      Androgen

    • D. 

      Testosterone

  • 62. 
    XY sex reversal is resultant of?
    • A. 

      Point mutations in the SRY

    • B. 

      Congenital lack of anti-Mullerian hormone

    • C. 

      Congenital lack of androgen receptors

    • D. 

      The presence of only one sex chromosome

  • 63. 
    Which of the following is NOT a secondary sex characteristic?
    • A. 

      Development of external sex organs

    • B. 

      Development of facial hair

    • C. 

      Enlargement of breasts

    • D. 

      These are all secondary sex characteristics

  • 64. 
    Which hormone triggers puberty?
    • A. 

      Gonadotrophin-releasing hormone (GrNH)

    • B. 

      Oestrogen/testosterone

    • C. 

      Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)

    • D. 

      Lutenising hormone (LH)

  • 65. 
    GnRH is released from which brain area?
    • A. 

      Hypothalamus

    • B. 

      Hippocampus

    • C. 

      Amygdala

    • D. 

      Prefrontal cortex

  • 66. 
    Which of the following is NOT a gonadotropic hormone?
    • A. 

      All of these are

    • B. 

      FSH

    • C. 

      LH

    • D. 

      Testosterone

  • 67. 
    Which of the following mechanisms do male and women sexual maturation NOT have in common?
    • A. 

      Gonadotropin releasing hormone triggers puberty

    • B. 

      Hormones released from primordial gonads to develop ovaries/testes

    • C. 

      Testosterone controls for secondary sex characteristcs

    • D. 

      All of these are NOT shared by both men and women

  • 68. 
    The Lordosis responses is ...
    • A. 

      A female rat only response

    • B. 

      A male rat only response

    • C. 

      A gender-neutral response

    • D. 

      A response indicative of a mutation in the sexual maturation pathway

  • 69. 
    Sex differences in body and behaviour are best summarised as?
    • A. 

      Female by default

    • B. 

      Female for sex organ development but neutral for behaviour adoption

    • C. 

      Female for sex organ development but male for behaviour adoption

    • D. 

      Neutral by default

  • 70. 
    It is likely that male specific behaviour/brain arises due to?
    • A. 

      CNS androgen exposure at a critical period

    • B. 

      CNS oestrogen exposure at critical periods

    • C. 

      CNS anti-mullerian hormone exposure at critical periods

    • D. 

      CNS gonadotrophin releasing hormone exposure at critical periods

  • 71. 
    Which statement is correct concerning organisation and activational effects of sex hormones?
    • A. 

      Organisational effects occur only during critical periods

    • B. 

      Activational effects occur only during critical periods

    • C. 

      Organisational effects are typically reversible

    • D. 

      Activational effects are permanent

  • 72. 
    The protection hypothesis relies on the process of ... to explain how oestrogen's masculinising effects are constrained
    • A. 

      Aromatisation

    • B. 

      Oestrogenosation

    • C. 

      Differentiation

    • D. 

      Caudatation

  • 73. 
    Alpha-fetoprotein mutant mice show ... 
    • A. 

      Masculine brain and behaviour

    • B. 

      Feminine brain and behaviour

    • C. 

      Hermaphroditic brain and behaviour

    • D. 

      Gender neutral brain and behaviour

  • 74. 
    To exert masculinising effects on the brain, what molecules are required?
    • A. 

      All of these

    • B. 

      Testosterone

    • C. 

      Oestrogen

    • D. 

      Aromatase

  • 75. 
    Sex differences in behaviour and cognition are best described by?
    • A. 

      The difference between the average male to the average female

    • B. 

      The difference between the best male and best female performance

    • C. 

      Biological differences between the sexes

    • D. 

      Neurological differences between the sexes

  • 76. 
    The largest sex differences are evident in ...
    • A. 

      Sexual identity

    • B. 

      Language ability

    • C. 

      Aggression

    • D. 

      Mental rotation

  • 77. 
    The determinant of sex differences in behaviour and cognition is?
    • A. 

      All of these

    • B. 

      Sex genes/hormones

    • C. 

      Sexual dimorphisms in the CNS

    • D. 

      Environment

  • 78. 
    Which of the following is not one of the key contingents to two individuals mating in animals?
    • A. 

      Sexual drive

    • B. 

      Attractivity

    • C. 

      Proceptivity

    • D. 

      Receptivity

  • 79. 
    Mammal mating behaviour is additionally governed by?
    • A. 

      Menstruation

    • B. 

      Attractiveness

    • C. 

      Behavioural cues

    • D. 

      Cognition

  • 80. 
    The most primitive physical sex difference between male and female rats concerning reproductive behaviour is?
    • A. 

      Only males have the spinal nucleus of bulbocavernosus (SNB)

    • B. 

      Posterodorsal medial amygdala is larger in males

    • C. 

      Sexually dimorphic nucleus of the preoptic area (SDN-POA) is larger in males

    • D. 

      None of these are the earliest neuronal change

  • 81. 
    Testosterone in male pup urine causes its mother to lick it more. Anogenital licking contributes to what?
    • A. 

      An acquiring of a normal number of SNB neurons

    • B. 

      A correct maturing of the posterodorsal medial amygdala

    • C. 

      A correct course of puberty to occur

    • D. 

      All of these

  • 82. 
    An example of  direct masculinising effect of testosterone in rats is ...
    • A. 

      The acquisition of SNB

    • B. 

      Encouraging anogenital licking from the mother

    • C. 

      The acquisition of mounting behaviour in rats

    • D. 

      All of these

  • 83. 
    Which of the following structures is common to the male and female brain sex circuits?
    • A. 

      Medial amygdala

    • B. 

      Medial preoptic area

    • C. 

      VMH

    • D. 

      Reticular formation

  • 84. 
    Which of the following nuclei is NOT a sexually dimorphic nucleus found in rats?
    • A. 

      Ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus

    • B. 

      Sexually dimorphic nucleus of the preoptic area

    • C. 

      Posterodorsal medial amygdala

    • D. 

      Spinal nucleus of bulbocavernosus

  • 85. 
    The human homologue to the rodent SNB is the ...
    • A. 

      Onuf's nucleus

    • B. 

      Nucleus ambiguus

    • C. 

      Dorse raphe nucleus

    • D. 

      Lateral motor nucleus

  • 86. 
    When considering human sexual dimorphism in the human preoptic area of the hypothalamus, the most likely candidate for a larger nucleus in males than females is the
    • A. 

      INAH3

    • B. 

      INAH4

    • C. 

      INAH1

    • D. 

      INAH2

  • 87. 
    Some brain areas for aggression overlap with those for reproductive behaviour, what hormone is expected to be responsible for heightened aggressive behaviour?
    • A. 

      Testosterone

    • B. 

      Oestrogen

    • C. 

      Gonadotropin releasing hormone

    • D. 

      All of these

  • 88. 
    Which of the following skills is there an inherent female advantage?
    • A. 

      Fine motor control

    • B. 

      Paper folding

    • C. 

      Target accuracy

    • D. 

      Embedded figures

  • 89. 
    Which of the following skills is there an inherent male advantage?
    • A. 

      Paper folding

    • B. 

      Visual memory

    • C. 

      Perceptual speed

    • D. 

      Verbal fluency

  • 90. 
    Which of the following statement is incorrect?
    • A. 

      Male rats have an advantage in place learning and navigation

    • B. 

      Male rats have a larger hippocampus than females

    • C. 

      Male humans have a larger hippocampus than females

    • D. 

      Male humans have an advantage in place learning and navigation

  • 91. 
    If men are better on a task than women with an effect size of 0.5, a randomly picked male has what percentage chance of being better than a randomly picked female?
    • A. 

      64%

    • B. 

      58%

    • C. 

      100%

    • D. 

      80%

  • 92. 
    Which of the following statement is true?
    • A. 

      The male brain is bigger in absolute weight and weight proportional to body size

    • B. 

      The male brain is bigger in absolute weight but it is equal to women in weight proportional to body size

    • C. 

      The male brain is bigger in absolute weight but women's brain is bigger in proportion to body size

    • D. 

      The male brain is bigger, better and men are superior :)

  • 93. 
    Which individual first collected the symptoms of schizophrenia - labelling the disease - 'Folie circulaire'
    • A. 

      Falvet

    • B. 

      Hecker

    • C. 

      Kraeplin

    • D. 

      Bleuler

  • 94. 
    Which individual combined previous attempts to define schizophrenia symptoms into a single disease called - dementia Praecox?
    • A. 

      Kraeplin

    • B. 

      Falvet

    • C. 

      Hecker

    • D. 

      Bleuler

  • 95. 
    Which individual reformulated dementia Praecox and coined the term schizophrenia?
    • A. 

      Bleuler

    • B. 

      Kraeplin

    • C. 

      Falvet

    • D. 

      Schneider

  • 96. 
    Which of the following is a negative symptom (type 2) of schizophrenia?
    • A. 

      Anhedonia - inability to feel pleasure

    • B. 

      Delusions of false belief

    • C. 

      Hallucination - perceptual experiences

    • D. 

      Having trouble understanding common words

  • 97. 
    Which of the following is a positve (type 1) symptom of schizophrenia?
    • A. 

      Bizarre delusional thought

    • B. 

      Blunted affect

    • C. 

      Alogia - unable to speak

    • D. 

      Avolition - lack of motivation

    • E. 

      Problems with working memory

  • 98. 
    Peter Liddle introduced a third factor to schizophrenia other than type 1 and type 2 symptoms which drew some of the symptoms from the type 1 into a separate factor, what was this third factor called?
    • A. 

      Disorganisation syndrome

    • B. 

      Dysfunction syndrome

    • C. 

      Executive dysfunction

    • D. 

      Thought dysfunction syndrome

  • 99. 
    Which of the following is NOT one of Peter Liddle's three syndrome categories for schizophrenia?
    • A. 

      Eccentric thought

    • B. 

      Disorganisation syndrome

    • C. 

      Reality distortion

    • D. 

      Psychomotor poverty

  • 100. 
    In 2002, Liddle added further factors to his previously 3 factor model of schizophrenia, what were his new additions?
    • A. 

      Psychomotor excitation; Anxiety/Depression

    • B. 

      Psychomotor excitation; Psychomotor poverty

    • C. 

      Anxiety/Depression

    • D. 

      Psychomotor poverty

  • 101. 
    The classic 'brain stamp' of schizophrenia is?
    • A. 

      Enlarged ventricles

    • B. 

      Enlarged amygdala

    • C. 

      Hyperactive PFC

    • D. 

      There is no brain stamp

  • 102. 
    Schizophrenia has been associated with?
    • A. 

      Loss of gray matter with age and poor white matter connectivity

    • B. 

      Loss of gray matter with age and excessive white matter connectivty

    • C. 

      Excessive gray matter and excessive white matter connectivty

    • D. 

      Excessive gray matter and poor white matter connectivity

  • 103. 
    The percentage risk of developing schizophrenia as identical twins is?
    • A. 

      48%

    • B. 

      17%

    • C. 

      9%

    • D. 

      89%

  • 104. 
    A good method to identify underlying physiological differences with schizophrenic individuals would be to use ...
    • A. 

      Post motem studies

    • B. 

      Peripheral markers

    • C. 

      Mechanism of actions studies of antipsychotic drugs

    • D. 

      In vivo receptor binding - PET studies

  • 105. 
    Post mortem schizophrenia studies have found ...
    • A. 

      Increased D2 receptors in the striatum

    • B. 

      Increased D1 receptor in the striatum

    • C. 

      Increased D4 receptors in the striatum

    • D. 

      Increased D2 and D1 receptors in the striatum

  • 106. 
    The origin of the most important groups of dopamingeric neurons is?
    • A. 

      Both of these

    • B. 

      The substantia nigra

    • C. 

      The Ventral tegmental area

    • D. 

      Neither of these

  • 107. 
    The peripheral markers technique can be used to measure metabolites, what is the important metabolite in the blood plasma that represents brain dopamine turnover?
    • A. 

      Homovanillic acid

    • B. 

      Methoxytyramine

    • C. 

      Phenethylamine

    • D. 

      Vanillylmandelic acid

  • 108. 
    The most frequently used animal model for schizophrenia relies on?
    • A. 

      Latent inhibition

    • B. 

      Overshadowing

    • C. 

      Blocking

    • D. 

      Conditioned inhibition

  • 109. 
    The best method to use to identify D2 receptor affinity in humans is?
    • A. 

      PET

    • B. 

      FMRI

    • C. 

      Animal models

    • D. 

      Peripheral marker studies

  • 110. 
    Dopamine is well known to be heavily involved in the symptoms of schizophrenia, what is less known are the other neurotransmitters that have powerful affects of schizophrenia symptomology, which of the following is NOT known to be influential in schizophrenia?
    • A. 

      Acetyl choline

    • B. 

      Glutamate

    • C. 

      Serotonin

    • D. 

      GABA

  • 111. 
    Otto Loewi discovered NT's with experiments on .....
    • A. 

      Frog hearts

    • B. 

      Dog brains

    • C. 

      Monkey hands

    • D. 

      Rat spinal cords

  • 112. 
    Of the four classes of neurotransmitter, dopamine belongs to which category?
    • A. 

      Biogenic amines

    • B. 

      Amino acids

    • C. 

      Peptides

    • D. 

      Others

  • 113. 
    Of the four classes of neurotransmitter, glutamate belongs to which category?
    • A. 

      Biogenic amines

    • B. 

      Amino acids

    • C. 

      Peptides

    • D. 

      Others

  • 114. 
    The major excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain is?
    • A. 

      Glutamate

    • B. 

      Serotonin

    • C. 

      Dopamine

    • D. 

      GABA

  • 115. 
    The major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain is?
    • A. 

      Glutamate

    • B. 

      Serotonin

    • C. 

      Dopamine

    • D. 

      GABA

  • 116. 
    Glutamate is synthesised from glutamine in which cell?
    • A. 

      Astrocyte

    • B. 

      Oligodendricyte

    • C. 

      Presynaptic neuron

    • D. 

      Postsynaptic neuron

  • 117. 
    Which of the following is not a major subtype of glutamate receptor?
    • A. 

      Orphan

    • B. 

      NMDA

    • C. 

      AMPA

    • D. 

      Metabotropic

  • 118. 
    The potential neuropharmacological actions that a drug can take on a neurotransmitter does NOT include?
    • A. 

      Act as an antagonist to the NT

    • B. 

      Enhance the synthesis of the NT

    • C. 

      Block reuptake of the NT

    • D. 

      Reduce metabolism of the NT

  • 119. 
    The glutamate hypothesis of schizophrenia involves?
    • A. 

      A reduced function of NMDA receptors and decreased glutamate transmission

    • B. 

      An increased function of NMDA receptors and increased glutamate transmission

    • C. 

      A reduced function of AMPA receptors and decreased glutamate transmission

    • D. 

      An increased function of AMPA receptors and increased glutamate transmission

  • 120. 
    Why do Phencyclidine and ketamine produce symptoms of schizophrenia?
    • A. 

      NMDA antagonists

    • B. 

      NMDA agonists

    • C. 

      DA receptor antagonists

    • D. 

      DA receptor agonists

  • 121. 
    Which of the following is NOT recorded evidence in support of the glutamate hypothesis of schizophrenia?
    • A. 

      LSD and cocaine produce symptoms of schizophrenia and are NMDA agonists

    • B. 

      There has been measurable reduced glutamate in CSF of patients

    • C. 

      Post mortem studies showed changes in NMDA receptor binding in the PRC, thalamus and hippocampus

    • D. 

      Genes have been discovered the can influence the modulatory sites on NMDA receptor

  • 122. 
    What role do glutamate neurons play in relation to dopamine
    • A. 

      Regulates bursting of Dopamine neurons

    • B. 

      Causes necessary inhibition of DA neurons

    • C. 

      Causes positive schizophrenia symptoms if dopamine over-activates the NMDA receptors

    • D. 

      Causes negative schizophrenia symptoms if dopamine hypo-activates the NMDA receptors

  • 123. 
    According to the glutamate hypothesis, the positive schizophrenia symptoms occur due to ...
    • A. 

      Glutamatergic hypoactivation from the PFC

    • B. 

      GABAergic hypoactivation in the VTA

    • C. 

      Dopaminergic hyperactivation in the nucleus accumbens

    • D. 

      All of these processes

  • 124. 
    According to the glutamate hypothesis of schizophrenia. the negative symptoms emerge from ...
    • A. 

      Glutamatergic hypoactivity from the VTA

    • B. 

      Dopaminergic hypoactivity to the DLPFC and vmPFC

    • C. 

      Glutamatergic hyperactivity from the PFC

    • D. 

      All of these

  • 125. 
    The original dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia was?
    • A. 

      An overactivity of DA synapses from VTA to the mesolimbic pathway leads to schizophrenia

    • B. 

      An underactivity of DA synapses from VTA to the mesolimbic pathway leads to schizophrenia

    • C. 

      Schizophrenia positive symptoms = an overacitivty of dopaminergic synapses

    • D. 

      Schizophrenia negative symptoms = an overactivity of dopaminergic synapses

  • 126. 
    Which of the following is a precursor to dopamine?
    • A. 

      Tyrosine

    • B. 

      Nor-adrenaline

    • C. 

      DOPAC

    • D. 

      All of these are precursors

  • 127. 
    What information lead to the extended dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia?
    • A. 

      That dopamine hypoactivity could cause negative symptoms

    • B. 

      That dopamine hypoactivity could cause positive symptoms

    • C. 

      That dopamine hyperactivity could cause negative symptoms

    • D. 

      That dopamine hyperactivity could cause positive symptoms

  • 128. 
    Which of the following statements is correct concerning the extended dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia?
    • A. 

      Positive symptoms = mesolimbic DA hyperactivity, negative symptoms = prefrontal DA hypoactivity

    • B. 

      Positive symptoms = mesolimbic DA hypoactivity, negative symptoms = prefrontal DA hyperactivity

    • C. 

      Negative symptoms = mesolimbic DA hyperactivity, positive symptoms = prefrontal DA hypoactivity

    • D. 

      Negative symptoms = mesolimbic DA hypoactivity, positive symptoms = prefrontal DA hyperactivity

  • 129. 
    Which of the following dopamine receptor subtypes is involved in the activation of adenlyate cyclase?
    • A. 

      D1

    • B. 

      D2

    • C. 

      D3

    • D. 

      D4

  • 130. 
    Antipsychotics ...
    • A. 

      Antagonise D2 receptors

    • B. 

      Agonise D2 receptors

    • C. 

      Antagonise D1 receptors

    • D. 

      Agonise D1 receptors

  • 131. 
    Antipsychotics were introduced in ...
    • A. 

      1955

    • B. 

      1945

    • C. 

      1965

    • D. 

      1985

  • 132. 
    Most antipsychotics are typical in action and antagonise D2 receptors BUT atypical drugs have additional blocking effects on ... receptors
    • A. 

      Serotonin

    • B. 

      Glutamate

    • C. 

      GABA

    • D. 

      Acetyl Choline

  • 133. 
    Which of the following is an ATYPICAL antipsychotic?
    • A. 

      Risperdol

    • B. 

      Haloperidol

    • C. 

      Chlorpromazine

    • D. 

      Loxapine

  • 134. 
    Which of the following is NOT an advantage supplied by atypical antipsychotics over typical ones.
    • A. 

      Efficacious against positive symptomology

    • B. 

      Fewer extra pyramidal side-effects

    • C. 

      Efficacious against negative symptomology

    • D. 

      Higher therapeutic index

  • 135. 
    What additonal effect of atypical antipsychotics causes a reduction in Parkinsonian like symptoms?
    • A. 

      Acetyl choline antagonist

    • B. 

      Dopamine antagonist

    • C. 

      GABA antagonist

    • D. 

      Dopamine agonist

  • 136. 
    Ordinarily dopamine in the substantia nigra ...
    • A. 

      Inhibits cholinergic cells in the striatum which would otherwise go on to activate inhibitory GABA neurons into the substantia nigra

    • B. 

      Inhibits cholinergic cells in the striatum which would otherwise go on to inhibit inhibitory GABA neurons into the substantia nigra

    • C. 

      Activates cholinergic cells in the striatum which go on to inhibit inhibitory GABA neurons into the substantia nigra

    • D. 

      Activates cholinergic cells in the striatum which go on to activate inhibitory GABA neurons into the substantia nigra

  • 137. 
    Which of the following antipsychotics will improve all symptoms (positive and negative) by a large degree?
    • A. 

      Risperidone

    • B. 

      Haloperidol

    • C. 

      Loxapine

    • D. 

      Chlorpromazine

  • 138. 
    Which of the following statements about antipsychotic effectiveness and drug binding is correct?
    • A. 

      Effectiveness correlates with D2 affinity but not 5-HT affinity

    • B. 

      Effectiveness correlates with D2 and 5-HT affinity

    • C. 

      Effectiveness correlates with 5-HT affinity but not D2 affinity

    • D. 

      Effectiveness did not correlate with affinity but instead correlated with dose size

  • 139. 
    Which technique would allow one to observe D2 receptor occupancy by antipsychotic drugs in human patients?
    • A. 

      PET

    • B. 

      FMRI

    • C. 

      SMRI

    • D. 

      DOI

  • 140. 
    Which of the following is NOT a well known side effect of antipsychotics?
    • A. 

      Depression

    • B. 

      Tardive dyskinesia

    • C. 

      Parkinson's like movements

    • D. 

      Weight gain

  • 141. 
    Which of the following side effects of antipsychotics is known to increase in cumulative incidence with years of chronic drug treatment?
    • A. 

      Hypotension

    • B. 

      Tardive dyskinesia

    • C. 

      Parkinson's like movements

    • D. 

      Weight gain

  • 142. 
    When using animal models, to confirm that the model has pathology that looks similar to the disease is a measure of?
    • A. 

      Face validity

    • B. 

      Construct validity

    • C. 

      Predictive validity

    • D. 

      External validity

  • 143. 
    When using animal models, to confirm that the model will be accurate to patient responses in the clinic is a measure of?
    • A. 

      Face validity

    • B. 

      Construct validity

    • C. 

      Predictive validity

    • D. 

      External validity

  • 144. 
    When using animal models, to confirm that the model has the same abnormality as a patient with the disease is a measure of?
    • A. 

      Face validity

    • B. 

      Construct validity

    • C. 

      Predictive validity

    • D. 

      External validity

  • 145. 
    A dose response curve allows one to see ...
    • A. 

      The dose of drug that side effects begin

    • B. 

      The dose of drug where effectiveness asymptotes

    • C. 

      The dose of drug of maximal effectiveness before side effects begin

    • D. 

      All of these things

  • 146. 
    What drug is known to disrupt attentional functions similar to those seen in schizophrenia?
    • A. 

      Both phencyclidine and amphetamine

    • B. 

      Amphetamine

    • C. 

      Phencycylidine

    • D. 

      Salvia

  • 147. 
    Which of the following is NOT an animal model for schizophrenia?
    • A. 

      All of these are animal models

    • B. 

      Maternal separation

    • C. 

      Mutation of genes of interest

    • D. 

      Early developmental lesions of hippocampal/PFC

  • 148. 
    The open field activity is an established test of?
    • A. 

      Anxiety

    • B. 

      Depression

    • C. 

      Madness

    • D. 

      Executive dysfunction

  • 149. 
    To distinguish which drugs will have motor side-effects it is best to use?
    • A. 

      Animal models

    • B. 

      Longitudinal studies

    • C. 

      PET

    • D. 

      Case studies

  • 150. 
    Prepulse inhibiton (startle response) is NOT disrupted by ....
    • A. 

      Haloperidol

    • B. 

      Amphetamine

    • C. 

      PCP

    • D. 

      DA agonists in the nucleus accumbens

  • 151. 
    Latent inhibition is enhanced by
    • A. 

      Haloperidol alone

    • B. 

      Amphetamine alone

    • C. 

      D1 antagonist alone

    • D. 

      Amphetamine followed by Haloperidol

  • 152. 
    Latent inhibition is disrupted by ...
    • A. 

      Amphetamine alone

    • B. 

      Haloperidol alone

    • C. 

      Amphetamine followed by Haloperidol

    • D. 

      D1 anatagonist

  • 153. 
    A dysregulated hyperdopamingeric state leads to ...
    • A. 

      A faulty assignment of salience

    • B. 

      Delusions and hallucinations

    • C. 

      Abnormality in latent inhibition

    • D. 

      All of these

  • 154. 
    Which statement is true for the extended Dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia?
    • A. 

      DA hypoactivity from dlPFC means less inhibition of DA release in nucleus accumbens from the VTA

    • B. 

      DA hyperactivity from dlPFC means more inhibition of DA releases in nucleus accumbens from the VTA

    • C. 

      DA hypoactivity from the nucleus accumbens means DA hyperactivity from the VTA to the dlPFC

    • D. 

      DA hyperactivity from the nucleus accumbens means DA hypoactivity from the VTA to the dlPFC

  • 155. 
    Which of the following genetic studies is the weakest source of evidence for the genetic basis of schizophrenia?
    • A. 

      Family studies

    • B. 

      Twin studies

    • C. 

      Linkage analysis studies

    • D. 

      GWAS

  • 156. 
    The Maudsley and Finnish twin studies found a roughly ... correlation in monozygotic twins compared to a .3 correlation in dizygotic twins
    • A. 

      .8

    • B. 

      .6

    • C. 

      .4

    • D. 

      .2

  • 157. 
    Which of the following studies allows a researcher to assess the role of environment vs. genetics for a condition?
    • A. 

      Adoption twin studies

    • B. 

      Twin studies

    • C. 

      Linkage analysis

    • D. 

      GWAS

  • 158. 
    Results from GWAS for schizophrenia have indicated that
    • A. 

      Many rare mutations across many genes likely work in a consortium

    • B. 

      A few loci of interest are likely to be the origin

    • C. 

      There is likely no discrete genetic basis for schizophrenia

    • D. 

      Causal genes have been found on chromosome 22q

  • 159. 
    Velo-cardiofacial syndrome has a prevalence of schizophrenia that is 25x the normal population. What chromosome is it missing part of?
    • A. 

      22q11

    • B. 

      22p11

    • C. 

      12q11

    • D. 

      12p11

  • 160. 
    The Neurodevelopmental hypothesis of Schizophrenia postulates that ...
    • A. 

      The disruption of brain development during early life underlies the later emergence of psychosis

    • B. 

      A two hit hypothesis of genetics and environment

    • C. 

      Environmental influences are key to triggering later psychosis

    • D. 

      All of these

  • 161. 
    Schizophrenia is often characterised by some minor physical abnormalities, which of the following is NOT a common one?
    • A. 

      Third toe longer than the second toe

    • B. 

      Wide head circumference

    • C. 

      High set ears

    • D. 

      Curved 5th finger

    • E. 

      Two or more head whorls

  • 162. 
    Which of the following describes a schizophrenic's eye movements when tracked?
    • A. 

      Low gain pursuit with catch-up sacchades

    • B. 

      High gain pursuit with catch-up sacchades

    • C. 

      Smooth pursuit without catch-up sacchades

    • D. 

      Schizophrenics are mostly unable to do this form of task

  • 163. 
    What evidence would lead one to believe the neurodevelopmental hypothesis of schizophrenia?
    • A. 

      All of these

    • B. 

      Minor physical abnormalities are common with schizophrenia

    • C. 

      Abnormal eye movements from patients

    • D. 

      Cellular disarray in hippocampus

  • 164. 
    There is a seasonality effect in schizophrenia with more births occuring between which months?
    • A. 

      February - May

    • B. 

      May - August

    • C. 

      August - November

    • D. 

      November - February

  • 165. 
    The seasonality of schizophrenic births correlates with which disease?
    • A. 

      Influenza

    • B. 

      Norovirus

    • C. 

      Salmonella

    • D. 

      Hepatitis

  • 166. 
    Evidence that mother infection and famine during pregnancy can lead to higher rates of schizophrenia is an example of ...
    • A. 

      Biological distress effects

    • B. 

      Genetic effects

    • C. 

      Gene-environment interactions

    • D. 

      Development effects

  • 167. 
    During the final trimester, many processes are occurring important to baby success, what is likely to cause brain abnormality development during this stage?
    • A. 

      Motherhood immune response to an infection

    • B. 

      Mother smoking cannabis

    • C. 

      Mother drinking alcohol

    • D. 

      All of these

  • 168. 
    Which immune agent is the suspected mechanism by which maternal infection produces brain abnormality leading to an increased risk of schizophrenia?
    • A. 

      Cytokines

    • B. 

      Macrophages

    • C. 

      MHC class 1s

    • D. 

      Interferons

  • 169. 
    Which of the following is NOT evidence for the immune systems and schizophrenia?
    • A. 

      Schizophrenic births occur with a seasonality effect

    • B. 

      There is evidence of immune abnormalities in blood and CNS of patients

    • C. 

      Animal models with infection during pregnancy get abnormalities that are reversed by antipsychotics

    • D. 

      GWAS immune genes have been observed in the study

  • 170. 
    Zuckermann et al. (2003) - saw that upon an injection of a pregnant mother with POLY I: C, it caused a development of schizophrenia like symptoms (Disrupted Latent inhibition and increased DA in striatum) after 90 days. This was key because it showed that schizophrenia can have a late onset. However, what does poly I:C mimic?
    • A. 

      Viral exposure

    • B. 

      Genetic mutations

    • C. 

      Cannabis exposure

    • D. 

      Dopamine exposure

  • 171. 
    Zuckermann et al. (2003) injected pregnant rat mothers with a viral mimicking substance. After 35 days of the pups life, they had normal dopamine release and normal LI. However by ... the dopamine level had increased and latent inhibition was disrupted and could be corrected by haloperidol. How long did it take for the symptoms to emerge?
    • A. 

      90 days

    • B. 

      60 days

    • C. 

      40 days

    • D. 

      2 years

  • 172. 
    The first physiological evidence for Alzheimer's disease was from?
    • A. 

      Auguste

    • B. 

      Alzheimer

    • C. 

      Parkinson

    • D. 

      Lewy

  • 173. 
    The most common type of dementia with 50-80% of cases is ...
    • A. 

      Alzheimer's disease

    • B. 

      Vascular

    • C. 

      Frontotemporal

    • D. 

      Lewy bodies

  • 174. 
    If there is a lack of evidence of a causative genetic mutation for alzheimer's, which of the following is/are NECESSARY for a DSM V diagnosis?
    • A. 

      All of them

    • B. 

      Clear evidence of a memory decline

    • C. 

      Steady but progressive decline in cognition

    • D. 

      No evidence of other causes for problems

  • 175. 
    The key anatomical sign of alzheimer's is ...
    • A. 

      Global brain atrophy

    • B. 

      Neuritic plaques

    • C. 

      Immune dysregulation

    • D. 

      Isolated brain atrophy

  • 176. 
    The main component of Neurofibrillary tangles is abnormal ...
    • A. 

      Tau protein

    • B. 

      Amyloid protein

    • C. 

      Helical protein

    • D. 

      A - peptide

  • 177. 
    Which of the following is a key component of the histopathology of Alzheimer's disease
    • A. 

      Both of these

    • B. 

      Amyloid plaques

    • C. 

      Neurfibrillary tangles

    • D. 

      These are not the histopathology of Alzheimer's

  • 178. 
    Amyloid plaques peak ...
    • A. 

      During very mild Alzheimer's

    • B. 

      During moderate Alzheimer's

    • C. 

      During sever Alzheimer's

    • D. 

      During Preclinical ALzheimer's

  • 179. 
    The sharpest drop in neuronal integrity is seen during ...
    • A. 

      Very mild AD to mild AD

    • B. 

      Mild AD to moderate AD

    • C. 

      Moderate AD to severe AD

    • D. 

      Severe AD to death

  • 180. 
    The molecule that later goes onto to form the A-beta plaque in Alzheimer's originates from ...
    • A. 

      Amyloid precursor protein embedded in the membrane

    • B. 

      Amyloid precursor protein floating free in the cytoplasm

    • C. 

      Tau protein embedded in the membrane

    • D. 

      Tau protein floating free in the cytoplasm

  • 181. 
    A paper by Blessed et al. found what?
    • A. 

      That amyloid plaques correlate with dementia but people without dementia had plaques too

    • B. 

      That amyloid plaques fully correlate with dementia

    • C. 

      That amyloid plaques do not correlate with dementia

    • D. 

      That dementia arose regardless of the presence of amyloid plaques

  • 182. 
    What number is the chromosome on which mutations are related to Alzheimer's and an extra copy will lead to Down's syndrome?
    • A. 

      21

    • B. 

      22

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      12

  • 183. 
    Which condition is associated with a heightened A-beta-peptide in the CSF and hence higher rates of alzheimer's disease?
    • A. 

      Down's syndrome

    • B. 

      Huntington's disease

    • C. 

      Parkinson's disease

    • D. 

      Autism

  • 184. 
    The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) of an Alzheimer's disease patient has ...
    • A. 

      Reduced A-beta-peptide and increased tau

    • B. 

      Increased A-beta-peptide and increased tau

    • C. 

      Reduced A-beta-peptide and reduced tau

    • D. 

      Increased A-beta-pepitde and reduced tau

  • 185. 
    A-beta-peptide is reduced in Alzheimer's disease within the CSF when it would be expected to be high, this is due to AD causing an amyloid ... by depositing it in plaques
    • A. 

      Sink

    • B. 

      Drain

    • C. 

      Store

    • D. 

      Accumulate

  • 186. 
    Which of the following is not true concerning Alzheimer's disease?
    • A. 

      Higher prevalence in males after a certain age

    • B. 

      Number of people with the disease approximately doubles every 5 years after 65

    • C. 

      Down's sydrome is linked to Alzheimer's

    • D. 

      Dementia is increasing worldwide

  • 187. 
    Which of the following is NOT true about familial Alzheimer's disease
    • A. 

      Multiple mutations must be inherited for AD to develop

    • B. 

      It is a rarer form of AD than sporadic (

    • C. 

      It is only early-onset (before age 65)

    • D. 

      It is autosomal dominant in inheritance

  • 188. 
    What is the only known risk factor concerning sporadic Alzheimer's disease acquisition?
    • A. 

      Apolipoprotein gene

    • B. 

      Tau protein gene

    • C. 

      Amyloid protein gene

    • D. 

      Smoking

  • 189. 
    Apolipoprotein (ApoE) gene is on chromosome ...
    • A. 

      19

    • B. 

      21

    • C. 

      22

    • D. 

      12

  • 190. 
    What is the role of apolipoprotein in the body?
    • A. 

      Carry cholesterol in the bloodstream

    • B. 

      Immune system regulation

    • C. 

      Blood-brain barrier transport

    • D. 

      Glial cell maintenance (particularly astrocytes)

  • 191. 
    Apolipoprotein gene has 3 alleles, in what order are the following alleles associated with: increasing a person's risk, decreasing a person's risk and neutral to a person's risk of Alzheimer's disease
    • A. 

      E4, E2, E3

    • B. 

      E2, E4, E3

    • C. 

      E4, E3, E2

    • D. 

      E2, E3, E4

  • 192. 
    Apolipoprotein screening will be of what benefit?
    • A. 

      Identify potential study volunteers for Alzheimer's

    • B. 

      Identify an individual's personal risk for Alzheimer's

    • C. 

      Predictive screening in healthy people

    • D. 

      All of these

  • 193. 
    Snowdon et al. 's nun study found out what interesting observation occurred in nuns with overt dementia?
    • A. 

      Infarcts to the basal ganglia and thalamus

    • B. 

      No plaques and tangles unlike the normal population

    • C. 

      Only those that had drunk alcohol before becoming a nun had plaques and tangles

    • D. 

      Sisters with dementia were living much longer than expected

  • 194. 
    Which neurotransmitter is important for memory?
    • A. 

      Acetyl Choline

    • B. 

      Serotonin

    • C. 

      Dopamine

    • D. 

      Glutamate

  • 195. 
    Cholinergic antagonists produce ... in animals and people?
    • A. 

      Amnesia

    • B. 

      Enhanced recall ability

    • C. 

      Alzheimer's disease

    • D. 

      Adhedonia

  • 196. 
    The current treatment for Alzheimer's disease is palliative and called Donepezil and it is a ....
    • A. 

      Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor

    • B. 

      Acetylcholine antagonist

    • C. 

      Dopamine D2 antagonist

    • D. 

      Dopamine D2 agonist

  • 197. 
    Which of the following is not a good animal model for aspects of Alzheimer's disease?
    • A. 

      All of these are worthwhile

    • B. 

      Aged animals

    • C. 

      Transgenic animals

    • D. 

      Selective lesion of neurochemical pathways

    • E. 

      Using cholinergic antagonists

  • 198. 
    The blunt instrument used to examine cognitive dysfunction, in particular, related to Alzheimer's disease is the ...
    • A. 

      Mini-Mental State Examination

    • B. 

      Tower of Hanoi

    • C. 

      Wisconsin card sort

    • D. 

      All of these

  • 199. 
    Which behavioural test is used for animal models to measure their Alzheimer's like effects?
    • A. 

      Water maze

    • B. 

      Skinner box

    • C. 

      Autoshaping

    • D. 

      Open armed maze

  • 200. 
    What theory is underlying current Alzheimer's disease treatments?
    • A. 

      Cholinergic hypothesis

    • B. 

      Amyloid plaques

    • C. 

      Neuorfibrillary tangles

    • D. 

      Dopaminergic hypothesis

  • 201. 
    The most widespread psychological disorder often compared to the common cold of mental illness is ...
    • A. 

      Depression

    • B. 

      Anxiety

    • C. 

      Schizophrenia

    • D. 

      Alzheimer's

  • 202. 
    What percentage of patients develop chronic depression from their acute depression?
    • A. 

      20%

    • B. 

      10%

    • C. 

      50%

    • D. 

      80%

  • 203. 
    Symptoms of depression fall into four categories, which of the following categories is NOT associated with depression?
    • A. 

      Attentional

    • B. 

      Mood

    • C. 

      Cognitive

    • D. 

      Somatic

  • 204. 
    SSRI's have what effect on the HPA system?
    • A. 

      Increase it

    • B. 

      Balance it

    • C. 

      Decrease it

    • D. 

      Inhibit it

  • 205. 
    Which of the following techniques has the best temporal resolution?
    • A. 

      EEG

    • B. 

      FMRI

    • C. 

      PET

    • D. 

      Lesion studies

  • 206. 
    Cytoarchitectonics separates the brain into ... according to ...
    • A. 

      Brodmann areas; microscopic appearance

    • B. 

      Brodmann areas; neurochemical action

    • C. 

      Cortical layers; microscopic appearance

    • D. 

      Cortical layers; neurochemical action

  • 207. 
    How many Brodmann areas are there?
    • A. 

      52

    • B. 

      48

    • C. 

      42

    • D. 

      60

  • 208. 
    The precentral gyrus is better known as the 
    • A. 

      Motor cortex

    • B. 

      Somatosensory cortex

    • C. 

      Auditory cortex

    • D. 

      Visual cortex

  • 209. 
    The postcentral gyrus is better known as the primary ...
    • A. 

      Somatosensory cortex

    • B. 

      Motor cortex

    • C. 

      Auditory cortex

    • D. 

      Visual cortex

  • 210. 
    The primary motor cortex has a wider layer ...
    • A. 

      V

    • B. 

      IV

    • C. 

      VI

    • D. 

      III

  • 211. 
    The somatosensory cortex has a wider layer ...?
    • A. 

      IV

    • B. 

      V

    • C. 

      VI

    • D. 

      III

  • 212. 
    Which of the following Brodmann areas is the primary motor cortex?
    • A. 

      BA4

    • B. 

      BA 3, 1, 2

    • C. 

      BA 17

    • D. 

      BA 41

  • 213. 
    Which of the following Brodmann areas is the primary visual cortex?
    • A. 

      BA4

    • B. 

      BA 3, 1, 2

    • C. 

      BA 17

    • D. 

      BA 41

  • 214. 
    Which of the following Brodmann areas is the primary auditory cortex?
    • A. 

      BA4

    • B. 

      BA 3, 1, 2

    • C. 

      BA 17

    • D. 

      BA 41

  • 215. 
    TMS has 
    • A. 

      All of these

    • B. 

      Ms temporal resolution

    • C. 

      Brain map spatial resolution

    • D. 

      An inference mode of action (vs. correlation)

  • 216. 
    The effects of TMS are determined by ...
    • A. 

      Stimulation site

    • B. 

      Intensity of magnetic field

    • C. 

      Individual susceptibility

    • D. 

      Skill of the technician

  • 217. 
    In TMS, an electric current creates a magnetic field with flux lines that are ... to the plane of the coil, the magnetic field then induces a ... electric field that causes trans-cranial neuronal excitation
    • A. 

      Perpendicular; perpendicular

    • B. 

      Perpendicular; parrallel

    • C. 

      Parallel; perpendicular

    • D. 

      Parallel; parallel

  • 218. 
    Holding a TMS device above Brodmann's area 4 would result in what effect?
    • A. 

      Thumb twitches

    • B. 

      Tingling feeling

    • C. 

      Failure in letter identification

    • D. 

      Mood swings

  • 219. 
    Holding a TMS device above Brodmann's area 17 would result in what effect?
    • A. 

      Thumb twitches

    • B. 

      Tingling feeling

    • C. 

      Failure in letter identification

    • D. 

      Mood swings

  • 220. 
    What measure would be necessary to observe the effects of TMS on the somatosensory cortex?
    • A. 

      EEG

    • B. 

      Measure peripheral responses

    • C. 

      Measure impaired task performance

    • D. 

      All of these

  • 221. 
    TMS was successfully used to demonstrate that braille reading is dependent on ...
    • A. 

      Visual cortex

    • B. 

      Auditory cortex

    • C. 

      Somatosensory cortex

    • D. 

      Motor cortex

  • 222. 
    A clear disadvantage of TMS is the ...
    • A. 

      Restriction to only cortical areas

    • B. 

      Poor temporal resolution

    • C. 

      Poor spatial resolution

    • D. 

      Inability to study double dissociations

  • 223. 
    The EEG originates from ... 
    • A. 

      Postsynaptic potentals

    • B. 

      Blood flow in the brain

    • C. 

      Small but continuous neuronal fire

    • D. 

      Amount of neurotransmitter released

  • 224. 
    Within a spontaneous EEG, which of the observed waves has the highest frequency?
    • A. 

      Beta

    • B. 

      Alpha

    • C. 

      Theta

    • D. 

      Delta

  • 225. 
    Within a spontaneous EEG, which of the observed waves has the highest amplitude?
    • A. 

      Beta

    • B. 

      Alpha

    • C. 

      Theta

    • D. 

      Delta

  • 226. 
    Berger observed an EEG effect he called the 'berger effect' which was when?
    • A. 

      Alpha waves were blocked at the onset of mental effort

    • B. 

      Beta waves were blocked at the onset of mental effort

    • C. 

      Beta waves were blocked by Alpha waves at the onset of mental effort

    • D. 

      Alpha waves were blocked at the onset of sleep

  • 227. 
    Within a spontaneous EEG, which of the observed waves is the only non-dominant wave?
    • A. 

      Beta

    • B. 

      Alpha

    • C. 

      Theta

    • D. 

      Delta

  • 228. 
    Within a spontaneous EEG, which of the observed waves is associated with the subject being alert with eyes open?
    • A. 

      Beta

    • B. 

      Alpha

    • C. 

      Theta

    • D. 

      Delta

  • 229. 
    Within a spontaneous EEG, which of the observed waves is the dominant rhythm is infants and deep sleep?
    • A. 

      Beta

    • B. 

      Alpha

    • C. 

      Theta

    • D. 

      Delta

  • 230. 
    Within a spontaneous EEG, which of the observed waves is dominant when the subject is relaxed, eyes closed?
    • A. 

      Beta

    • B. 

      Alpha

    • C. 

      Theta

    • D. 

      Delta

  • 231. 
    Which of the following is NOT a useful EEG based parameter for biological psychology?
    • A. 

      Spontaneous EEG

    • B. 

      Event-related oscillations

    • C. 

      Event-related potentials

    • D. 

      All of these are

  • 232. 
    Event related potentials measures EEG in terms of ...
    • A. 

      Latency

    • B. 

      Frequency

    • C. 

      Amplitude

    • D. 

      All of these

  • 233. 
    Which of the following artefacts are known to interfere with ERP recordings?
    • A. 

      All of these

    • B. 

      Movement of eyeballs

    • C. 

      Muscle acivity

    • D. 

      Blinking

  • 234. 
    Which of the following steps must be taken to discriminate an ERP from the non-time-locked EEG activity?
    • A. 

      Averaging over a number of trials

    • B. 

      Removing artefacts

    • C. 

      Reducing noisy inputs

    • D. 

      Measure a time of patient activity without a task to get a control EEG recording

  • 235. 
    Which of the following is NOT a term for the peaks and troughs in a standard ERP wave?
    • A. 

      P2

    • B. 

      P1

    • C. 

      N1

    • D. 

      N2

  • 236. 
    Which of the following ERPs are automatic responses of the brain
    • A. 

      Exogenous

    • B. 

      Endogenous

    • C. 

      Mesogenous

    • D. 

      All of them

  • 237. 
    Which of the following ERPs reflect interaction between the subject and event?
    • A. 

      Exogenous

    • B. 

      Endogenous

    • C. 

      Mesogenous

    • D. 

      All of them

  • 238. 
    Which of the following ERPs is automatic and modulated by cognitive processes
    • A. 

      Exogenous

    • B. 

      Endogenous

    • C. 

      Mesogenous

    • D. 

      All of them

  • 239. 
    Which of the following is an endogenous ERP recording rather than a mesogenous?
    • A. 

      N400

    • B. 

      N1-P2

    • C. 

      N100

    • D. 

      MMN

  • 240. 
    Which of the following is an mesogenous ERP recording rather than a endogenous?
    • A. 

      N400

    • B. 

      P600

    • C. 

      N100

    • D. 

      P300

  • 241. 
    The N1-P2 ERP measure increases amplitude with
    • A. 

      An increase in stimulus intensity

    • B. 

      An increase in selective attention

    • C. 

      A decrease in stimulus intensity

    • D. 

      A decrease in selective attention

  • 242. 
    The N100 ERP signal demonstrates that what has an effect as early as 100ms?
    • A. 

      Selective attention

    • B. 

      Stimulus intensity

    • C. 

      Deviant stimuli identification

    • D. 

      Word recognition

  • 243. 
    In a passive oddball paradigm, the rare tones are played at a rate of 10%, what ERP response is expected from their appearance?
    • A. 

      Mismatch Negativity

    • B. 

      P300

    • C. 

      N100

    • D. 

      N300

  • 244. 
    In a passive oddball paradigm, the rare tones are played at varying frequencies compared to the standard, a more discriminable oddball (lower proportion played) results in what changed to the MMN?
    • A. 

      Larger amplitude, shorter latency

    • B. 

      Larger amplitude, longer latency

    • C. 

      Smaller amplitude, shorter latency

    • D. 

      Smaller amplitude, longer latency

  • 245. 
    The endogenous N400 ERP is related to
    • A. 

      Semantic incogruence

    • B. 

      Selective attention

    • C. 

      Unexpected stimuli detection

    • D. 

      Voluntary movement

  • 246. 
    The readiness potential precedes?
    • A. 

      Voluntary movement

    • B. 

      Breathing

    • C. 

      Word comprehension

    • D. 

      Attentional processes

  • 247. 
    Magnetoencephalography improves what in comparison to EEG?
    • A. 

      Spatial resolution

    • B. 

      Temporal resolution

    • C. 

      Non-invasiveness

    • D. 

      Ease of operation

  • 248. 
    The P300 is an endogenous ERP that responds to ...
    • A. 

      Both novel and infrequent targets

    • B. 

      Novel targets

    • C. 

      Subliminal targets

    • D. 

      Both novel and subliminal targets

  • 249. 
    ERP's are dependent on ...
    • A. 

      All of these

    • B. 

      Attention

    • C. 

      Expectation

    • D. 

      Stimulus intensity

  • 250. 
    Which of the following has the best temporal resolution?
    • A. 

      FMRI

    • B. 

      MRI

    • C. 

      CT

    • D. 

      PET

  • 251. 
    CT and MRI rely on the contrast between ... to create contrast and image resolution?
    • A. 

      White matter vs. gray matter

    • B. 

      Bone vs. skin

    • C. 

      Bone vs. brain

    • D. 

      Neuron vs. brain

  • 252. 
    Which of the following would a structural MRI be an inappropriate technique to deploy?
    • A. 

      Identifying brain region functionality

    • B. 

      Identifying abnormalities

    • C. 

      Following developmental trajectories

    • D. 

      Demonstrating brain plasticity

  • 253. 
    Structural MRI observed an expansion of gray matter in a juggler, which was the correct area of the expansion?
    • A. 

      Visual motor

    • B. 

      Primary motor

    • C. 

      Occipital

    • D. 

      Prefrontal cortex

  • 254. 
    Precessional motion refers to
    • A. 

      The vertical spin axis of a proton in tissue

    • B. 

      The movement of protons within an MRI scanner

    • C. 

      The movement of protons that precess out of phase

    • D. 

      The net proton motion once those that have aligned to the magnet have been cancelled out

  • 255. 
    The net magnetisation vector (NMV) is ...
    • A. 

      Generated from the protons that precess out of phase

    • B. 

      Generated from the protons that precess in phase

    • C. 

      The normal magentic field generated by a protons vertical spin

    • D. 

      The magnetic field generated by protons in an MRI machine

  • 256. 
    Magnetisation changes from longitudinal to transverse thanks to the ...
    • A. 

      Radio frequency coil

    • B. 

      Magnets

    • C. 

      Gradient coils

    • D. 

      Patient's brain activity

  • 257. 
    At which point within the MRI is there NO net magnetisation vector(NMV)?
    • A. 

      When the protons precess in phase

    • B. 

      When the protons precess out of phase

    • C. 

      When the protons begin to de-phase

    • D. 

      There is always a NMV

  • 258. 
    The MRI readout is focused on ...
    • A. 

      The time take to return to spinning in phase

    • B. 

      The time taken to precess in phase

    • C. 

      The time take to prcess out of phase

    • D. 

      The time taken to return to spinning out of phase

  • 259. 
    Which of the following tissues has the fastest relaxation time (T1) within the MRI machine?
    • A. 

      White matter

    • B. 

      Gray matter

    • C. 

      CSF

    • D. 

      They are all the same

  • 260. 
    FMRI (PET and SPECT) fundamentally rely on ...
    • A. 

      Blood flow

    • B. 

      Post-synaptic potentials

    • C. 

      Brain anatomy

    • D. 

      Magentisation

  • 261. 
    All types of MRI rely on ... to provide useful imaging results.
    • A. 

      Contrast

    • B. 

      Resolution

    • C. 

      Frequency

    • D. 

      Amplitude

  • 262. 
    T2* contrast for fMRI depends on?
    • A. 

      Oxygenated vs. deoxygenated haemoglobin

    • B. 

      Grey matter vs. white matter

    • C. 

      Radioactive tracers

    • D. 

      Direct neural activity

  • 263. 
    The amount of oxygenated blood in brain areas is regulated by
    • A. 

      Arterial width

    • B. 

      Heart rate

    • C. 

      Neural activity

    • D. 

      Haemoglobin

  • 264. 
    FMRI has huge temporal delay issues - the best way to improve the functional contrast/noise ratio is to use 
    • A. 

      A rapid-event-related design

    • B. 

      A block design

    • C. 

      An EEG scan at the same time

    • D. 

      Multiple trials and take the average reading

  • 265. 
    Maximum BOLD signal in an fMRI occurs ... seconds after visual stimuli
    • A. 

      6

    • B. 

      24

    • C. 

      2

    • D. 

      12

  • 266. 
    A key feature of the Block design for fMRI is that it 
    • A. 

      Is additive

    • B. 

      Has poor statistical power

    • C. 

      Has better temporal resolution

    • D. 

      Is suitable for many tasks

  • 267. 
    Which of the following disadvantages applies to Event-related designs of fMRI rather than to block designs?
    • A. 

      Reduced sensitivity to neural events

    • B. 

      Inflexible

    • C. 

      Poor statistical power

    • D. 

      Not robust

  • 268. 
    To identify areas that show functional contrast in fMRI, what must occur?
    • A. 

      All of these

    • B. 

      Motion correction and coregistration of target images

    • C. 

      Normalisation procedures between subjects

    • D. 

      Statistical analysis of each voxel

  • 269. 
    The process of superimposing the BOLD and anatomical scans for fMRI processing is called ...
    • A. 

      Coregistraion

    • B. 

      Normalisation

    • C. 

      Spatial smoothing

    • D. 

      Coordination

  • 270. 
    In a lesion study, a dissociation is when ...
    • A. 

      Damage leads to impaired performance in task A

    • B. 

      Damage to a single brain region causes multiple deficits

    • C. 

      Damage leads to impaired performance in task A but normal performance in task B

    • D. 

      Damage to multiple brain regions causes a single deficit

  • 271. 
    In a lesion study, a double dissociation is when ...
    • A. 

      Damage leads to impaired performance in task A, but normal performance in task B

    • B. 

      Damage to a single brain region causes multiple deficits

    • C. 

      Damage leads to impaired performance in task A but normal performance in task B, and vice versa for an opposing area of damage

    • D. 

      Damage to multiple brain regions causes a single deficit

  • 272. 
    In a lesion study, an association is when ...
    • A. 

      Damage leads to impaired performance in task A, but normal performance in task B

    • B. 

      Damage to a single brain region causes multiple deficits

    • C. 

      Damage leads to impaired performance in task A but normal performance in task B, and vice versa for an opposing area of damage

    • D. 

      Damage to multiple brain regions causes a single deficit

  • 273. 
    As an example of an association study, Balint's syndrome can be induced by a lesion to an area of the occipital-temporal cortex and causes ...
    • A. 

      All of these

    • B. 

      Oculomotor apraxia (failure to make eye movements)

    • C. 

      Simultanagnosia (only perceive one object at a time)

    • D. 

      Optic ataxia (inability to reach for a seen target)

  • 274. 
    If damage to a single brain region causes multiple deficits (syndrome) , we are likely to draw what conclusion?
    • A. 

      All of these are valid

    • B. 

      All the deficits require the same neural circuit

    • C. 

      All the deficits are processed separately but are anatomical neighbours

    • D. 

      The brain region is a common relay station for the each of the functionally and anatomically distinct deficits

  • 275. 
    If a patient with damage to a brain area performs normally in one task but is impaired in a similar task, what is the logical conclusion?
    • A. 

      All of these are valid conclusions

    • B. 

      Both tasks rely on separate brain networks despite the similarity

    • C. 

      The impaired task is just more difficult that the other task despite the similarity

    • D. 

      The performance on the unimpaired task is at ceiling, an unfair comparison

  • 276. 
    Which of the following is not a valid criticism of neuropsychological methods (lesions)?
    • A. 

      Poor spatial resolution

    • B. 

      Lesion sizes are variable and can cause problems whether big or small

    • C. 

      Poor temporal resolution

    • D. 

      Brain reorganisation can occur

  • 277. 
    A persistent but mild depressive personality is referred to as ...
    • A. 

      Dysthymia

    • B. 

      Cyclothymia

    • C. 

      Alexythymia

    • D. 

      Bipolar

  • 278. 
    What additional factor defines bipolar disorder vs. a unipolar?
    • A. 

      Mania

    • B. 

      Anxiety

    • C. 

      Mood instability

    • D. 

      Chronic

  • 279. 
    A persistent instability of mood is referred to as ...
    • A. 

      Dysthymia

    • B. 

      Cyclothymia

    • C. 

      Alexythymia

    • D. 

      Bipolar

  • 280. 
    Suprisingly, MDD is correlated with?
    • A. 

      Creativity

    • B. 

      Longevity

    • C. 

      Educational attainment

    • D. 

      Physical health

  • 281. 
    Which of the following brain areas involved in depression has an increased BOLD signal despite having a decreased volume?
    • A. 

      Amygdala

    • B. 

      Hippocampus

    • C. 

      Prefrontal Cortex

    • D. 

      Nucleus accumbens

  • 282. 
    Which of the following areas is not heavily associated with depression?
    • A. 

      Hypothalamus - physiological responses

    • B. 

      Amygdala - anxiety responses

    • C. 

      Hippocampus - memory responses

    • D. 

      Nucleus accumbens - reward responses

  • 283. 
    The highest rate of genetic concordance in monozygotic twins was seen in ...
    • A. 

      Bipolar disorder

    • B. 

      Sever depression

    • C. 

      Depression in general

    • D. 

      Mood disorders in general

  • 284. 
    Learned helpessness emulates which aspect of depression that makes it a useful model?
    • A. 

      REM alteration

    • B. 

      All of these

    • C. 

      Loss of bodyweight

    • D. 

      Diminished sexual activity

  • 285. 
    Learned Helplessness Animals recover almost completely after 48 hours and this recovery has been correlated with?
    • A. 

      Noradrenaline recovery

    • B. 

      Adrenaline recovery

    • C. 

      Dopamine recovery

    • D. 

      Serotonin recovery

  • 286. 
    Major classes of antidepressants work through increasing the amounts of monoamines within chemical synapses, which of the following is NOT a monoamine neurotransmitter?
    • A. 

      Noradrenaline

    • B. 

      Acetyl Choline

    • C. 

      Dopamine

    • D. 

      Serotonin

  • 287. 
    Which of the following molecules can induce depression?
    • A. 

      Amphetamine

    • B. 

      Reserpine

    • C. 

      Dopa

    • D. 

      MAO inhibitors

  • 288. 
    The monoamine hypothesis is most accurately summarised as
    • A. 

      Downregulation of NA receptors hence a reduction in NA activity

    • B. 

      Depletion of monoamines

    • C. 

      Overload of monoamines

    • D. 

      Upregulation of NA receptors hence an increased NA activity

  • 289. 
    Reserpine induces depression, what drug would cause the opposite physiological effect to Reserpine?
    • A. 

      MAO inhibitiors

    • B. 

      Amphetamine

    • C. 

      SSRIs

    • D. 

      Imipramine

  • 290. 
    The serotonin hypothesis relies of serotonin's link to ...
    • A. 

      Stress

    • B. 

      Emotion regulation

    • C. 

      Mood

    • D. 

      Physical activity

  • 291. 
    The major mechanism for controlling extracellular monoamine dynamics in depression is through re-uptake, which of the following is NOT a monoamine plasma membrane pre-synaptic transporter?
    • A. 

      DAT

    • B. 

      MET

    • C. 

      SERT

    • D. 

      NET

  • 292. 
    Which of the following Anti-depressants is the 'newest'?
    • A. 

      SNRI's

    • B. 

      SSRI's

    • C. 

      Tricyclics

    • D. 

      MOA-inhibitors

  • 293. 
    The most commonly used animal model to test anti-depressant is ...
    • A. 

      Learned helplessness

    • B. 

      Forced swim test

    • C. 

      Fear conditioning

    • D. 

      Prolonged isolation

  • 294. 
    The HPA - axis stands for?
    • A. 

      Hippocampus - pituitary - amygdala

    • B. 

      Hypothalamus - pituitary - adrenals

    • C. 

      Hypothalamus - perihinal - amygdala

    • D. 

      Hippocampus - perihinal - adrenals

  • 295. 
    Within the HPA axis, which structure is responsible for releasing Cortico-trophin releasing factor?
    • A. 

      Hippocampus

    • B. 

      Hypothalamus (PVN)

    • C. 

      Pituitary (anterior)

    • D. 

      Adrenals

  • 296. 
    A reduced neurogenesis (particularly in the hippocampus) has been linked to depression, which of the following factors promotes rather than reduces neurogenesis?
    • A. 

      Antidepressants

    • B. 

      Stress

    • C. 

      Sleep deprivation

    • D. 

      Age

  • 297. 
    Within the HPA axis, which structure is responsible for releasing ACTH?
    • A. 

      Hippocampus

    • B. 

      Hypothalamus (PVN)

    • C. 

      Anterior Pituitary

    • D. 

      Adrenals

  • 298. 
    Within the HPA axis, which structure is responsible for releasing glucocorticosteroids (such as cortisol)?
    • A. 

      Hippocampus

    • B. 

      Hypothalamus

    • C. 

      Pituitary

    • D. 

      Adrenals

  • 299. 
    Which of the following is NOT evidence in favour of the HPA's role in depression?
    • A. 

      Corticosteroids given to treat arthritis cause depression

    • B. 

      Antidepressants increase activity in the HPA

    • C. 

      Cushing's disease causes depression alongside other effects

    • D. 

      Depressed patients often have enlarged adrenal glands

  • 300. 
    Depressed patients are shown to have abnormalities in which molecule circulating at very high levels in blood plasma?
    • A. 

      Glucocorticoids

    • B. 

      Corticotrophin releasing factor

    • C. 

      ACTH

    • D. 

      Serotonin

  • 301. 
    Which of the following is an incorrect hypothesis for the origin of mood disorders?
    • A. 

      Increased noradrenaline

    • B. 

      Decreased serotonin

    • C. 

      Decreased neurogenesis

    • D. 

      Increased corticoreleasing factor

  • 302. 
    Alpha fetoprotein protects the female brain from the masculinisation effects of ....
    • A. 

      Oestrogen

    • B. 

      Progesterone

    • C. 

      Testosterone

    • D. 

      Lutenising hormone