Neuro Final

120 Questions | Total Attempts: 53

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Neuro Quizzes & Trivia

Neuro Final. This is to help!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    An oscillatory movement around a joint is termed:
    • A. 

      Tremor

    • B. 

      Chorea

    • C. 

      Athetosis

    • D. 

      Ballismus

  • 2. 
    What is an inherited/familial tremor that is often associated with posture?
    • A. 

      Intention

    • B. 

      Resting

    • C. 

      Pill Rolling

    • D. 

      Essential

  • 3. 
    What is chorea?
    • A. 

      Proximal, rapid, flingy

    • B. 

      Distal & writhing

    • C. 

      Pretzel like movement disorder

    • D. 

      Involuntary movement of an isolated muscles

  • 4. 
    Ballismus is a result of damage where?
    • A. 

      Cerebellum

    • B. 

      Basal ganglia

    • C. 

      Cortex

    • D. 

      Subthalamus

  • 5. 
    An oscillatory movement of the limbs and trunk:
    • A. 

      Athetosis

    • B. 

      Ballismus

    • C. 

      Ataxia

    • D. 

      Chorea

  • 6. 
    Which of the following is not true of Huntington's chorea?
    • A. 

      Autosomal dominant

    • B. 

      Shows up in 40s and 50s

    • C. 

      Cannot be found through genetic testing

    • D. 

      Is often masked in early stages

  • 7. 
    When does Syndemanks Chorea occur?
    • A. 

      After rheumatic fever

    • B. 

      After a TBI

    • C. 

      Following a CVA

  • 8. 
    Difficulty or slowness in executing movement is termed:
    • A. 

      Akinesthia

    • B. 

      Bradykinesthia

    • C. 

      Rigidity

  • 9. 
    What is Cogwheel rigidity?
    • A. 

      Abnormally high muscle tone all the time

    • B. 

      Catching between flexion and extension

    • C. 

      Someone who is stuck in flexion

  • 10. 
    Which of the following does not occur in Stage 1 of Parkinson's disease?
    • A. 

      Micrographia

    • B. 

      Blank face

    • C. 

      Festinating gait

    • D. 

      Dementia

  • 11. 
    What is the term that refers to the inability to perform rapidly alternating movements?
    • A. 

      Dysmetria

    • B. 

      Dysdiadochokinesia

    • C. 

      Rebound Phenomenon

  • 12. 
    Which of the following is not a global mental function?
    • A. 

      Consciousness

    • B. 

      Temperament

    • C. 

      Memory

    • D. 

      Intellect

    • E. 

      Energy and drive

  • 13. 
    What are three specific mental functions?
    • A. 

      Attention, perception, memory

    • B. 

      Attention, memory, and orientation

    • C. 

      Memory, intellect, and attention

    • D. 

      Perception, attention, and consciousness

  • 14. 
    What is cognitive flexibility considered to be?
    • A. 

      Global mental

    • B. 

      Specific mental

    • C. 

      Executive function

  • 15. 
    What is meta-cognition?
    • A. 

      Large cognition

    • B. 

      Thinking about thinking

    • C. 

      Learning about learning

  • 16. 
    A response decriment to a repetitive, non-noxious stimuli is called:
    • A. 

      Habituation

    • B. 

      Sensitization

    • C. 

      Associative learning

    • D. 

      Non-associative learning

    • E. 

      A & D

  • 17. 
    ___ occurs when stimuli are paired; the ability to predict relationships between stimuli.
    • A. 

      Non-associative learning

    • B. 

      Associative learning

  • 18. 
    In habituation with synaptic potentiation, what does calcium do?
    • A. 

      Decrease

    • B. 

      Increase

  • 19. 
    All non-associative learning involves:
    • A. 

      Acetylocholine

    • B. 

      Dopamine

    • C. 

      Calcium

  • 20. 
    Learning of any kind involves:
    • A. 

      Modification of synaptic ability

    • B. 

      Modification of the cellular membrane

    • C. 

      Modification of the neuron

  • 21. 
    What does semantic memory refer to?
    • A. 

      Memory of an episode in your life

    • B. 

      Generalize knowledge about the world

    • C. 

      Unintential recollection

    • D. 

      Knowing how to get the answer

  • 22. 
    Memory that you consciously try to retrieve is called:
    • A. 

      Episodic

    • B. 

      Implicit

    • C. 

      Explicit

    • D. 

      Semantic

    • E. 

      Field

  • 23. 
    Which of the following is not true about short-term memory?
    • A. 

      Lost without verbal practice or attention

    • B. 

      Lasts a few minutes

    • C. 

      Also called working memory

    • D. 

      Requires activation or potentiation of circuits several times

    • E. 

      Lost first

  • 24. 
    Where does encoding of short term memory occur?
    • A. 

      Amygdala

    • B. 

      Hippocampal formation

    • C. 

      Temporal lobe

  • 25. 
    Reflexive memory is also known as __
    • A. 

      Working

    • B. 

      Procedural

    • C. 

      Emotional

  • 26. 
    A chronic alcoholism syndrome that causes changes in the mamillary bodies and hypothalamus is called:
    • A. 

      Amnesia

    • B. 

      Parkinson's

    • C. 

      Korsakoff's psychosis

    • D. 

      Dementia

  • 27. 
    The inability to remember events afte rthe injury is called:
    • A. 

      Dementia

    • B. 

      Anterograde amnesia

    • C. 

      Retrograde amnesia

  • 28. 
    What is the smalles unit of meaning?
    • A. 

      Phoneme

    • B. 

      Morpheme

    • C. 

      Semantic

  • 29. 
    How you can combine words for meaning refers to:
    • A. 

      Pragmatics

    • B. 

      Semantics

    • C. 

      Phonology

    • D. 

      Syntax

  • 30. 
    Which are is for speech comprehension and where is it localized?
    • A. 

      Brocas, 1st left temporal convolution

    • B. 

      Wernickes, 3rd left frontal convolution

    • C. 

      Wernickes, 1st left temporal convolution

    • D. 

      Brocas, 3rd left frontal

  • 31. 
    What are the two mechanisms of communication in the CNS?
    • A. 

      Propagation

    • B. 

      At synapse

    • C. 

      Between axons

    • D. 

      A & B

    • E. 

      A& C

  • 32. 
    Which of the following is not one of the parameters that describe speech sounds?
    • A. 

      Manner

    • B. 

      Person

    • C. 

      Place

    • D. 

      Voicing

  • 33. 
    _____ is localized to the 3rd left frontal convolution (L inferior frontal gyrus).
    • A. 

      Speech

    • B. 

      Speech comprehension

    • C. 

      Emotions

  • 34. 
    _____ is localized to the 1st left temporal convolution ( posterior part of the superior temporal gyrus).
    • A. 

      Speech

    • B. 

      Speech comprehension

    • C. 

      Emotional thought

  • 35. 
    What is anomic aphasia?
    • A. 

      Can't talk

    • B. 

      Can't find the words

    • C. 

      Can't name

  • 36. 
    Which of the following is not a criterion of a neurotransmitter?
    • A. 

      It is synthesized in the neuron

    • B. 

      It is present in the presynaptic terminal

    • C. 

      It is present in the postsynaptic terminal

    • D. 

      When applied exogenously, produces same effects as endogenous

    • E. 

      A specific mechanism exists for removing it from its site of action

  • 37. 
    What is co-existence?
    • A. 

      Many cells exist together

    • B. 

      A cell has more than one neuron

    • C. 

      A neuron that produces more than one neurotrasmitter

    • D. 

      A neuron produces more than one neuromodulator

  • 38. 
    Which of the following is not a common biochemical feature of a receptor?
    • A. 

      Proteins that bind to NT molecules

    • B. 

      Geographically located to face inward

    • C. 

      Geographically located to face outward

    • D. 

      All of these are true

  • 39. 
    What does a ligand gated ion channel do?
    • A. 

      Sustains activity like a shuttle activity

    • B. 

      Opens and allows neurotransmitters to outflow

    • C. 

      Most common

    • D. 

      Least common

    • E. 

      More than 2 of these

  • 40. 
    Neuromodulators more often use:
    • A. 

      Ligand gated ion channels

    • B. 

      G protein mediated receptors

  • 41. 
    Which of the following is not a biogenic amine?
    • A. 

      Dopamine

    • B. 

      Norepinephrine

    • C. 

      Serotonin

    • D. 

      Histamine

    • E. 

      Glutamate

  • 42. 
    Which of the following is not true of acetylcholine?
    • A. 

      Major function in the peripheral nervous system

    • B. 

      Found in pyramidal cells of Betz

    • C. 

      Used by one about 1/2 of the neurons that synapse with muscle fibers

  • 43. 
    Which drug stimulates the thalamus and hypothalamus and involved in flight or fight?
    • A. 

      Norephinephrine

    • B. 

      Dopamine

    • C. 

      Serotonin

    • D. 

      Histamine

  • 44. 
    What does Histamine do?
    • A. 

      Stimulate the thalamus

    • B. 

      Inflammation and allergy activity

    • C. 

      Parkison's

    • D. 

      Modulate pain

  • 45. 
    What plays an important role in the sleep-wake cycle?
    • A. 

      Dopamine

    • B. 

      Norepinephrine

    • C. 

      Serotonin

    • D. 

      Enkephalins

  • 46. 
    What do enkephalins and opiods do?
    • A. 

      Central pauin pathways

    • B. 

      Enhance pleasure

    • C. 

      Long-lasting

    • D. 

      All of these

  • 47. 
    _____ has a major role in synaptic plastic, but can cause excitotoxicity.
    • A. 

      L-Glutamate

    • B. 

      GABA

    • C. 

      Glycin

    • D. 

      Acetylcholine

  • 48. 
    Which is not inhibitory?
    • A. 

      Glycin

    • B. 

      L-Glutamate

    • C. 

      GABA

  • 49. 
    To diagnose major depressive disorder, you need ____ symptoms for how long?
    • A. 

      4; 2 months

    • B. 

      5 ; 2 weeks

    • C. 

      4; 2 years

    • D. 

      5; 2 years

  • 50. 
    What is not a symptoms of MDD?
    • A. 

      Anhadonia

    • B. 

      Weight gain or loss

    • C. 

      Fatigue

    • D. 

      Increased activity

    • E. 

      Hypersomnia

  • 51. 
    What differentiates MDD from dysthymic disorder?
    • A. 

      The time frame

    • B. 

      The number of symptoms

    • C. 

      The symptoms

  • 52. 
    What is Bipolar affective disorder tpe II?
    • A. 

      Classic manic depressive

    • B. 

      Hypomania with depression

  • 53. 
    Are mood disorders more prevalent in males or females?
    • A. 

      Males

    • B. 

      Females

  • 54. 
    What age group is a mood disorder most likely to present?
    • A. 

      15-20

    • B. 

      40-65

    • C. 

      25-40

    • D. 

      13-20

  • 55. 
    Why should we know about mood disorders?
    • A. 

      Common

    • B. 

      Treatable

    • C. 

      Fatal

    • D. 

      All of these

  • 56. 
    Mood stabilizers affect which system?
    • A. 

      Acetylocholine

    • B. 

      Serotonin

    • C. 

      Dopamine

  • 57. 
    Which regions are at the highest risk for mood disorders?
    • A. 

      S & NW

    • B. 

      NE & S

    • C. 

      NE & W

    • D. 

      W & S

  • 58. 
    A _____ is a false, fixed belief.
    • A. 

      Delusion

    • B. 

      Hallucination

    • C. 

      Illusion

  • 59. 
    A sensory perception in the absence of an environmental stimuli is called a:
    • A. 

      Delusion

    • B. 

      Hallucination

    • C. 

      Illusion

  • 60. 
    How is delusional disorder diagnosed?
    • A. 

      Go more than 2 months with non-bizarre delusions

    • B. 

      Go more than 1 month with non-bizarre delusions

    • C. 

      Go more than 1 month with bizarre delusions

  • 61. 
    What is schizophrenia?
    • A. 

      Mania and depression

    • B. 

      Having two personalities

    • C. 

      Split of thought and emotion from behavior

    • D. 

      Being delusional

  • 62. 
    To have schizophreniform disorder, how long should symptoms be present?
    • A. 

      Less than 6 months

    • B. 

      More than 6 months

    • C. 

      At least a year

  • 63. 
    In schizophrenia, there is too much ____.
    • A. 

      Dopamine

    • B. 

      Acetylcholine

    • C. 

      Serotonin

  • 64. 
    What is a symptoms of schizophrenia?
    • A. 

      Negative symptoms

    • B. 

      Disorganized speech or behavior

    • C. 

      Hallucination

    • D. 

      All of these

  • 65. 
    What is the worldwide prevalence of shizophrenia?
    • A. 

      1%

    • B. 

      2%

    • C. 

      14%

    • D. 

      7%

  • 66. 
    What is a common change in the brain structure and chemistry?
    • A. 

      Smaller occipital lobe

    • B. 

      Deteriorating substantia nigra

    • C. 

      Lateral and 3rd ventricles are enlarged

    • D. 

      Temporal lobe is larger

  • 67. 
    _____ of those with schizophrenia have significant symptoms, attempt suicide, or die.
    • A. 

      1/4

    • B. 

      1/2

  • 68. 
    What is a common side effect of schizophrenia medications?
    • A. 

      Movement disorders

    • B. 

      Torticollis

    • C. 

      Parkison's

    • D. 

      Acethesia

    • E. 

      All of these

  • 69. 
    Which of the following is irreversible?
    • A. 

      Acethesia

    • B. 

      Tardive dyskinesia

    • C. 

      Acute dystonia

    • D. 

      Torticollis

  • 70. 
    Most people with epilepsy experience their fist seizure before age:
    • A. 

      20

    • B. 

      30

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      15

  • 71. 
    Which drug is used to treat absence only seizures?
    • A. 

      Klonopin

    • B. 

      Tegretol

    • C. 

      Zarontin

    • D. 

      Dilantin

  • 72. 
    Which AED is mainly used to treat drugs that involve muscular tone?
    • A. 

      Klonopin

    • B. 

      Dilantin

    • C. 

      Tegretol

    • D. 

      Ativan

  • 73. 
    Which AED is given in infants?
    • A. 

      Phenobarbitol

    • B. 

      Klonopin

    • C. 

      Dilantin

    • D. 

      Tegretol

  • 74. 
    ____ is a prolonged, repetitive seizures without rest.
    • A. 

      Tonic-Clonic

    • B. 

      Absence

    • C. 

      Myoclonic

    • D. 

      Status Epilepticus

  • 75. 
    Which is true of a simple partial seizure?
    • A. 

      Loss of consciousness.

    • B. 

      Automatisms

    • C. 

      Rotten egg small may occur

    • D. 

      Preserved consciousness

    • E. 

      More than 1.

  • 76. 
    Which AED interrupts seizure clustering?
    • A. 

      Klonopin

    • B. 

      Dilantin

    • C. 

      Phenobarbital

    • D. 

      Depakote

    • E. 

      Ativan

  • 77. 
    What is the famous sign of Dilantin use?
    • A. 

      Nystagmus

    • B. 

      Incoordination

    • C. 

      Ataxia

    • D. 

      Gingival hyperplasia

  • 78. 
    If you were wanting to show soft tissue problems or vascular disease, which would you use?
    • A. 

      CAT

    • B. 

      MRI

    • C. 

      X-Ray

    • D. 

      Cerebral Angiography

  • 79. 
    With an MRI and it's types of images, _____ shows a brain tumor, while _____ shows white plaque problems.
    • A. 

      T1, T2

    • B. 

      Flair, T2

    • C. 

      T1, Flair

    • D. 

      T2, Flair

    • E. 

      Flair, T1

  • 80. 
    If you were wanting to show areas of fresh blood or a tumor, which scan would you use?
    • A. 

      MRI

    • B. 

      CAT

    • C. 

      X-Ray

    • D. 

      Cranial ultrasound

  • 81. 
    What is the definitive test of an aneurysm?
    • A. 

      MRI

    • B. 

      CAT

    • C. 

      Cerebral angiography

    • D. 

      X-ray

  • 82. 
    What is best to show a skull fracture?
    • A. 

      MRI

    • B. 

      CAT

    • C. 

      X-ray

    • D. 

      Cerebral angiography

  • 83. 
    With testing for CNS function, ____ tests for time of sensory information, much like nerve conduction velocity.
    • A. 

      EEG

    • B. 

      PET

    • C. 

      Evoked Responses

    • D. 

      FMRI

  • 84. 
    With an fMRI, what is true?
    • A. 

      It uses gamma decay and is nuclear technology.

    • B. 

      It has characteristic brain waves.

    • C. 

      It identifies active regions of the brain and depends upon oxygen extraction.

    • D. 

      It shows the conduction of sensory information and how long it takes.

  • 85. 
    Which uses nuclear technogology and is very expensive?
    • A. 

      EEG

    • B. 

      Evoked Responses

    • C. 

      FMRI

    • D. 

      PET

  • 86. 
    When looking at an EEG, a spike indicates what type of activity?
    • A. 

      Brain injury

    • B. 

      Seizure

    • C. 

      Stroke

  • 87. 
    ____ if a chronic brain disorder of various etiologies characterized by recurrent unprovoked seizures.
    • A. 

      Chorea

    • B. 

      Epilepsy

    • C. 

      Epileptic Syndromes

    • D. 

      Status Epilepticus

  • 88. 
    Which one of these involves arterial blood and often leads to a talk-and-die syndrome?
    • A. 

      Subdural Hematoma

    • B. 

      Epidural Hematoma

    • C. 

      Intraparenchymal Hematome

  • 89. 
    ____ occurs when axons slide over one another and shut down conduction.
    • A. 

      Cell death

    • B. 

      Neuronal apoptosis

    • C. 

      Axonal shear injury

    • D. 

      Hematoma

  • 90. 
    What is a mass effect?
    • A. 

      When everything in the brain shuts down and leads to a vegetative state.

    • B. 

      When a person dies.

    • C. 

      When ventricles in the brain shift from midline.

    • D. 

      When pressure is so high that the brain shuts down.

  • 91. 
    Which is not one of the three things likely to occur because of pressure on the brain?
    • A. 

      Coma

    • B. 

      Aphasia

    • C. 

      Loss of pupillary light reflex

    • D. 

      Decorticate or decerebrate posturing

  • 92. 
    On the Glasgow Coma Scale, what three things are tested?
    • A. 

      Motor, Eye Opening, Verbal

    • B. 

      Motor, Eye Opening, Sensory

    • C. 

      Sensory, Eye Opening, Verbal

  • 93. 
    On the GCS, scores less than __ indicate severe brain injury.
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      8

    • D. 

      6

  • 94. 
    With Rancho levels, if a person is stuck in this level, they are likely to end up in a persistent vegetative state.
    • A. 

      I

    • B. 

      II

    • C. 

      III

    • D. 

      IV

  • 95. 
    People rarely get stuck in which two phases of Rancho?
    • A. 

      I & IV

    • B. 

      I & II

    • C. 

      Iv & III

  • 96. 
    You are working with a young man after a brain injury and he cusses at you repeatedly. He keeps trying to grab you and is very aggressive. His mother is embarrassed by his activity. You know that he is in rancho level:
    • A. 

      I

    • B. 

      V

    • C. 

      IV

    • D. 

      III

    • E. 

      VII

  • 97. 
    _____is a pervasive cognitive impairment in 2 or more domains, one of which is memory.
    • A. 

      Alzheimers

    • B. 

      Dementia

    • C. 

      Amnesia

  • 98. 
    In the source-filter model of language, ___ is considered the filter.
    • A. 

      Larynx

    • B. 

      Vocal tract

  • 99. 
    What is the most common type of dementia?
    • A. 

      Alzheimers

    • B. 

      Vascular

    • C. 

      Mixed

    • D. 

      Idiopathic

  • 100. 
    With a diagnosis of Alzheimer's, how many years typically exist until death?
    • A. 

      3-5

    • B. 

      7-14

    • C. 

      21

    • D. 

      6-10

  • 101. 
    In which stage of Alzheimer's are we likely to see impairment of IADLS?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      5

  • 102. 
    Which is a common behavioral manifestation of Alzheimer's?
    • A. 

      Paranoid ideation

    • B. 

      Confabulation

    • C. 

      Confusion

    • D. 

      Tactile withdrawal

    • E. 

      All of these

  • 103. 
    What are the rules regarding language use?
    • A. 

      Pragmatics

    • B. 

      Semantics

    • C. 

      Syntax

  • 104. 
    Mass action says that:
    • A. 

      Anything that is important to the survival of the organism is stored in many places in the nervous system.

    • B. 

      If one thing happens in the brain, other things begin to follow that changes.

    • C. 

      If you lose neurons, other neurons will sprout to that area to help out.

    • D. 

      You will overuse systems that are still intact when one system is damaged,

  • 105. 
    Constraint induced therapy is an example of the ___ mechanism of neuroplasticity.
    • A. 

      Denervation supersensitivity

    • B. 

      Mass action

    • C. 

      Functional reorganization

    • D. 

      Vicarious function

  • 106. 
    With Nudo's work, he found that daily use of the affected limb results in the ______hand are expanding.
    • A. 

      Affected

    • B. 

      Unaffected

  • 107. 
    TCMS is a way that what occurs?
    • A. 

      Action potential

    • B. 

      Epilepsy

    • C. 

      Potentiation

  • 108. 
    Neuroplasticity is maximized by interventions that are:
    • A. 

      Of low intensity and drilling

    • B. 

      Intense and contextual

    • C. 

      Low intensity and contextual

  • 109. 
    When you are putting together a puzzle, which type of visual perceptual processing are you using?
    • A. 

      Visuospatial

    • B. 

      Visuoconstruction

  • 110. 
    Neuroanatomists selectively lesioned the right side of the kitten's brain. The kitten is then placed in a enriched environment. With plastic changes, what is true?
    • A. 

      Repair of neurons on the right

    • B. 

      Expansion and branching of neurons on the right

    • C. 

      Expansion and branching of neurons on the left

    • D. 

      No change in neurons

  • 111. 
    First aid for a seizure involves all of the following EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Put an object in the person's mouth

    • B. 

      Lower the person to the floor

    • C. 

      Loosen tight clothing

    • D. 

      Turn them on their side

  • 112. 
    Neuromodulators:
    • A. 

      Produces fast responses

    • B. 

      Modulate the responsiveness of neurons to stimuli

    • C. 

      Are mainly exitatory

    • D. 

      Are mainly inhibitory

  • 113. 
    The ability to separate and distiniguish important parts ot he visual environment from unimportant parts is called:
    • A. 

      Depth perception

    • B. 

      Figure ground perception

    • C. 

      Visual cognition

    • D. 

      None of these

  • 114. 
    When a person has a problem with the ability to transfer objects from 2 dimensional to 3 dimensional, they likely have a problem with:
    • A. 

      Visuospatial

    • B. 

      Visual recognition

    • C. 

      Visual construction

  • 115. 
    When a person has difficulty moving through crowded areas of navigating stairs, they most likely have a problem with:
    • A. 

      Visuospatial

    • B. 

      Visual recognition

    • C. 

      Visual construction

  • 116. 
    What is apperceptive visual agnosia?
    • A. 

      Fundamental lack of recognition that occurs in the later stages and involves memory

    • B. 

      Fundamental lack of recognition that occurs in the early stages

    • C. 

      Fundamental lack of recognition that occurs any time

  • 117. 
    Which occurs in the later stages of visual agnosia?
    • A. 

      Apperceptive

    • B. 

      Associative

  • 118. 
    In neurological visual imparirment, where is the lesion?
    • A. 

      Occipital lobe

    • B. 

      Posterior visual pathway from the lateral genticulate

    • C. 

      Posterior visual pathway from the medial genticulate

    • D. 

      Optic nerve

  • 119. 
    With NVI, do people have an easier time seeing in the periphery or in the central area?
    • A. 

      Central

    • B. 

      Periphery

  • 120. 
    This part of the CNS involved with visual perception is located medial, close to the calcarine sulcus.
    • A. 

      Primary visual cortex

    • B. 

      Visual association cortex

    • C. 

      Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex