Nematodes Quiz: How Much You Know?

43 Questions | Total Attempts: 320

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Nematodes Quiz: How Much You Know?

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Infection of sheep and goats with Bunostomum would be expected to cause:
    • A. 

      Anemia

    • B. 

      Clinically inapparent respiratory disease

    • C. 

      Severe central nervous system disease

    • D. 

      Abortion storms

    • E. 

      Mucopurulent ocular and nasal discharge

  • 2. 
    Adults of Stephanurus dentatus are usually found in the:
    • A. 

      Perirenal fat of infected sheep and goats

    • B. 

      Perirenal fat of infected pigs

    • C. 

      Lungs (bronchi and bronchioles) of infected pigs

    • D. 

      Liver of infected pigs

    • E. 

      Liver of infected sheep and goats

  • 3. 
    Cutaneous larva migrans in humans is most commonly caused by which two of the following parasites:
    • A. 

      Ancylostoma caninum

    • B. 

      Uncinara stenophala

    • C. 

      Ancylostoma tubaeforme

    • D. 

      Ancylostoma braziliense

    • E. 

      Bunostomum phlebotomum

  • 4. 
    The intermediate host of Metastrongylus apri is a:
    • A. 

      Dung beetle

    • B. 

      Earthworm

    • C. 

      Snail or slug

    • D. 

      Muscid fly

    • E. 

      None, no intermediate host required (direct life cycle)

  • 5. 
    Nodules in the respiratory mucosa near the tracheal bifurcation in a dog are most commonly associated with infection with:
    • A. 

      Filaroides hirthi

    • B. 

      Filaroides osleri

    • C. 

      Paragonimus kellicotti

    • D. 

      Aelurostrongylus abstrusus

    • E. 

      Capillaria plica

  • 6. 
    The preferred method for definitely diagnosing Aelurstrongylus abstrusus infection in cats is:
    • A. 

      Fecal sedimentation

    • B. 

      Fecal filtration

    • C. 

      Direct smear of feces

    • D. 

      Baermann examination of feces

    • E. 

      Thoracic radiographs

  • 7. 
    As they develop, nematodes progress through a series of larval molts (L1, L2, etc...).  Although many exceptions occur, which stage is usually infective to a definitive host?
    • A. 

      L1

    • B. 

      L2

    • C. 

      L3

    • D. 

      L4

    • E. 

      L5

  • 8. 
    In clinical practice, Strongyloides infection is most often seen in young animals kept in conditions of very poor environmental hygiene.  What two aspects of the life cycle of Strongyloides explain this presentation (young animals, poor hygiene).
    • A. 

      Transplacental transmission

    • B. 

      Development to infectious L1 in fecal pats

    • C. 

      Transmammary transmission

    • D. 

      Ability to rapidly reproduce through free-living life cycle

    • E. 

      Larvae are immediately infectious when shed

  • 9. 
    Puppies that die at 2 days of age because of large numbers of larval nematodes migrating and molting in their lungs are most likely infected with which parasite?
    • A. 

      Physaloptera

    • B. 

      Trichuris vulpis

    • C. 

      Strongyloides stercoralis

    • D. 

      Toxascaris leonina

    • E. 

      Toxocara canis

  • 10. 
    Spirocerca lupi can cause severe disease in infected dogs due to both the migration of Maturin glarvae and the presence of the adults.  Disease resulting from infection with Spirocerca lupi is often associated with which two of the following:
    • A. 

      Constipation

    • B. 

      Aortic aneurysm

    • C. 

      Hypertonic bladder

    • D. 

      Seizure disorders

    • E. 

      Esophageal granuloma

  • 11. 
    Where are the parasitic adults of Trichuris vulpis?
    • A. 

      Esophageal wall

    • B. 

      Stomach wall

    • C. 

      Duodenal mucosa

    • D. 

      Colonic and cecal mucosa

    • E. 

      Transitional epithelium of the bladder

  • 12. 
    Severe neurologic disease due to migration of ascarid larvae in the CNS of a human aberrant host is a concern for which of the following parasites:
    • A. 

      Trichinella

    • B. 

      Strongyloides

    • C. 

      Trichuris

    • D. 

      Capillaria

    • E. 

      Baylisascaris

  • 13. 
    A colleague in Atlanta reports finding Trichuris in a fecal float from a cat.  Eggs of what parasite closely resemble those of Trichuris and were more likely the organisms seen?
    • A. 

      Caillaria/Eucoleus

    • B. 

      Physaloptera

    • C. 

      Toxocara

    • D. 

      Strongyloides

    • E. 

      Toxascaris

  • 14. 
    Which of the following heartworm infections will be commercially available in-clinic antigen kits not detect:
    • A. 

      Early prepatent (< 5 month old worms)

    • B. 

      Immune-mediated occult

    • C. 

      Early patent

    • D. 

      Late patent

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 15. 
    Which of the following signs is most common in heartworm infected dogs with CHF:
    • A. 

      Ascites

    • B. 

      Hydrothorax

    • C. 

      Hemoglobinuria

    • D. 

      Hemoptysis

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 16. 
    The prepatent period of Dirofilaria immitis is approximately how long:
    • A. 

      2-4 weeks

    • B. 

      1-2 months

    • C. 

      3-5 months

    • D. 

      6-8 months

    • E. 

      1-2 years

  • 17. 
    Which of the following statements regarding heartworm infection in cats if false:
    • A. 

      Prevalence of heartworm infection in cats is usually about 10-20% of that in dogs in the same area

    • B. 

      Aberrant migration of worms in ectopic sites is common in dogs but does not occur in cats

    • C. 

      About a fourth of heartworm-infected cats are reported by owner to be entirely indoor cats

    • D. 

      The life span of adult worms appears to be shorter in cats (2-3 worms) can cause more severe pathology in a cat than in a dog

    • E. 

      Cats are less susceptible than dogs to infection, but a low worm burden (only 2-3 worms) can cause more severe pathology in a cat than in a dog

  • 18. 
    Adult heartworm (> 6 months of age) in ferrets are usually found in the right ventricle/right atrium and which of the following locations:
    • A. 

      Saphenous vein

    • B. 

      Femoral arteries

    • C. 

      Caudal lobar arteries

    • D. 

      Cranial vena cava

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 19. 
    Which two of the following diagnostic methods, if positive, would give a definitive positive diagnosis of feline heartworm infection?
    • A. 

      Echocardiography

    • B. 

      Antibody test

    • C. 

      Antigen test

    • D. 

      Serum chemistry profile

    • E. 

      Electrocardiogram

  • 20. 
    Dirofilaria immitis infection in humans is characterized by the detection of:
    • A. 

      Microfilaria in the blood

    • B. 

      Adult worms seen in the pulmonary artery by arteriography

    • C. 

      Tortuous tracts in the skin

    • D. 

      A "coin lesion" seen in the lungs by chest radiograph

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 21. 
    While not pathognomonic, which of the following is most suggestive of vena cave syndrome in dogs:
    • A. 

      Ascites

    • B. 

      Hemoglobinuria

    • C. 

      Microfilaria-positive and antigen-positive test results

    • D. 

      Proteinuria

    • E. 

      Dyspnea

  • 22. 
    A cat is tested for heartworm infection and the results come back antibody-positive, antigen-negative. Which of the following could NOT be an accurate interpretation of these test results?
    • A. 

      Cat was infected at least 2 months earlier (young prepatent infection)

    • B. 

      Only adult male worms (>5) are present

    • C. 

      Only adult female worms (>5) are present

    • D. 

      Antibody persists but antigen has cleared following the death of adult worms

    • E. 

      A transient antibody response when early infection is cleared by monthly prophylaxis

  • 23. 
    Which of the following animals would be most likely to serve as a source of Trichinella spp.  infection to humans in the U.S.?
    • A. 

      Sheep

    • B. 

      Bear

    • C. 

      Cattle

    • D. 

      Deer

    • E. 

      Rabbit

  • 24. 
    Foals become infected with Parascaris equorum:
    • A. 

      When they ingest larvated eggs from a contaminated environment

    • B. 

      Transplacentally from the somatic tissue stores in the mare

    • C. 

      Transmammary from larvae mobilized from mare somatic tissue

    • D. 

      By inadvertent ingestion of insect intermediate hosts when grazing

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 25. 
    Eggs of Toxocara canis:
    • A. 

      Are immediately infectious when shed

    • B. 

      Require 2-4 days in the environment to develop to infectious stage

    • C. 

      Requires 2-4 weeks in the environment to develop to infectious stage

    • D. 

      Requires 2-4 months in the environment to develop to infectious stae

    • E. 

      None of the above

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