NCCT - Practice Test #2

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Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 183
Questions: 75 | Attempts: 183

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NCCT Quizzes & Trivia

This is the NCCT practice test i bought on their website


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    To ensure that the medical office has the supplies it needs, the medical assistant should establish a(n) __________.

    • A.

      Reorder point

    • B.

      Inventory control log

    • C.

      Order quantity

    • D.

      All answers are correct

    Correct Answer
    D. All answers are correct
    Explanation
    The medical assistant should establish a system that includes a reorder point, inventory control log, and order quantity to ensure that the medical office has the supplies it needs. A reorder point is the minimum quantity of supplies at which a new order should be placed. An inventory control log helps keep track of the supplies and their quantities. Order quantity refers to the amount of supplies that should be ordered to meet the office's needs. By implementing all of these measures, the medical assistant can effectively manage the office's supply needs.

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  • 2. 

    A(n) __________ is created containing the name, address, and phone number of both the vendor and the medical practice. It will also have a pre-assigned number to track the order, the quantity of items ordered, the price of the items, and the date purchased.

    • A.

      Inventory control tag

    • B.

      Packing slip

    • C.

      Purchase order

    • D.

      Invoice

    Correct Answer
    C. Purchase order
    Explanation
    A purchase order is a document that contains the necessary information such as the name, address, and phone number of both the vendor and the medical practice. It also includes a pre-assigned number to track the order, the quantity of items ordered, the price of the items, and the date purchased. This document serves as a formal request from the medical practice to the vendor to supply certain items and acts as a legally binding agreement between both parties.

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  • 3. 

    Periodically, the medical assistant should check all electrical equipment in the office to ensure that cords are not frayed, do not present hazards, and are in good working order. A(n) __________ will help the medical assistant track this routine inspection.

    • A.

      Inventory log

    • B.

      Maintenance log

    • C.

      Quality control log

    • D.

      No answers are correct

    Correct Answer
    B. Maintenance log
    Explanation
    A maintenance log is a record or documentation of all maintenance activities performed on equipment or machinery. In this case, the medical assistant needs to regularly check the electrical equipment in the office to ensure safety and proper functioning. By using a maintenance log, the medical assistant can keep track of when inspections were done, any issues found, and any repairs or maintenance performed. This log serves as a useful tool to ensure that all equipment is regularly inspected and maintained, reducing the risk of hazards and ensuring the equipment is in good working order.

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  • 4. 

    When a physician dictates an operative report and asks the medical assistant to type it up, the physician is asking the medical assistant to function as a __________.

    • A.

      Transcriptionist

    • B.

      Stenographer

    • C.

      Decoder

    • D.

      Receptionist

    Correct Answer
    A. Transcriptionist
    Explanation
    When a physician dictates an operative report and asks the medical assistant to type it up, the physician is asking the medical assistant to function as a transcriptionist. A transcriptionist is responsible for listening to recorded dictations and typing them into written documents. In this scenario, the medical assistant is being asked to transcribe the physician's dictation into a written operative report.

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  • 5. 

    Under the Peer Review Improvement Act of 1982, Peer Review Organizations are responsible for the review for appropriateness and necessity of hospitalizing a patient by a process known as __________.

    • A.

      Procedure review

    • B.

      Admissions review

    • C.

      Appropriateness review

    • D.

      Transfer review

    Correct Answer
    B. Admissions review
    Explanation
    Under the Peer Review Improvement Act of 1982, Peer Review Organizations are responsible for reviewing the appropriateness and necessity of hospitalizing a patient. This process is known as admissions review, where the Peer Review Organizations assess whether the patient's admission to the hospital is appropriate and necessary based on established criteria and guidelines. This review helps ensure that patients are receiving the appropriate level of care and that hospital resources are being used efficiently.

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  • 6. 

    Which one of the following is a decision based upon bioethics?

    • A.

      Reporting physical, emotional, or mental abuse

    • B.

      Treating a 16 year old girl who is pregnant without parental consent

    • C.

      The use of fetal tissue transplantation for research

    • D.

      Reporting to the authorities a suicidal patient

    Correct Answer
    C. The use of fetal tissue transplantation for research
    Explanation
    The use of fetal tissue transplantation for research is a decision based upon bioethics because it involves the ethical considerations surrounding the use of human fetal tissue for scientific purposes. Bioethics involves evaluating the moral implications of medical and biological advancements, and determining what is ethically acceptable in areas such as research, treatment, and patient care. The use of fetal tissue transplantation raises questions about the sanctity of life, the rights of the unborn, and the potential benefits and risks of such research.

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  • 7. 

    A physician must have the patient’s permission in writing to reveal any confidential information, except for which one of the following?

    • A.

      Gunshot wound

    • B.

      Anorexia

    • C.

      Drug addiction

    • D.

      Pregnancy

    Correct Answer
    A. Gunshot wound
    Explanation
    A physician does not need the patient's permission in writing to reveal information about a gunshot wound because it is considered a life-threatening situation and falls under the exception of "duty to warn" or "duty to protect" others from harm. In such cases, the physician has an obligation to report the incident to the appropriate authorities to ensure public safety.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following is a federal regulation that requires health care professionals to protect the privacy and confidentiality of patients’ health information?

    • A.

      OSHA

    • B.

      CLIA

    • C.

      CMS

    • D.

      HIPAA

    Correct Answer
    D. HIPAA
    Explanation
    HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) is a federal regulation that requires health care professionals to protect the privacy and confidentiality of patients' health information. It establishes standards for the electronic exchange, privacy, and security of health information, ensuring that health care providers safeguard patient data and maintain confidentiality. OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration), CLIA (Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments), and CMS (Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services) are not directly related to patient privacy and confidentiality.

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  • 9. 

    A business letter written in full block style will have all lines __________.

    • A.

      Right justified

    • B.

      Indented 5 spaces

    • C.

      Equally spaced vertically

    • D.

      At the left hand margin

    Correct Answer
    D. At the left hand margin
    Explanation
    A business letter written in full block style will have all lines at the left hand margin. In full block style, the entire letter is aligned to the left, meaning that all lines start at the left hand margin. This creates a clean and professional look, with each line beginning at the same point. It also makes the letter easier to read and understand.

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  • 10. 

    When writing a business letter, the salutation of a letter should be followed by which punctuation mark?

    • A.

      Comma

    • B.

      Semicolon

    • C.

      Asterisk

    • D.

      Colon

    Correct Answer
    D. Colon
    Explanation
    In a business letter, the salutation is the greeting or opening of the letter. It is usually followed by a colon. The colon is used to introduce the main body of the letter or to indicate that the writer is addressing a specific person or group. Using a colon after the salutation helps to create a formal and professional tone in the letter.

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  • 11. 

    When handling a patient complaint, which one of the following would be most appropriate?

    • A.

      If the patient is angry, match his/her anger level and s/he will calm down.

    • B.

      Take all complaints seriously and take thorough notes.

    • C.

      Refuse to talk to patients who are complaining; the doctor should handle them.

    • D.

      No correct answer

    Correct Answer
    B. Take all complaints seriously and take thorough notes.
    Explanation
    When handling a patient complaint, it is important to take all complaints seriously and take thorough notes. This approach shows respect and empathy towards the patient, acknowledging their concerns and ensuring that their complaint is properly documented. By doing so, healthcare professionals can better understand the issue, address it appropriately, and potentially prevent similar problems in the future. It also demonstrates a commitment to quality care and patient satisfaction. Matching the patient's anger level or refusing to talk to complaining patients are inappropriate responses that do not address the underlying issue or promote effective communication.

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  • 12. 

    Body language, body posture, space, and distance are all examples of __________.

    • A.

      Non-verbal communication

    • B.

      Verbal communication

    • C.

      Written communication

    • D.

      All answers are correct

    Correct Answer
    A. Non-verbal communication
    Explanation
    Body language, body posture, space, and distance are all forms of communication that do not involve spoken or written words. These forms of communication are known as non-verbal communication. They convey messages through gestures, facial expressions, body movements, and the use of personal space. Therefore, the correct answer is non-verbal communication.

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  • 13. 

    What is the suggested procedure for canceling an appointment in the appointment book?

    • A.

      Erase the entry and write in the new appointment.

    • B.

      Put “white-out” over the entry and write on top.

    • C.

      Scribble out the entry and indicate your initials.

    • D.

      Mark through the entry with a single red line.

    Correct Answer
    D. Mark through the entry with a single red line.
    Explanation
    The suggested procedure for canceling an appointment in the appointment book is to mark through the entry with a single red line. This is the most common and widely accepted method of canceling an appointment in a written schedule. It clearly indicates that the appointment has been canceled and avoids any confusion or misunderstandings. Erasing the entry and writing in a new appointment, putting "white-out" over the entry, or scribbling out the entry and indicating initials can lead to confusion and mistakes in the schedule.

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  • 14. 

    The amount an insured patient must pay toward claims each year before the insurance company will pay for medical treatment is known as the __________.

    • A.

      Covered amount

    • B.

      Deductable

    • C.

      Explanation of benefits

    • D.

      Co-pay

    Correct Answer
    B. Deductable
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "deductible". A deductible is the amount that an insured patient must pay out of pocket before their insurance company starts covering the medical expenses. Once the deductible is met, the insurance company will then begin to pay for the medical treatment. The deductible is usually a fixed amount that needs to be paid annually.

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  • 15. 

    Instructions to an insurance company about where to make payment and to whom are called __________.

    • A.

      Payment agreements

    • B.

      Assignment of benefits

    • C.

      Benefit accommodations

    • D.

      Assignment of payments

    Correct Answer
    B. Assignment of benefits
    Explanation
    Instructions given to an insurance company regarding the location and recipient of payment are referred to as "assignment of benefits." This term is commonly used in the insurance industry to specify who should receive the insurance payments and where they should be sent. It ensures that the funds are disbursed correctly and to the appropriate party as agreed upon in the assignment of benefits.

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  • 16. 

    The Internal Revenue Service issues a(n) __________ to medical groups or solo practices for income tax purposes.

    • A.

      Social Security number

    • B.

      Federal tax identification number

    • C.

      State tax number

    • D.

      Insurance ID number

    Correct Answer
    B. Federal tax identification number
    Explanation
    The Internal Revenue Service issues a federal tax identification number to medical groups or solo practices for income tax purposes. This number is used to identify the entity for tax filing and reporting purposes, allowing the IRS to track and monitor the income and tax obligations of the medical group or solo practice. It is a unique identifier that distinguishes the entity from others and ensures proper taxation and compliance with tax laws.

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  • 17. 

    An office appointment calendar or book must record not only the name of the patient and the start time of the appointment, but must also indicate the __________.

    • A.

      Duration of the appointment

    • B.

      Relationship to the patient

    • C.

      Social Security number of the patient

    • D.

      Insurance provider’s contact information

    Correct Answer
    A. Duration of the appointment
    Explanation
    An office appointment calendar or book must record the duration of the appointment in order to effectively manage and schedule appointments. This information is essential for the office staff to allocate the appropriate amount of time for each appointment and ensure that the schedule runs smoothly. By recording the duration of the appointment, the office can avoid overlapping appointments and provide adequate time for each patient's needs.

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  • 18. 

    A twelve month period selected for financial purposes is called a(n) __________ year.

    • A.

      Fiscal

    • B.

      Financial

    • C.

      Fiduciary

    • D.

      Accounting

    Correct Answer
    A. Fiscal
    Explanation
    A twelve month period selected for financial purposes is called a fiscal year. This term is commonly used in accounting and finance to refer to the specific time frame that an organization uses to report its financial activities and results. The fiscal year may or may not align with the calendar year and is typically chosen based on the needs and requirements of the organization. It allows for better tracking and analysis of financial performance and helps in planning and budgeting for the future.

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  • 19. 

    Each prescription for a controlled substance requires the physician’s signature and a(n) __________ registration number.

    • A.

      DEA

    • B.

      EPA

    • C.

      FDA

    • D.

      CDC

    Correct Answer
    A. DEA
    Explanation
    Each prescription for a controlled substance requires the physician's signature and a DEA registration number. The DEA (Drug Enforcement Administration) is responsible for enforcing controlled substance laws and regulations in the United States. The DEA registration number is a unique identifier issued to healthcare providers who are authorized to prescribe controlled substances. This number ensures that prescriptions are legitimate and helps prevent the misuse and illegal distribution of controlled substances.

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  • 20. 

    Determining whether a particular medical treatment (i.e. surgery, tests) will be covered under a patient’s insurance policy contract involves a process known as __________.

    • A.

      Pre-certification

    • B.

      Pre-authorization

    • C.

      Pre-determination

    • D.

      Pre-existing

    Correct Answer
    A. Pre-certification
    Explanation
    The process of determining whether a medical treatment will be covered under a patient's insurance policy contract is called pre-certification. This involves verifying if the treatment meets the necessary criteria and obtaining approval from the insurance company before proceeding with the treatment. Pre-certification helps ensure that the treatment is medically necessary and covered by the insurance policy, preventing any unexpected financial burden on the patient.

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  • 21. 

    In the reception area of a medical practice, the computer screen must never __________.

    • A.

      Be facing the file cabinets

    • B.

      Be able to be viewed by patients

    • C.

      Be turned on

    • D.

      Be viewed by medical personnel

    Correct Answer
    B. Be able to be viewed by patients
    Explanation
    In the reception area of a medical practice, it is important that the computer screen is not visible to patients. This is necessary to protect their privacy and ensure the confidentiality of their personal information. Medical personnel should be the only ones who have access to the computer screen, as they are responsible for handling sensitive patient data.

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  • 22. 

    The temperature taken at the armpit is the __________.

    • A.

      Lymphatic temperature

    • B.

      Axillary temperature

    • C.

      Deltoid temperature

    • D.

      Delta temperature

    Correct Answer
    B. Axillary temperature
    Explanation
    The correct answer is axillary temperature. Axillary temperature refers to the measurement of body temperature taken in the armpit. This method is commonly used as a non-invasive and convenient way to estimate core body temperature. It is considered to be less accurate than other methods, such as oral or rectal temperature measurements, but it is still widely used in clinical settings and at home.

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  • 23. 

    What is a break in a bone without penetration of the skin surface over the fracture site called?

    • A.

      Open fracture

    • B.

      Spiral fracture

    • C.

      Greenstick fracture

    • D.

      Closed fracture

    Correct Answer
    D. Closed fracture
    Explanation
    A closed fracture refers to a break in a bone without any penetration of the skin surface over the fracture site. It is also known as a simple fracture. In this type of fracture, the bone is broken but remains within the body and does not protrude through the skin. Closed fractures are typically caused by trauma or injury and can vary in severity, ranging from hairline fractures to complete breaks. Treatment for closed fractures may involve immobilization, such as casting or splinting, and in some cases, surgical intervention may be required.

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  • 24. 

    The abbreviation for three times a day is __________.

    • A.

      Tid

    • B.

      Bid

    • C.

      Qid

    • D.

      Qh

    Correct Answer
    A. Tid
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "tid" because "tid" is the abbreviation for "ter in die" which means "three times a day" in Latin.

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  • 25. 

    The abbreviation for as needed is __________.

    • A.

      Prn

    • B.

      Ppn

    • C.

      An

    • D.

      Add

    Correct Answer
    A. Prn
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "prn" because it is the commonly used abbreviation for "as needed." It is often used in medical prescriptions to indicate that a medication should be taken only when necessary, rather than on a set schedule.

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  • 26. 

    The abbreviation for nothing by mouth is __________.

    • A.

      NPO

    • B.

      NBM

    • C.

      NM

    • D.

      Nom

    Correct Answer
    A. NPO
    Explanation
    The correct abbreviation for "nothing by mouth" is NPO. This abbreviation is commonly used in medical settings to indicate that a patient should not consume any food or drink orally. It is important to use this abbreviation to ensure clear communication among healthcare professionals and to prevent any potential complications or misunderstandings regarding a patient's dietary restrictions.

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  • 27. 

    Which of these would be the best choice to administer an intradermal injection?

    • A.

      Insulin syringe

    • B.

      Tuberculin syringe

    • C.

      Hypodermic syringes

    • D.

      A closed injection system

    Correct Answer
    B. Tuberculin syringe
    Explanation
    The best choice to administer an intradermal injection would be a Tuberculin syringe. This type of syringe is specifically designed for intradermal injections, which involve injecting a small amount of medication just below the surface of the skin. Tuberculin syringes have a small, fine needle and a low dead space, allowing for precise and accurate dosage delivery. Insulin syringes are typically used for subcutaneous injections, while hypodermic syringes are more commonly used for intramuscular or subcutaneous injections. A closed injection system refers to a method of administering medication that minimizes the risk of contamination and is not specific to intradermal injections.

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  • 28. 

    When you have finished using a reagent, you should __________.

    • A.

      Refrigerate it for further use

    • B.

      Pour it back in the bottle

    • C.

      Discard it

    • D.

      Incubate it

    Correct Answer
    C. Discard it
    Explanation
    When you have finished using a reagent, you should discard it. This is because reagents can become contaminated or degraded after use, which can affect their reliability and accuracy. Additionally, storing used reagents can lead to confusion and potential misuse in future experiments. Therefore, it is best to dispose of the reagent properly and safely according to the appropriate waste disposal protocols.

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  • 29. 

    When you make a solution, be sure you label and __________.

    • A.

      Date it

    • B.

      Store it

    • C.

      Freeze it

    • D.

      Color it

    Correct Answer
    A. Date it
    Explanation
    The given correct answer for this question is "date it". When making a solution, it is important to label it with the date. This allows for easy identification of when the solution was made, which can be useful for tracking purposes, ensuring freshness, and maintaining proper inventory management.

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  • 30. 

    The physician has ordered 50 mg of Demerol be given to a patient. The concentration available is 100mg/ml. How may cc’s of Demerol will be injected?

    • A.

      0.5 cc

    • B.

      1.0 cc

    • C.

      1.5 cc

    • D.

      0.25 cc

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.5 cc
    Explanation
    The physician has ordered 50 mg of Demerol to be given to the patient. The concentration of Demerol available is 100mg/ml. To calculate the volume of Demerol to be injected, we can use the formula: volume = dose/concentration. Plugging in the values, we get volume = 50 mg / 100 mg/ml = 0.5 ml. Since 1 ml is equal to 1 cc, the answer is 0.5 cc.

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  • 31. 

    A drug that causes urination is called a __________.

    • A.

      Diuretic

    • B.

      Hypertensive

    • C.

      Gestational drug

    • D.

      Narcotic

    Correct Answer
    A. Diuretic
    Explanation
    A drug that causes urination is called a diuretic. Diuretics are medications that increase the production of urine by the kidneys, leading to increased urination. They are commonly used to treat conditions such as high blood pressure, heart failure, and edema. By increasing urine output, diuretics help to remove excess fluid and salt from the body, reducing swelling and relieving symptoms associated with fluid retention.

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  • 32. 

    A drug used to relieve a cough is called an __________.

    • A.

      Antitussive

    • B.

      Antiemetic

    • C.

      Antiseptic

    • D.

      Antitoxin

    Correct Answer
    A. Antitussive
    Explanation
    An antitussive is a drug that is used to relieve a cough. It works by suppressing the cough reflex and reducing the urge to cough. This type of medication is commonly used to treat dry, non-productive coughs that are caused by irritation or inflammation in the respiratory system. Antitussives can be found in various forms such as cough syrups, lozenges, or tablets, and they help to provide temporary relief from coughing symptoms.

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  • 33. 

    A drug used to control temperature is called an __________.

    • A.

      Antipyretic

    • B.

      Antidote

    • C.

      Antiemetic

    • D.

      Analgesic

    Correct Answer
    A. Antipyretic
    Explanation
    An antipyretic is a drug used to control temperature. It helps to reduce fever by lowering the body's temperature. This type of medication is commonly used to provide relief from symptoms associated with fever, such as headaches, muscle aches, and chills. Antipyretics work by inhibiting the production of certain chemicals in the body that cause fever. They are often available over-the-counter and can be used to alleviate fever in both children and adults.

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  • 34. 

    A drug that causes dilation of blood vessels is called a __________.

    • A.

      Vasodilator

    • B.

      Vasoconstrictor

    • C.

      Bronchodilator

    • D.

      Dilatemetic

    Correct Answer
    A. Vasodilator
    Explanation
    A drug that causes dilation of blood vessels is called a vasodilator. Vasodilators work by relaxing the smooth muscles in the walls of blood vessels, allowing them to widen and increase blood flow. This can be beneficial in conditions such as hypertension or angina, where increased blood flow is needed to improve oxygen supply to the heart or other organs. Vasodilators can also be used to treat conditions like erectile dysfunction or Raynaud's disease.

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  • 35. 

    A drug that decreases mucus in the nasal passages is called a(n) __________.

    • A.

      Suppressant

    • B.

      Decongestant

    • C.

      Antihistamine

    • D.

      Inebronchodilator

    Correct Answer
    B. Decongestant
    Explanation
    A drug that decreases mucus in the nasal passages is called a decongestant. Decongestants work by constricting the blood vessels in the nasal passages, reducing swelling and congestion. This helps to relieve nasal congestion and improve breathing.

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  • 36. 

    A drug that increases cough output is called a(n) __________.

    • A.

      Miotic

    • B.

      Diuretic

    • C.

      Cytotoxin

    • D.

      Expectorant

    Correct Answer
    D. Expectorant
    Explanation
    An expectorant is a drug that increases cough output. It helps to thin and loosen mucus in the respiratory tract, making it easier to cough up and clear the airways. This can be beneficial for individuals with conditions such as bronchitis or a common cold, as it helps to alleviate congestion and promote the removal of mucus from the lungs.

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  • 37. 

    A liquid preparation which mixes fine droplets of an oil in water, such as castor oil, is called a(n) __________.

    • A.

      Solution

    • B.

      Emulsion

    • C.

      Elixir

    • D.

      Tincture

    Correct Answer
    B. Emulsion
    Explanation
    An emulsion is a liquid preparation that consists of fine droplets of one liquid dispersed in another liquid. In this case, the emulsion is made up of fine droplets of oil dispersed in water. Therefore, the correct answer is emulsion.

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  • 38. 

    Nitroglycerine is used for the treatment of which of the following?

    • A.

      Narcotic overdose

    • B.

      Inflammation

    • C.

      Angina pectoris

    • D.

      Anxiety

    Correct Answer
    C. Angina pectoris
    Explanation
    Nitroglycerine is used for the treatment of angina pectoris. Angina pectoris is a medical condition characterized by chest pain or discomfort caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscle. Nitroglycerine works by relaxing and widening the blood vessels, allowing more blood to flow to the heart and relieving the symptoms of angina. It is commonly used as a sublingual tablet or spray to provide quick relief during angina attacks.

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  • 39. 

    Hydrocortisone is a drug used to suppress __________.

    • A.

      Inflammation

    • B.

      Appetite

    • C.

      Swelling

    • D.

      Excretion of urine

    Correct Answer
    A. Inflammation
    Explanation
    Hydrocortisone is a drug that belongs to the class of corticosteroids, which are known for their anti-inflammatory properties. It works by suppressing the body's immune response and reducing inflammation. Therefore, hydrocortisone is used to suppress inflammation in various conditions such as allergies, asthma, arthritis, and skin disorders. It is not used to suppress appetite, swelling, or the excretion of urine.

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  • 40. 

    Schedule I drugs include __________.

    • A.

      Miscellaneous mixtures containing limited amounts of narcotic drugs

    • B.

      Substances that have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse

    • C.

      Minor tranquilizers and hypnotics that have a lesser potential for abuse

    • D.

      No correct answer

    Correct Answer
    B. Substances that have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse
    Explanation
    Schedule I drugs include substances that have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse. These drugs are considered to be the most dangerous and have severe restrictions on their production, distribution, and use. They are classified as such because they pose significant risks to individuals' health and society as a whole. The classification helps to control and regulate these substances to prevent misuse and abuse.

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  • 41. 

    A small adhesive patch or disc used for administration of drugs is called a(n) __________.

    • A.

      Transdermal system

    • B.

      Reservoir system

    • C.

      Ointment system

    • D.

      Epidermis system

    Correct Answer
    A. Transdermal system
    Explanation
    A small adhesive patch or disc used for administration of drugs is called a transdermal system. This system allows the drug to be absorbed through the skin and into the bloodstream, providing a controlled and continuous release of the medication. It is a convenient and non-invasive method of drug delivery, avoiding the need for injections or oral intake. The term "transdermal" refers to the ability of the drug to pass through the layers of the skin (epidermis) and enter the bloodstream. Therefore, the transdermal system is the correct term for this method of drug administration.

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  • 42. 

    Refer to illustration #5 and identify number 17.

    • A.

      Superior Vena Cava

    • B.

      Aorta

    • C.

      Right atrium

    • D.

      Pulmonary vein

    Correct Answer
    B. Aorta
    Explanation
    In illustration #5, number 17 is the Aorta.

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  • 43. 

    Refer to illustration #5 and identify number 18.

    • A.

      Inferior vena cava

    • B.

      Superior vena cava

    • C.

      Right atrium

    • D.

      Right ventricle

    Correct Answer
    B. Superior vena cava
    Explanation
    The correct answer is superior vena cava. In the given illustration, number 18 represents the superior vena cava. The superior vena cava is a large vein that carries deoxygenated blood from the upper body to the right atrium of the heart. It is located above the inferior vena cava and is responsible for returning blood from the head, neck, and upper limbs back to the heart.

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  • 44. 

    A narrowing of the urethra caused by scar tissue is called __________.

    • A.

      Cystitis

    • B.

      Urethral stricture

    • C.

      Chronic renal failure

    • D.

      Pyelonephritis

    Correct Answer
    B. Urethral stricture
    Explanation
    A narrowing of the urethra caused by scar tissue is referred to as a urethral stricture. This condition can occur due to various factors such as trauma, infection, or inflammation. It can lead to difficulties in urination, including decreased urine flow and increased frequency of urination. Treatment options for urethral strictures may include medication, dilation, or surgery, depending on the severity of the condition. Cystitis, chronic renal failure, and pyelonephritis are unrelated conditions and do not involve a narrowing of the urethra caused by scar tissue.

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  • 45. 

    A chronic disease in which the pancreas fails to secrete enough insulin is called __________.

    • A.

      High blood pressure

    • B.

      Type 1 diabetes

    • C.

      Pancreatitis

    • D.

      Type 2 diabetes

    Correct Answer
    B. Type 1 diabetes
    Explanation
    Type 1 diabetes is a chronic disease in which the pancreas fails to secrete enough insulin. Insulin is a hormone that helps regulate blood sugar levels. In type 1 diabetes, the immune system mistakenly attacks and destroys the insulin-producing cells in the pancreas. As a result, the body is unable to properly regulate blood sugar levels, leading to high blood sugar. Type 1 diabetes typically develops in childhood or adolescence and requires lifelong insulin therapy to manage blood sugar levels.

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  • 46. 

    The alternating contraction and relaxation of intestinal muscles is called __________.

    • A.

      Enema

    • B.

      Colostomy

    • C.

      Constipation

    • D.

      Peristalsis

    Correct Answer
    D. Peristalsis
    Explanation
    Peristalsis refers to the rhythmic contraction and relaxation of the muscles in the intestines that helps to propel food and waste material through the digestive system. This process allows for the efficient movement of substances along the digestive tract, aiding in digestion and elimination. It is responsible for the wave-like motion that pushes food forward and ensures proper absorption of nutrients while also preventing constipation.

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  • 47. 

    The prolonged retention and accumulation of fecal material in the rectum is called __________.

    • A.

      Peristalsis

    • B.

      Anal incontinence

    • C.

      Fecal impaction

    • D.

      Feces

    Correct Answer
    C. Fecal impaction
    Explanation
    Fecal impaction refers to the prolonged retention and accumulation of fecal material in the rectum. This condition occurs when stool becomes hard and dry, making it difficult to pass. It can lead to symptoms such as abdominal pain, bloating, and constipation. Treatment usually involves the use of laxatives or manual removal of the impacted stool.

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  • 48. 

    The frequent passage of liquid stools is called __________.

    • A.

      Flatus

    • B.

      Diarrhea

    • C.

      Peristalsis

    • D.

      Blockage

    Correct Answer
    B. Diarrhea
    Explanation
    Diarrhea is the correct answer because it refers to the frequent passage of liquid stools. Flatus refers to the release of gas from the digestive system, peristalsis is the wave-like muscle contractions that move food through the digestive tract, and blockage refers to an obstruction in the digestive system that prevents the passage of stool.

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  • 49. 

    Refer to Illustration #1 and identify the number 69.

    • A.

      Nasal

    • B.

      Zygomatic

    • C.

      Temporal

    • D.

      Radius

    Correct Answer
    C. Temporal
  • 50. 

    Refer to Illustration #1 and identify the number 70.

    • A.

      Clavicle

    • B.

      Sternum

    • C.

      Scapula

    • D.

      Ilium

    Correct Answer
    C. Scapula
    Explanation
    In the given illustration, the number 70 is identified as the Scapula.

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