Navigation (n)- Part 1

100 Questions

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Navigation Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which points on the Earth's surface determine the Earth's axis?
    • A. 

      (1) North geographic pole and north magnetic pole.

    • B. 

      (2) North and south geographic pole.

    • C. 

      (3) North and south magnetic pole.

    • D. 

      (4) Equator-hemisphere.

  • 2. 
    The circumference of the Earth along the Equator is approximately
    • A. 

      (1) 21,600 NM.

    • B. 

      (2) 40,075 km.

    • C. 

      (3) 30,000 NM.

    • D. 

      (4) 24,000 km.

  • 3. 
    The Earth's diameter, when compared to the Earth' axis, is
    • A. 

      (1) longer by 43 km.

    • B. 

      (2) twice as much greater.

    • C. 

      (3) the same.

    • D. 

      (4) shorter by 42 km.

  • 4. 
    The Earth's diameters on the Equator and between the poles are
    • A. 

      (1) 40,076.594 km and 4,009.153 km.

    • B. 

      (2) 6,378.388 km and 6,356.912 km.

    • C. 

      (3) 12,757 km and 12,714 km.

    • D. 

      (4) 6,356.912 km and 6,378.388 km.

  • 5. 
    Which of the following statements, regarding rotation of the Earth around the Sun, iscorrect? The Earth
    • A. 

      (1) encircles the Sun one time during summer and one time during winter.

    • B. 

      (2) does not circle around the Sun because it is stationary with the Sun circling around it.

    • C. 

      (3) encircles the Sun in one year.

    • D. 

      (4) encircles the Sun in one day.

  • 6. 
    The Earth's globe rotates
    • A. 

      (1) around its axis in the direction from the east to the west.

    • B. 

      (2) together with the Sun in the direction from the east to the west.

    • C. 

      (3) around its axis in the direction from the west to the east.

    • D. 

      (4) around so called Sun's tropic.

  • 7. 
    The orbit of the Earth is
    • A. 

      (1) a circle with the Sun at the center.

    • B. 

      (2) an ellipse with the Sun at one of the foci.

    • C. 

      (3) an ellipse with the Sun at different point inside it.

    • D. 

      (4) a circle around which the Sun rotates.

  • 8. 
    What is the cause of the seasons?
    • A. 

      (1) Irregular movement of the Earth around the Sun.

    • B. 

      (2) Uneven temperatures in space.

    • C. 

      (3) A shape of the Earth's orbit.

    • D. 

      (4) The tilt of the Earth's axis.

  • 9. 
    The shortest distance between two points on the Earth's globe is called
    • A. 

      (1) rhumb line.

    • B. 

      (2) great circle.

    • C. 

      (3) lambodrome.

    • D. 

      (4) small circle.

  • 10. 
    Great Circle(s) on the Earth's surface is(are)
    • A. 

      (1) the equator only.

    • B. 

      (2) the equator and meridians.

    • C. 

      (3) the equator, meridians and parallels of latitude.

    • D. 

      (4) the equator, meridians and orthodroms.

  • 11. 
    The equator is the Great Circle which plane
    • A. 

      (1) divides the Earth's globe into the east and west hemisphere.

    • B. 

      (2) is parallel to the Earth's axis.

    • C. 

      (3) divides the Earth's globe into the north and south hemisphere.

  • 12. 
    Which statement about longitude and latitude is true?
    • A. 

      (1) Lines of longitude are parallel to the Equator.

    • B. 

      (2) Lines of longitude cross the Equator at right angles.

    • C. 

      (3) The 0° line of latitude passes through Greenwich, England.

  • 13. 
    How many Great Circles (orthodroms) can be determined on the Earth's surface?
    • A. 

      (1) 90.

    • B. 

      (2) 180.

    • C. 

      (3) 360.

    • D. 

      (4) an infinite number.

  • 14. 
    The Great Circle on the Earth's globe is the cross-section of the Earth's surface and theplane passing through
    • A. 

      (1) the center of the Earth and is always rectangular to the Earth's axis.

    • B. 

      (2) the center of the Earth and is always oblique to the Earth's axis

    • C. 

      (3) the center of the Earth and is tilt to the Earth's axis at any angle.

    • D. 

      (4) any two points on the Earth's surface; the cross-section with the Earth's surface is the shortest distance between these points.

  • 15. 
    Which of the following circles on the Earth's globe does not have the center at theEarth's center?
    • A. 

      (1) Orthodrom.

    • B. 

      (2) Small Circle.

    • C. 

      (3) Great Circle.

    • D. 

      (4) Equator.

  • 16. 
    What is the characteristic of the Rhumb Line?
    • A. 

      (1) It cuts meridians under various angles.

    • B. 

      (2) It is the shortest distance between two points on the Earth's globe.

    • C. 

      (3) It cuts meridians under constant angle.

    • D. 

      (4) It is the Great Circle.

  • 17. 
    Which circles, forming the graticule, are at the same time Great Circles and RhumbLines?
    • A. 

      (1) Parallel of latitude only.

    • B. 

      (2) Meridians and equator.

    • C. 

      (3) Meridians only.

    • D. 

      (4) Equator only.

  • 18. 
    The Sun travels across the sky an arc of 5° in
    • A. 

      (1) 60 minutes.

    • B. 

      (2) 30 minutes.

    • C. 

      (3) 20 minutes.

    • D. 

      (4) 4 minutes.

  • 19. 
    The Sun makes in one hour time an arc between which of the following meridians?
    • A. 

      (1) From 5°E to 10°W.

    • B. 

      (2) From 15°E to 5°E.

    • C. 

      (3) From 10°E to 10°W.

    • D. 

      (4) From 10°W to 5°E.

  • 20. 
    What time is needed for the Sun's azimuth to change by 27 arc degrees?
    • A. 

      (1) 30 minutes.

    • B. 

      (2) 90 minutes.

    • C. 

      (3) 405 minutes.

    • D. 

      (4) 108 minutes.

  • 21. 
    The Co-ordinated Universal Time (UTC) is
    • A. 

      (1) the Local Time.

    • B. 

      (2) the Zone Time.

    • C. 

      (3) the time on the longitude 0 degrees.

    • D. 

      (4) the Standard Time.

  • 22. 
    13:00 accordingly to the MidEuropean Summer Time is
    • A. 

      (1) 1200 UTC.

    • B. 

      (2) 1400 UTC.

    • C. 

      (3) 0100 UTC.

    • D. 

      (4) 1100 UTC.

  • 23. 
    • A. 

      (1) Exactly straight-in.

    • B. 

      (2) Left of the aircraft's nose.

    • C. 

      (3) Right of the aircraft's nose.

    • D. 

      (4) May be left or right of the aircraft's nose, with regard to the season.

  • 24. 
    The geographic longitude is the distance of a point on the Earth's surface from the (in corrections is LATITUDE)
    • A. 

      (1) Equator, measured in statute miles.

    • B. 

      (2) Equator, measured in arc degrees.

    • C. 

      (3) Prime Meridian, measured in arc degrees.

    • D. 

      (4) Prime Meridian, measured in geographic miles.

  • 25. 
    What is the latitude of a point on the Equator?
    • A. 

      (1) 0°.

    • B. 

      (2) 90°N.

    • C. 

      (3) 180°S.

    • D. 

      (4) 90°S.

  • 26. 
    Longitude change between point A (04° 14' 28" E) an B (02° 30' 30" E) on the Earth'sglobe is
    • A. 

      (1) 01° 43' 58".

    • B. 

      (2) 06° 44' 58".

    • C. 

      (3) 02° 44' 58".

    • D. 

      (4) 02° 16' 02".

  • 27. 
    What is the difference between the latitude of the point A and the point B, which arelocated on following parallels of latitude:
    • A. 

      (1) 05° 21' 00".

    • B. 

      (2) 26° 28' 00".

    • C. 

      (3) 25° 27' 00".

    • D. 

      (4) 05° 28' 00".

  • 28. 
    Determine the latitude of the point B, located 240 NM north of the point A with thelatitude 62° 33' 00" N.
    • A. 

      (1) 58° 33' 00" N.

    • B. 

      (2) 86° 33' 00" N.

    • C. 

      (3) 66° 33' 00" N.

    • D. 

      (4) 64° 33' 00" N.

  • 29. 
    The distance between the parallel of latitude 10°N and the parallel of latitude 11°N,measured along the meridian, is
    • A. 

      (1) 60 SM.

    • B. 

      (2) 60 km.

    • C. 

      (3) 111 km.

    • D. 

      (4) 111 NM.

  • 30. 
    The geographic coordinates of the point A are (figure 14)
    • A. 

      (1) N 49° 11,0' and E 21° 18,0'.

    • B. 

      (2) N 50° 11,0' and E 20° 12,0'.

    • C. 

      (3) N 50° 49,0' and E 20° 12,0'.

    • D. 

      (4) N 49° 49,0' and E 21° 18,0'.

  • 31. 
    Which navigational clue is located at the position with the geographic coordinates N 50°19,0' and E 21° 04,2'? (figure 14)
    • A. 

      (1) The point C.

    • B. 

      (2) The railway bridge over the river Visla.

    • C. 

      (3) The town Mielec

    • D. 

      (4) The settlement Stopnica.

  • 32. 
    Which are the geographic coordinates of the point B (figure 14)
    • A. 

      (1) N 50° 07,4' and E 20° 31,0'.

    • B. 

      (2) N 57° 04,0' and E 20° 31,0'.

    • C. 

      (3) N 50° 07,4' and E 23° 01,0'.

    • D. 

      (4) N 57° 04,0' and E 21° 18,0'.

  • 33. 
    The geographic coordinates of the point D are (figure 15)
    • A. 

      (1) N 44° 21,7' and E 79° 12,8'.

    • B. 

      (2) N 44° 21,7' and W 78° 47,2'.

    • C. 

      (3) N 44° 38,3' and E 78° 12,8'.

    • D. 

      (4) N 57° 04,0' and W 79° 12,8'.

  • 34. 
    Which airfield has the geographical coordinates N 44° 43,7' and W 78° 54,8'? (figure 15)
    • A. 

      (1) Military airport Greenbank.

    • B. 

      (2) Airport Lindsay.

    • C. 

      (3) Hydrodrom Head Lake.

    • D. 

      (4) Hydrodrom Balsam Lake.

  • 35. 
    The geographic coordinates of military airport Greenbank are (figure 15)
    • A. 

      (1) N 44° 52,2' and W 78° 58,8'.

    • B. 

      (2) N 44° 07,8' and W 79° 01,2'.

    • C. 

      (3) N 44° 07,8' and W 78° 58,8'.

    • D. 

      (4) N 44° 52,2' and W 79° 01,2'.

  • 36. 
    The distance of 1 NM is equivalent to
    • A. 

      (1) the distance of one arc minute on a Meridian.

    • B. 

      (2) exactly the 40-thousandth part of the Earth's perimeter.

    • C. 

      (3) the distance between a Meridian and the pole.

    • D. 

      (4) the perimeter of a Polar Circle.

  • 37. 
    The distance of 1 NM equals to
    • A. 

      (1) 1,111 m.

    • B. 

      (2) 1,432 m.

    • C. 

      (3) 1,609 m.

    • D. 

      (4) 1,852 m.

  • 38. 
    The formula for a quick calculation from kilometers to nautical miles is:
    • A. 

      (1) (km : 2) + 10%.

    • B. 

      (2) (km x 2) - 22%.

    • C. 

      (3) (km : 2) - 10%.

    • D. 

      (4) (km x 2) - 10%.

  • 39. 
    Approximately how many kilometers are in 70 nautical miles?
    • A. 

      (1) 130 km.

    • B. 

      (2) 135 km.

    • C. 

      (3) 140 km.

    • D. 

      (4) 145 km.

  • 40. 
    The distance of 1 statute mile is equal to
    • A. 

      (1) 1,852 m.

    • B. 

      (2) 1,609 m.

    • C. 

      (3) 1,432 m

    • D. 

      (4) 1,111 m.

  • 41. 
    How many kilometers are in 50 SM (statute miles)?
    • A. 

      (1) Approximately 92 km.

    • B. 

      (2) Exactly 100 km.

    • C. 

      (3) Little less than 75 km.

    • D. 

      (4) Approximately 80 km.

  • 42. 
    Where on the chart can the distance between the two points be determined, which hasbeen callipered by a pair of compasses or marked on the edge of a piece of paper?
    • A. 

      (1) On each Meridian.

    • B. 

      (2) Only on the Meridian at the midpoint between points.

    • C. 

      (3) Only on the scale ribbon on the edge of the chart.

    • D. 

      (4) On each Meridian or on the scale ribbon on the edge of the chart.

  • 43. 
    On a chart, 6 cm represents the distance 15 km; on the same chart, 4 cm represents thedistance 10 km. What is the scale of the chart?
    • A. 

      (1) 1:300 000.

    • B. 

      (2) 1:250 000

    • C. 

      (3) 1:400 000.

    • D. 

      (4) 1:500 000.

  • 44. 
    The scale of the chart is 1:500 000. How many centimeters represents the distance105km?
    • A. 

      (1) 10.5 cm.

    • B. 

      (2) 21.0 cm.

    • C. 

      (3) 42.0 cm

    • D. 

      (4) 84.0 cm.

  • 45. 
    The scale of the chart is 1:500 000. How many centimeters represents the distance220km?
    • A. 

      (1) 110 cm.

    • B. 

      (2) 11 cm.

    • C. 

      (3) 44 cm.

    • D. 

      (4) 40.4 cm.

  • 46. 
    Determine the distance between the point A and B! (figure 14)
    • A. 

      (1) 55 NM.

    • B. 

      (2) 55 km.

    • C. 

      (3) 35 km

    • D. 

      (4) 35 NM.

  • 47. 
    The distance of the route segment B-C on the chart is (figure 14)
    • A. 

      (1) 61 km.

    • B. 

      (2) 52 NM.

    • C. 

      (3) 33 SM.

    • D. 

      (4) 54 km.

  • 48. 
    The distance between the points C and A on the chart is (figure 14)
    • A. 

      (1) 67 NM.

    • B. 

      (2) 44 SM.

    • C. 

      (3) 44 NM.

    • D. 

      (4) 67 SM.

  • 49. 
    The distance of the route segment D-E on the chart is (figure 15)
    • A. 

      (1) 30 NM.

    • B. 

      (2) 33 NM.

    • C. 

      (3) 39 NM.

    • D. 

      (4) 42 NM.

  • 50. 
    The distance between the points E and F on the chart is (figure 15)
    • A. 

      (1) 42 NM.

    • B. 

      (2) 38 NM.

    • C. 

      (3) 34 NM.

    • D. 

      (4) 30 NM.

  • 51. 
    What is the distance of the route segment F-D on the chart? (figure 15)
    • A. 

      (1) 29 km.

    • B. 

      (2) 21 NM.

    • C. 

      (3) 29 SM.

    • D. 

      (4) 29 NM.

  • 52. 
    The distance between the points ALFA and BRAVO is 107 NM. If an aircraft covers first16 NM in 10 minutes, what time does it take to travel the entire route ALFA-BRAVO with the samegroundspeed?
    • A. 

      (1) 1 hour and 6 minutes.

    • B. 

      (2) 1 hour and 3 minutes.

    • C. 

      (3) 1 hour and 1 minute.

    • D. 

      (4) 59 minutes.

  • 53. 
    How far will an aircraft travel with 32 gal of usable fuel with fuel consumption 7,1 gal/h atthe groundspeed 108 kts? (Allow 1-hour final reserve fuel)
    • A. 

      (1) 379 NM.

    • B. 

      (2) 384 NM.

    • C. 

      (3) 420 NM.

    • D. 

      (4) 487 NM.

  • 54. 
    How far will an aircraft travel with 27 gal of usable fuel with fuel consumption 6,8 gal/h atthe groundspeed 93 kts? (Allow 6-gallons final reserve fuel)
    • A. 

      (1) 287 NM.

    • B. 

      (2) 292 NM.

    • C. 

      (3) 301 NM.

    • D. 

      (4) 308 NM.

  • 55. 
    How many gallons of usable fuel should be on board of an aircraft for a distance flight of300 NM at the groundspeed 120 kts and average fuel consumption 7,3 gal/h? (Allow 1-hour fuelreserve).
    • A. 

      (1) 15.0 gal

    • B. 

      (2) 18.3 gal.

    • C. 

      (3) 21.4 gal

    • D. 

      (4) 25.6 gal.

  • 56. 
    A distance in meters could be converted to feet using the formula:
    • A. 

      (1) m x 0.3.

    • B. 

      (2) (m x 3) + 10%.

    • C. 

      (3) (m : 10) x 3.

    • D. 

      (4) (m x 3) : 10.

  • 57. 
    An altitude 1,500 meters is approximately
    • A. 

      (1) 3,600 ft.

    • B. 

      (2) 4,000 ft.

    • C. 

      (3) 4,500 ft.

    • D. 

      (4) 4,900 ft.

  • 58. 
    On a chart we read the obstacle altitude 275 meters. Regarding the rule of heightclearance 1,000 feet over obstacles, what is the lowest altitude for overflying the obstacle?
    • A. 

      (1) 2,230 ft.

    • B. 

      (2) 2,130 ft.

    • C. 

      (3) 1,900 ft.

    • D. 

      (4) 1,230 ft.

  • 59. 
    Altitude 6,000 ft is approximately
    • A. 

      (1) 1,200 m.

    • B. 

      (2) 1,800 m.

    • C. 

      (3) 3,000 m.

    • D. 

      (4) 12,000 m.

  • 60. 
    Approximately what QNH pressure corresponds to the QFE pressure 1000 hPa on anairfield with the elevation 200 meters?
    • A. 

      (1) 985 hPa.

    • B. 

      (2) 990 hPa.

    • C. 

      (3) 1025 hPa.

    • D. 

      (4) 1035 hPa.

  • 61. 
    If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 996 hPa to 1033 hPa, the altitude indicationwill
    • A. 

      (1) not change.

    • B. 

      (2) increase.

    • C. 

      (3) decrease at low temperatures and increase at high temperatures.

    • D. 

      (4) decrease for 1,000 ft.

  • 62. 
    When set to 1008 hPa, an aircraft's altimeter indicates 1,600 ft. What would be theindication if setting is changed to 1009 hPa?
    • A. 

      (1) 1,590 ft.

    • B. 

      (2) 1,630 ft.

    • C. 

      (3) 1,610 ft.

    • D. 

      (4) 1,570 ft.

  • 63. 
    If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 1010 hPa to 1000 hPa, what is theapproximate change in indication?
    • A. 

      (1) Altimeter will indicate 300 ft lower.

    • B. 

      (2) Altimeter will indicate 300 ft higher.

    • C. 

      (3) No change in indication.

    • D. 

      (4) Variously, dependent on QNH.

  • 64. 
    Determine IAS of an aircraft for the following conditions:TAS ............................ 115 ktOAT ............................. 20°CAltitude .............. 8,000 ft MSLQNH .................... 1013.2 hPaAirspeed Indicator Calibration CardKIAS 40 50 60 70 80 90 100 110 120KCAS 46 53 60 69 78 88 97 107 117
    • A. 

      (1) 100 kts.

    • B. 

      (2) 104 kts.

    • C. 

      (3) 107 kts.

    • D. 

      (4) 113 kts.

  • 65. 
    When cruising at pressure altitude 5,000 ft with a calibrated airspeed (CAS) of 100 ktsand at outside temperature 5°C, what would be your true airspeed (TAS)?
    • A. 

      (1) 120 kts.

    • B. 

      (2) 116 kts.

    • C. 

      (3) 112 kts.

    • D. 

      (4) 108 kts.

  • 66. 
    At an pressure altitude of 3.000 ft, and an outside temperature of 10°C, what would bethe true airspeed (TAS) if a pilot reads 120 kts on the airspeed indicator? (The installation andinstrumental error are not taken into consideration).
    • A. 

      (1) 122 kts.

    • B. 

      (2) 126 kts.

    • C. 

      (3) 130 kts.

    • D. 

      (4) 134 kts.

  • 67. 
    You are flying at pressure altitude 500 ft with an indicated airspeed (IAS) of 110 kts, theoutside air temperature is minus 25°C (IAS=CAS). Determine the true airspeed (TAS).
    • A. 

      (1) 103 kts.

    • B. 

      (2) 110 kts.

    • C. 

      (3) 112 kts.

    • D. 

      (4) 115 kts.

  • 68. 
    At pressure altitude 8,000 ft with the outside temperature of 10°C, what indicatedairspeed (IAS) is required to achieve the true airspeed (TAS) 125 kts. (Neglect the differencebetween IAS and CAS).
    • A. 

      (1) 95 kts.

    • B. 

      (2) 102 kts.

    • C. 

      (3) 109 kts.

    • D. 

      (4) 111 kts.

  • 69. 
    At pressure altitude 7,000 ft with the outside temperature of 5°C, what calibratedairspeed (CAS) is required to achieve the true airspeed (TAS) of 150 kts?
    • A. 

      (1) 134 kts.

    • B. 

      (2) 137 kts.

    • C. 

      (3) 139 kts.

    • D. 

      (4) 142 kts.

  • 70. 
    At pressure altitude 4,000 ft, what is the approximate outside temperature at which thecalibrated airspeed (CAS) and the true airspeed (TAS) are equal?
    • A. 

      (1) 0°C.

    • B. 

      (2) +15°C.

    • C. 

      (3) -15°C.

    • D. 

      (4) -25°C.

  • 71. 
    When flying at pressure altitude 3,000 ft, an airspeed indicator would indicate more thanthe true airspeed (TAS), at outside temperatures
    • A. 

      (1) +15°C or higher.

    • B. 

      (2) +15°C or lower.

    • C. 

      (3) -15°C or higher.

    • D. 

      (4) -15°C or lower.

  • 72. 
    What does a measuring unit knot used in aviation mean?
    • A. 

      (1) SM/h.

    • B. 

      (2) NM/h.

    • C. 

      (3) km/h.

    • D. 

      (4) m/h.

  • 73. 
    The wind velocity of 10 m/sec approximately equals to
    • A. 

      (1) 40 kts.

    • B. 

      (2) 20 kts.

    • C. 

      (3) 5 kts.

    • D. 

      (4) 2,5 kts.

  • 74. 
    Wind velocity 5 kts is approximately
    • A. 

      (1) 10 km/hour.

    • B. 

      (2) 5 statute miles/hour.

    • C. 

      (3) 20 m/sec.

    • D. 

      (4) All of the above is correct.

  • 75. 
    A velocity 120 km/h, expressed in knots, is
    • A. 

      (1) 50 kts.

    • B. 

      (2) 58 kts.

    • C. 

      (3) 60 kts.

    • D. 

      (4) 65 kts.

  • 76. 
    If a vertical speed indicator of a towing airplane shows 500 ft/min, the approximatelyaerotow's rate-of-climb in meters-per-second is
    • A. 

      (1) 1,5 m/sec.

    • B. 

      (2) 3,5 m/sec.

    • C. 

      (3) 5 m/sec.

    • D. 

      (4) 2,5 m/sec.

  • 77. 
    What is the ground speed (GS) of an aircraft, covering in 40 minutes the distance, thatrepresents 10.8 cm on an 1:500 000 chart?
    • A. 

      (1) 81 kts

    • B. 

      (2) 100 mph.

    • C. 

      (3) 81 km/h.

    • D. 

      (4) 100 km/h.

  • 78. 
    An aircraft would cover a 120 km-distance in no wind condition in 2 hours and 40minutes, however in actual meteo conditions the flight lasted 3 hours and 5 minutes. What was thelongitudinal wind component on route?
    • A. 

      (1) 16 kts tailwind.

    • B. 

      (2) 16 km/h headwind.

    • C. 

      (3) 6 km/h headwind.

    • D. 

      (4) 6 kts tailwind.

  • 79. 
    The distance of the route from the point X to the point Y via the control point Z is 84 km.If an aircraft covers the first segment X-Z in 50 minutes, what will be the total time of flightbetween the points X and Y?
    • A. 

      (1) 45 minutes.

    • B. 

      (2) 2 hours.

    • C. 

      (3) 50 minutes.

    • D. 

      (4) 1 hour and 10 minutes.

  • 80. 
    How far will an aircraft travel in 2-1/2 minutes with a groundspeed of 98 knots?
    • A. 

      (1) 2.45 NM.

    • B. 

      (2) 3.35 NM.

    • C. 

      (3) 4.08 NM.

  • 81. 
    100 kg is how many pounds?
    • A. 

      (1) 180 lbs.

    • B. 

      (2) 200 lbs.

    • C. 

      (3) 220 lbs.

    • D. 

      (4) 250 lbs.

  • 82. 
    90 pounds is how many kilograms?
    • A. 

      (1) 37 kg.

    • B. 

      (2) 41 kg.

    • C. 

      (3) 45 kg.

    • D. 

      (4) 52 kg.

  • 83. 
    25 US gallons is how many liters?
    • A. 

      (1) 95 l.

    • B. 

      (2) 98 l.

    • C. 

      (3) 100 l.

    • D. 

      (4) 105 l.

  • 84. 
    Which mark on the wind triangle represents a true course? (figure 13)
    • A. 

      (1) mark 4.

    • B. 

      (2) mark 3.

    • C. 

      (3) mark 2

    • D. 

      (4) mark 1.

  • 85. 
    Which mark on the wind triangle represents a true heading? (figure 13)
    • A. 

      (1) mark 4.

    • B. 

      (2) mark 3.

    • C. 

      (3) mark 2.

    • D. 

      (4) mark 1.

  • 86. 
    Which mark on the wind triangle represents a magnetic heading? (figure 13)
    • A. 

      (1) mark 1.

    • B. 

      (2) mark 2.

    • C. 

      (3) mark 3.

    • D. 

      (4) mark 4.

  • 87. 
    Which mark on the wind triangle sketch denotes a compass heading? (figure 13)
    • A. 

      (1) Number 1.

    • B. 

      (2) Number 2.

    • C. 

      (3) Number 3.

    • D. 

      (4) Number 4.

  • 88. 
    Which mark on the wind triangle represents a wind correction angle? (figure 13)
    • A. 

      (1) mark 2.

    • B. 

      (2) mark 3.

    • C. 

      (3) mark 4.

    • D. 

      (4) mark 5.

  • 89. 
    Which mark on the wind triangle represents a magnetic variation? (figure 13)
    • A. 

      (1) mark 3.

    • B. 

      (2) mark 5.

    • C. 

      (3) mark 9.

    • D. 

      (4) mark 10.

  • 90. 
    Which mark on the wind triangle represents a compass deviation? (figure 13)
    • A. 

      (1) mark 5.

    • B. 

      (2) mark 8.

    • C. 

      (3) mark 9.

    • D. 

      (4) mark 10.

  • 91. 
    Which mark on the wind triangle represents an aircraft's true airspeed (TAS)? (figure 13)
    • A. 

      (1) mark 5.

    • B. 

      (2) mark 6.

    • C. 

      (3) mark 7.

    • D. 

      (4) mark 8.

  • 92. 
    Which mark on the wind triangle represents an aircraft's ground speed (GS)?
    • A. 

      (1) mark 5.

    • B. 

      (2) mark 6.

    • C. 

      (3) mark 7.

    • D. 

      (4) mark 8.

  • 93. 
    Which mark on the wind triangle represents a wind vector? (figure 13)
    • A. 

      (1) mark 5.

    • B. 

      (2) mark 6.

    • C. 

      (3) mark 7.

    • D. 

      (4) mark 8.

  • 94. 
    What is the meaning of the term "drift angle" in navigation?
    • A. 

      (1) The angle between an aircraft's longitudinal axis and an actual path.

    • B. 

      (2) The difference between a direction of the true air speed of an aircraft and a desired track.

    • C. 

      (3) The difference between a magnetic course and a wind direction.

    • D. 

      (4) The difference between an angle under wind blows to the vector of an actual true air speed and a direction of an aircraft's longitudinal axis.

  • 95. 
    A Wind Correction Angle is the angle difference between
    • A. 

      (1) true heading and desired true course.

    • B. 

      (2) desired true and desired magnetic course.

    • C. 

      (3) true and magnetic heading.

    • D. 

      (4) magnetic and compass heading in no wind condition.

  • 96. 
    Which azimuth corresponds to the general direction WNW?
    • A. 

      (1) 247.5°.

    • B. 

      (2) 292.5°.

    • C. 

      (3) 337.5°.

    • D. 

      (4) 202.5°.

  • 97. 
    When planning a distance flight, true course measurements on a ICAO VFR aeronauticalchart should be made at a meridian near the midpoint of the course because the
    • A. 

      (1) values of the isogonic lines change from point to point.

    • B. 

      (2) angles formed by lines of longitude and the course line vary from point to point.

    • C. 

      (3) angles formed by isogonic lines and lines of latitude vary from point to point.

  • 98. 
    Which parameter is included in the reckoning of a magnetic course?
    • A. 

      (1) Compass deviation.

    • B. 

      (2) Magnetic inclination.

    • C. 

      (3) Wind correction angle.

    • D. 

      (4) Magnetic variation.

  • 99. 
    The angle between a direction toward geographic north and a direction toward magneticnorth is called
    • A. 

      (1) compass deviation.

    • B. 

      (2) variation.

    • C. 

      (3) inclination.

    • D. 

      (4) convergency of meridians.

  • 100. 
    The angular difference between true north and magnetic north is
    • A. 

      (1) magnetic deviation.

    • B. 

      (2) magnetic variation.

    • C. 

      (3) compass acceleration error