Simulated Examination For Gulf Physician General Practice 1
This is a Simulated Examination for Gulf Physician General Practice Examinations taken from Last Month's HAAD Feedbacks.
This examination contains 100 of the most UPDATED EXAMS from Abu Dhabi, KSA, and UAE.
Take this examination for 120 minutes. You need to get 86% to pass the HAAD. 60% to pass MOH, DHA, or Prometrics.
Please text 0919-286-29-29 in the Philippines or visit our website www. Haadmd. Weebly. Com THIS IS YOUR ASSESSMENT FOR ANY GULF Physician General Practice EXAMINATIONS INCLUDING HAAD, SAUDI PROMETRICS, DUBAI DHA, AND UAE MOH. THE QUESTIONS HERE ARE TAKEN FROM THIS Read moreACTUAL EXAMINATIONS, SO PASSING THIS ASSESSMENT EXAM WILL GIVE YOU A HIGH PROBABILITY OF PASSING THE SAID EXAMINATIONS
- 1.
Site of RBC formation in 20 year old healthy male is:
- A.
Flat bones
- B.
Long bones
- C.
Liver
- D.
Yolk sac
Correct Answer
A. Flat bonesExplanation
In adults, the bone marrow in the flat bones is actively involved in RBC production.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which of the following is true about fourth heart sound ‘S4‘ :
- A.
Can be heard by the unaided ear
- B.
Frequency is greater than 20 Hz
- C.
Heard during ventricular filling phase
- D.
Heard during ventricular ejection phase
Correct Answer
C. Heard during ventricular filling phaseExplanation
S4 is heard during the last rapid filling phase of cardiac cycle.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Broca’s area is concerned with:
- A.
Word formation
- B.
Comprehension
- C.
Repetition
- D.
Reading
Correct Answer
A. Word formationExplanation
Broca's area is the motor speech area concerned with word formation.Rate this question:
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- 4.
The mechanism of hearing and memory, include all except:
- A.
Changes in level of neurotransmitter at synapse
- B.
Increasing protein synthesis
- C.
Recruitment by multiplication of neurons
- D.
Spatial Reorganization of synapse
Correct Answer
C. Recruitment by multiplication of neuronsExplanation
There is no multiplication of neurons in memory formation.Rate this question:
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- 5.
The processing of short term memory to long term memory is done in:
- A.
Prefrontal cortex
- B.
Hippocampus
- C.
Neocortex
- D.
Amygdala
Correct Answer
B. HippocampusExplanation
Hippocampus is concerned with conversion of short term memory to long term memory.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Delta waves are seen in :
- A.
Deep sleep
- B.
REM sleep
- C.
Awake state
- D.
Stage I NREM sleep
Correct Answer
A. Deep sleepExplanation
Delta waves are seen in Deep sleep. [Remember as D(delta) with D(deep sleep). ]Rate this question:
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- 7.
Toxic effects of high oxygen tension include all of the following except:
- A.
Pulmonary edema
- B.
Decreased cerebral blood flow
- C.
Retinal damage
- D.
CNS excitation and convulsion
Correct Answer
B. Decreased cerebral blood flowExplanation
Decreased cerebral blood flow is not described as a complication of high oxygen tension.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which of the following adaptations will be apt to increase the work capacity at high altitude?
- A.
Increasing workload, decreasing duration of exercise
- B.
Increasing workload, increasing duration off exercise
- C.
Decreasing workload, increasing duration of exercise
- D.
Decreasing workload, decreasing duration of exercise
Correct Answer
C. Decreasing workload, increasing duration of exerciseExplanation
In high altitude, the oxygen availability is low. Hence the work that can be done per unit time is low. This can be compensated by decreasing the rate of doing work and increasing the duration of work.Rate this question:
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- 9.
All of the following statements are true for ‘Intestinal Motility’ except:
- A.
Does not depend on Gastric motility
- B.
Increased by Distension
- C.
Increased by Acetylcholine
- D.
Increased by cholecystokinin
Correct Answer
A. Does not depend on Gastric motilityExplanation
Intestinal motility is influenced by gastric motility. eg: Migratory motor complex, gastroileal reflexRate this question:
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- 10.
Which of the following hormone is not secreted by the kidney:
- A.
Renin
- B.
Angiotensin I
- C.
Erythropoietin
- D.
1, 25 Dihydroxycholecalciferol
Correct Answer
B. Angiotensin IExplanation
Angiotensin I is formed by action of Renin (secreted by kidney) on Angiotensinogen (secreted by liver).Rate this question:
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- 11.
Chronic carrier state is seen in all except
- A.
Measles
- B.
Diptheria
- C.
Typhoid
- D.
Gonorrhea
Correct Answer
A. MeaslesExplanation
Measles has no chronic carrier state.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Least common complication of measles is
- A.
SSPE
- B.
Pneumonia
- C.
Otitis media
- D.
Keratomalacia
Correct Answer
A. SSPEExplanation
SSPE (Sub acute sclerosing panencephalitis) is the least common complication of measles. It is also the most severe.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Under eradication of congenital rubella syndrome program the first priority group for rubella vaccination is
- A.
All non pregnant women of age 15 to 34
- B.
All adolescent non pregnant girls 15 to 24 years of age
- C.
All female children at one year
- D.
All non pregnant women
Correct Answer
A. All non pregnant women of age 15 to 34Explanation
First priority - Women of child bearing age ( All non pregnant women of age 15 to 34 )
Second priority - Children of 1-14 years of age
Third priority - Children at 1 year of ageRate this question:
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- 14.
Strategies for prevention of Neonatal Tetanus include all of the following except:
- A.
5 clean practices
- B.
Giving penicillin to all the new borns
- C.
2 doses of TT to all pregnant women
- D.
Immunizing all married women
Correct Answer
B. Giving penicillin to all the new bornsExplanation
Giving penicillin to all the new borns is not recommended for prevention of neonatal tetanus.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which is true of BCG vaccination ?
- A.
Distilled water is used as diluent for BCG
- B.
The site of injection should be cleaned with spirit
- C.
Mantoux test becomes positive after 48 hours of vaccination
- D.
WHO recommends Danish 1331 strain for vaccine production
Correct Answer
D. WHO recommends Danish 1331 strain for vaccine productionExplanation
Normal saline is used as a diluent. Site of injection should be cleaned with normal saline. Mantoux test becomes positive after 8 weeks.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Case finding in RNTCP is based on
- A.
Sputum culture
- B.
Sputum microscopy
- C.
X- ray chest
- D.
Mantoux test / PCR
Correct Answer
B. Sputum microscopyExplanation
Patients presenting with symptoms of tuberculosis are screened by sputum smear examination.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which of the following statements about lepromin test is not true
- A.
It is negative in most children in first 6 months of life
- B.
It is a diagnostic test
- C.
It is an important aid to classify type of leprosy disease
- D.
BCG vaccination may convert lepra reaction from negative to positive
Correct Answer
B. It is a diagnostic testExplanation
Lepromin test is not diagnostic of leprosy.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Which of the following is not transmitted by lice,
- A.
Q fever
- B.
Trench fever
- C.
Relapsing fever
- D.
Epidemic typhus
Correct Answer
A. Q feverExplanation
Q fever is transmitted by soft ticks.Rate this question:
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- 19.
True about endemic typhus —
- A.
Man is the only reservoir of infection
- B.
Flea is a vector of the disease
- C.
A rash developing into an eschar is characteristic of the disease
- D.
Culture is the diagnostic modality
Correct Answer
B. Flea is a vector of the diseaseExplanation
Rats are also reservoirs of infection. Eschar is seen in scrub typhus. Serological tests are used for diagnosis.Rate this question:
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- 20.
On SAFE strategy false is
- A.
Screening
- B.
Antibiotics
- C.
Facial hygiene
- D.
Environmental modification
Correct Answer
A. ScreeningExplanation
Components of safe strategy:
S - Surgery
A - Antibiotics
F - Facial hygiene
E - Environmental modificationRate this question:
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- 21.
Bohler’s angle is decreased in fracture of
- A.
Calcaneum
- B.
Talus
- C.
Navicular
- D.
Cuboid
Correct Answer
A. CalcaneumExplanation
Bohler’s angle is formed at the junction of:
-line joining the posterosuperior part of the calcaneal tuberosity and the uppermost point on the posterior articular surface for talus
-line joining the uppermost point on the posterior articular surface for talus and the anterior process of the calcaneum
Normal value is 25-40°. It is decreased in fracture of calcaneum. (usually occurs in fall from height)Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which is not a deep heat therapy
- A.
Short wave diathermy
- B.
Ultrasound therapy
- C.
Infrared therapy
- D.
Microwave therapy
Correct Answer
C. Infrared therapyExplanation
Infrared therapy is a type of superficial heat therapy.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Most common site of osteosarcoma is
- A.
Upper end of femur
- B.
Lower end of femur
- C.
Lower end of humerus
- D.
Lower end of tibia
Correct Answer
B. Lower end of femurExplanation
Osteosarcoma is a type of bone cancer that commonly occurs in the long bones of the body. It is most frequently found in the lower end of the femur, which is the thigh bone. This area is susceptible to osteosarcoma due to its high growth rate during adolescence and the presence of a growth plate. Osteosarcoma can also occur in other bones such as the tibia and humerus, but the lower end of the femur is the most common site for this type of cancer.Rate this question:
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- 24.
About congenital torticollis all are true except :
- A.
Always associated with breech extraction
- B.
Spontaneous resolution in most cases
- C.
2/3rd cases have palpable neck mass at birth
- D.
Uncorrected cases develop plagiocephaly
Correct Answer
A. Always associated with breech extractionExplanation
Congenital torticollis is most commonly associated with breech extraction. But not always.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Rickets in infancy is characterised by the following except :
- A.
Craniotabes
- B.
Rachitic rosary
- C.
Wide open fontanelles
- D.
Bow legs
Correct Answer
D. Bow legsExplanation
Bow legs appear only after the child starts walking - due to weight bearing effect.Rate this question:
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- 26.
In patients with osteoarthritis of knee joint, atrophy occurs most commonly in which muscle :
- A.
Quadriceps only
- B.
Hamstrings only
- C.
Quadriceps and hamstrings
- D.
Gastrocnemius
Correct Answer
A. Quadriceps onlyExplanation
Quadriceps is the most commonly affected muscle is osteoarthritis of knee.Rate this question:
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- 27.
60 yrs old male with bony abnormality at upper tibia associated with sensorineural hearing loss. On laboratory examination serum alkaline phosphatase levels are (440 mU/l) elevated and serum Ca and PO4 are normal. Skeletal survey shows ivory vertebrae and cotton wool spots in x-ray skull. Diagnosis is :
- A.
Fibrous dysplasia
- B.
Paget disease
- C.
Osteosclerotic metastasis
- D.
Osteoporosis
Correct Answer
B. Paget diseaseExplanation
The age, clinical features and investigation findings are characteristic of Paget's disease.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Meralgia paresthetica is due to involvement of
- A.
Medical cutaneous nerve of thigh
- B.
Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
- C.
Sural nerve
- D.
Femoral nerve
Correct Answer
B. Lateral cutaneous nerve of thighExplanation
Meralgia paresthetica is characterised by pain, tingling and numbness in lateral aspect of thigh. There is no motor deficiency. It is due to involvement of lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Pigmented villouodular synovitis most commonly affects :
- A.
Shoulder
- B.
Ankle
- C.
Knee
- D.
Metatarsophalangeal joint
Correct Answer
C. KneeExplanation
It is a benign condition characterised by exuberant proliferation of synovial tissue. It affects synovial joints, tendon sheaths and bursae.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Following are associated with CV junction anomalies except -
- A.
Basilar invagination
- B.
Odontoid dysgenesis
- C.
Ankylosing Spondylosis
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. None of the aboveExplanation
All of the above are associated with craniovertebral junction anomalies.Rate this question:
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- 31.
All the following statements are true about V. cholera 0139 except:
- A.
Clinical manifestations are similar to Eltor strain
- B.
First discovered in Chennai
- C.
Epidemiologically indistinguishable from O1 Eltor strain
- D.
Produces O1 Lipopolysaccharide
Correct Answer
D. Produces O1 LipopolysaccharideExplanation
V. cholera 0139 does not synthesise O1 LipopolysaccharideRate this question:
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- 32.
An elderly male patient presented with fever, chest pain and dry cough. Sputum culture showed growth on Charcol Yeast Extract Medium. The organism is
- A.
H. influenza
- B.
Moraxella cartarrhalis
- C.
Legionella
- D.
Burkholderia cepacia
Correct Answer
C. LegionellaExplanation
Legionella grows only in special media like Charcol Yeast Extract MediumRate this question:
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- 33.
A person working in an abattoir presented with a papule on hand, which turned into an ulcer. Which will best help in diagnosis?
- A.
Trichrome Methylene Blue
- B.
Carbol Fuschin
- C.
Acid Fast Stain
- D.
Calcoflour White
Correct Answer
A. Trichrome Methylene BlueExplanation
The clinical features are suggestive of cutaneous anthrax. Trichrome methylene blue is used to demonstrate McFadyean's reaction which is characteristic of Bacillus anthracis.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Brucella is transmitted by all expect:
- A.
Through the placenta of animals
- B.
Aerosol transmission
- C.
Person to person
- D.
Eating uncooked food
Correct Answer
C. Person to personExplanation
There is no person to person transmission in brucella.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Botulisum affects all except:
- A.
Neuromuscular junction
- B.
Preganglionic junction
- C.
Post ganglionic nerves
- D.
CNS
Correct Answer
D. CNSExplanation
CNS is not involved in botulism.Rate this question:
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- 36.
With reference to bacteriodes fragilis, the following statements are true except:
- A.
Bacteriodes fragilis is a frequent anaerobe isolated from clinical samples
- B.
Bacteriodes fragilis is not uniformly sensitive to metronidazole
- C.
The LPS formed by Bacteriodes fragilis is structurally and functionally different from the conventional endotoxins
- D.
Shock and DIC are common in bacteroides bacteremia
Correct Answer
D. Shock and DIC are common in bacteroides bacteremiaExplanation
Shock and DIC are not common in bacteroides bacteremia.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which of the following statement is not true regarding Chlamydia Trachomatis:
- A.
Elementary body is metabolically active
- B.
It is biphasic
- C.
Reticulate body divides by binary fission
- D.
Inside the cell it evades phagolysosome
Correct Answer
A. Elementary body is metabolically activeExplanation
Reticulate body is metabolically active.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Rabies is identified by
- A.
Guarneri bodies
- B.
Negri bodies
- C.
Cowdry A bodies
- D.
Cowdry B bodies
Correct Answer
B. Negri bodiesExplanation
Guarneri bodies - Vaccinia
Negri bodies - Rabies
Cowdry A bodies - Herpes / yellow fever
Cowdry B bodies - Adenovirus / pollovirusRate this question:
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- 39.
All statements are true for Chylamydia psittacosis except:
- A.
Acquired from bird’s droppings
- B.
Causes urethritis
- C.
Causes pneumonia
- D.
Treatment is tetracycline
Correct Answer
B. Causes urethritisExplanation
Chlamydia psittacosis is a bacterial infection that is acquired from bird's droppings. It causes pneumonia and can be treated with tetracycline. However, it does not cause urethritis, which is inflammation of the urethra.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Only hepatitis virus which can be cultured is
- A.
HAV
- B.
HBV
- C.
HCV
- D.
HDV
Correct Answer
A. HAVExplanation
HAV is the only hepatitis virus that can be cultured.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Reticulocytosis is seen in all except :
- A.
P.N.H.
- B.
Hemolysis
- C.
Nutritional anemia
- D.
Dyserythropoietic syndrome
Correct Answer
C. Nutritional anemiaExplanation
Reticulocytosis is the increased presence of reticulocytes, which are immature red blood cells, in the bloodstream. It is a normal response to conditions that cause increased red blood cell destruction or decreased red blood cell production. P.N.H. (paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria), hemolysis, and dyserythropoietic syndrome are all conditions that can result in increased red blood cell destruction or decreased red blood cell production, leading to reticulocytosis. However, nutritional anemia, which is caused by deficiencies in essential nutrients like iron, vitamin B12, or folate, does not typically cause reticulocytosis.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Which of the following dietary interventions reduces the further risk in MI patients-
- A.
High fibre diet
- B.
Sterol esters
- C.
Potassium supplements
- D.
N3 polyunsaturated fatty acids
Correct Answer
D. N3 polyunsaturated fatty acidsExplanation
n3 polyunsaturated fatty acids, such as omega-3 fatty acids, have been shown to have numerous cardiovascular benefits, including reducing the risk of further cardiovascular events in patients with myocardial infarction (MI). These fatty acids have anti-inflammatory and anti-thrombotic effects, which can help prevent the progression of atherosclerosis and reduce the risk of future heart attacks. They also have positive effects on lipid profiles, reducing triglyceride levels and increasing HDL cholesterol levels. Therefore, incorporating n3 polyunsaturated fatty acids into the diet can be an effective dietary intervention for reducing the further risk in MI patients.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Addison’s disease is associated with all except
- A.
Cardiac atrophy
- B.
Decreased diastolic B.P.
- C.
Serum cortisol < 8
- D.
Low renin levels
Correct Answer
D. Low renin levelsExplanation
Addison's disease is a condition characterized by the insufficient production of adrenal hormones, particularly cortisol. One of the primary functions of cortisol is to regulate blood pressure by increasing the sensitivity of blood vessels to constricting signals from the hormone aldosterone, which is regulated by renin. Therefore, in Addison's disease, where cortisol production is reduced, renin levels would be expected to be high rather than low. Thus, low renin levels are not associated with Addison's disease.Rate this question:
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- 44.
All are associated with MEN-2 except :
- A.
Pheochromocytoma
- B.
Lslet cell hyperplasia
- C.
Medullary carcinoma thyroid
- D.
Parathyroid adenoma
Correct Answer
B. Lslet cell hyperplasiaExplanation
MEN-2 (Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia Type 2) is a genetic disorder characterized by the development of tumors in various endocrine glands. Pheochromocytoma, medullary carcinoma of the thyroid, and parathyroid adenoma are all associated with MEN-2. However, lslet cell hyperplasia is not typically associated with MEN-2. Therefore, the correct answer is lslet cell hyperplasia.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Increased anion gap metabolic acidosis is seen in all except :
- A.
Starvation
- B.
Salicylate poisoning
- C.
Lactic acidosis
- D.
Diarrhoea
Correct Answer
D. DiarrhoeaExplanation
Mnemonic for causes of increased anion gap metabolic acidosis: MUDPILES
M-Methanol
U-Uremia (chronic renal failure)
D-Diabetic ketoacidosis
P-Propylene glycol
I-Infection, Iron, Isoniazid
L-Lactic acidosis
E-Ethylene glycol
S-Salicylates, StarvationRate this question:
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- 46.
Ratio of AST/ALT > 1 present in
- A.
Non alcoholic steatohepatitis
- B.
Alcoholic hepatitis
- C.
Wilson’s disease
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
B. Alcoholic hepatitisExplanation
Alcoholic hepatitis is characterized by inflammation of the liver caused by excessive alcohol consumption. One of the diagnostic markers for alcoholic hepatitis is the ratio of AST (aspartate aminotransferase) to ALT (alanine aminotransferase) in the blood. In alcoholic hepatitis, this ratio is typically greater than 1. Therefore, the correct answer is alcoholic hepatitis.Rate this question:
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- 47.
A female child with virilization, hypertension and low plasma renin. Diagnosis is :
- A.
21 alpha hydroxylase deficiency
- B.
11 beta hydroxylase deficiency
- C.
3 beta hydroxylase deficiency
- D.
Conn’s syndrome
Correct Answer
B. 11 beta hydroxylase deficiencyExplanation
11 beta hydroxylase deficiency is the correct diagnosis in this case. This condition is a form of congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) that affects the enzyme 11 beta hydroxylase, leading to a deficiency in cortisol and aldosterone production. The symptoms of virilization, hypertension, and low plasma renin are characteristic of this condition. In 11 beta hydroxylase deficiency, excess androgens are produced, leading to virilization in females. Hypertension is caused by the accumulation of mineralocorticoids. Low plasma renin is a result of the negative feedback on renin production due to excess mineralocorticoids.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Features seen in hemolytic anemia are all except
- A.
Tear drop and Burr cells
- B.
Decreased Haptoglobin
- C.
Reticulocytosis
- D.
Hemoglobinuria
Correct Answer
A. Tear drop and Burr cellsExplanation
Hemolytic anemia is characterized by the premature destruction of red blood cells, leading to a decrease in their lifespan. The features commonly seen in hemolytic anemia include decreased haptoglobin (a protein that binds to free hemoglobin), reticulocytosis (an increase in immature red blood cells), and hemoglobinuria (the presence of hemoglobin in the urine). Tear drop and Burr cells, on the other hand, are not typically associated with hemolytic anemia. Tear drop cells are usually seen in myelofibrosis, while Burr cells are commonly observed in conditions like uremia and liver disease.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Nephrocalcinosis is seen in all except :
- A.
Sarcoidosis
- B.
Distal RTA
- C.
Milk alkali syndrome
- D.
Medullary cystic kidney
Correct Answer
D. Medullary cystic kidneyExplanation
Nephrocalcinosis refers to the deposition of calcium in the renal parenchyma, leading to the formation of calcifications. It is commonly associated with various renal disorders. Sarcoidosis, distal renal tubular acidosis (RTA), and milk alkali syndrome are known to be associated with nephrocalcinosis. However, medullary cystic kidney is not typically associated with nephrocalcinosis. Medullary cystic kidney disease is a genetic disorder characterized by the progressive destruction of the renal medulla, leading to renal failure. Although it may present with other renal abnormalities, nephrocalcinosis is not a typical feature of medullary cystic kidney.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Interstitial nephritis is seen with all except :
- A.
Beta lactam inhibitors
- B.
INH
- C.
Diuretics
- D.
Allopurinol
Correct Answer
B. INHExplanation
Interstitial nephritis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the spaces between the kidney tubules. It is commonly caused by certain medications. Beta lactam inhibitors, diuretics, and allopurinol are known to be associated with interstitial nephritis. INH, which stands for isoniazid, is a medication used to treat tuberculosis. It is not typically associated with interstitial nephritis, making it the exception in this list.Rate this question:
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