3a151 Ure
Settings
-
+
.
- 1.(001) Which level of career field manager (CFM) has the authority to waive Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) requirements?
- A.
Unit level training manager
- B.
Base level functional manager
- C.
Major command functional manager.
- D.
Air Force career field manager.
- 2.(001) Which functional manager assigns collateral responsibility for training, classification, utilization and career development of enlisted Administration personnel?
- A.
Unit level training manager.
- B.
Base level functional manager.
- C.
Major command functional manager.
- D.
Air Force career field manager.
- 3.(002) Which customer service technique focuses on being postured for scheduled tasks that occur frequently?
- A.
Resolve issues in a timely manner.
- B.
Maintain open lines of communication.
- C.
The customer is a person and they matter.
- D.
Anticipate the need of the customer and exceed their expectations.
- 4.(003) What should you ask for that will show that you are being attentive to your customer’s needs?
- A.
Patience
- B.
More time
- C.
Clarification
- D.
Understanding
- 5.
- (004) The easiest way to determine the type of file you are storing is by the file
- A.
Extension
- B.
Prefix
- C.
Name
- D.
Size
- 6.(005) What program is not an application of the standard enterprise solution software used in the Air Force today?
- A.
Adobe Acrobat
- B.
Excel
- C.
Word
- D.
Outlook
- 7.(005) Which Microsoft Word function makes it easier for a user to locate and replace words or phrases in a document?
- A.
Track Changes.
- B.
Merging Documents.
- C.
Search Document.
- D.
Proof Documents.
- 8.(005) The four viewing options given for displaying document changes when using the Microsoft Word track changes feature are
- A.
Final and show mark-up, Final, Original and show mark up, Original.
- B.
Final and show mark-up, Final, Original and show mark up, and Signatures.
- C.
Final and show mark-up, Authenticators, Original and show mark up, and Original.
- D.
Final and show mark-up, Final, Original and show mark up, and Original Signature.
- 9.(005) Electronic signatures are effective and easy but should not be used with a
- A.
Word document.
- B.
Military decoration.
- C.
Merged document.
- D.
Memorandum for record.
- 10.(005) What are the decision quality characteristics of information that are used in databases?
- A.
Accuracy, relevance, timeliness, usability, completeness, brevity, and security.
- B.
Accuracy, relevance, timeliness, comparable, highly detailed, brevity, and security.
- C.
Accuracy, highly detailed, timeliness, usability, completeness, brevity, and security.
- D.
Accuracy, comparable, timeliness, usability, completeness, brevity, and encrypted.
- 11.(005) Why would you create a tailored database report for your customers?
- A.
To allow access to the database.
- B.
To maintain data’s integrity.
- C.
To allow data searches.
- D.
To record data structure vulnerabilities.
- 12.(005) While creating a Microsoft Excel spreadsheet, you cannot add what type(s) of content?
- A.
Pivot tables.
- B.
Formula utilization.
- C.
Sorting and filtering data.
- D.
Video clips.
- 13.(005) Microsoft Excel, which tab is used when performing mathematical calculation?
- A.
Formulas
- B.
Pivot Table
- C.
Data Forms
- D.
Data Consolidate
- 14.(005) When merging documents in Adobe Acrobat Pro, you can merge which types of files into a single document?
- A.
Portable document format (PDF) with PDF
- B.
Microsoft Word documents with PDF.
- C.
Microsoft PowerPoint documents with PDF.
- D.
Microsoft Excel documents with PDF.
- 15.(006) Which is an effective method of managing a high volume of e-mail messages in your inbox?
- A.
Creating subfolders.
- B.
Auto deleting messages by date.
- C.
Storing your messages in other outlook profiles.
- D.
Saving all inbox e-mails in .msg format for future reference or use.
- 16.(006) E-mail profiles are verified by
- A.
Establishing subfolders.
- B.
A .msg file that has a history of members’ profiles.
- C.
Certificates that reside on the members’ identification card.
- D.
The .pst file that is created and saved to the individuals account profile only.
- 17.(006) When digitally signing an electronic mail message, the signature indicates the message is
- A.
Authentic
- B.
Encrypted
- C.
Authenticated and encrypted
- D.
Official and private
- 18.(007) Which Microsoft Outlook function generates a pop-up message to alert the user to dismiss or snooze the action?
- A.
Cancel appointments.
- B.
Manage appointments.
- C.
Schedule appointments.
- D.
Appointment reminders.
- 19.(008) The main reason to use an IN TURN memorandum is to allow
- A.
Addressees to get their own copy.
- B.
The sender to see action office coordination.
- C.
The last action office to see coordination of the sender.
- D.
The final addressee to see the coordination of all addressees.
- 20.(008) Who has the responsibility to ensure the intended receiver receives the tasking and the tasking is accurate?
- A.
Taskee
- B.
Tasker
- C.
Sender
- D.
Receiver
- 21.(009) Which collaboration tool is used as an aid when providing content management, distributing information resources in a protective environment?
- A.
Access
- B.
Outlook
- C.
SharePoint
- D.
Task Management Tool
- 22.(009) Which type of SharePoint site is open to all members of the organization for content contribution?
- A.
Team
- B.
Internal organization.
- C.
External organization.
- D.
Administrative organization.
- 23.(009) Which type of SharePoint site grants permissions to users across multiple organizations?
- A.
A. My site.
- B.
B. Team site.
- C.
C. Internal organization site.
- D.
D. External organization site.
- 24.(009) What type of SharePoint content dictate the overall look and feel of a SharePoint page?
- A.
Links
- B.
Graphics
- C.
Dashboard
- D.
Site Layout
- 25.(009) Within the SharePoint gallery, which link section contains links to pages where you can modify administrative settings for a site?
- A.
Users and Permissions.
- B.
Galleries.
- C.
Site Administration.
- D.
Site Collection Administrators.
- 26.(009) Which SharePoint application is used to build and customize SharePoint sites and data-rich pages?
- A.
Designer
- B.
Workflow activation.
- C.
Site navigation.
- D.
Site collection features.
- 27.(010) Which Air Force Portal responsibility can deploy content items, topics, and portlets to the production portal?
- A.
Content manager.
- B.
Content publisher.
- C.
Wing/Group/Unit Air Force Portal content manager.
- D.
Major command (MAJCOM) lead content manager.
- 28.(011) Which network maintains the network bridges that each video teleconference site must use?
- A.
Defense Video Services.
- B.
Integrated Services Digital.
- C.
Defense Information System.
- D.
Program Management Office.
- 29.(011) A unit's unique video teleconference (VTC) address is called
- A.
Site ID
- B.
Coder-Decoder (CODEC)
- C.
Certification
- D.
Accreditation
- 30.(012) What type of service is not available when using the Defense Collaboration Services (DCS)?
- A.
Briefing
- B.
Screen sharing
- C.
Video teleconference
- D.
File storage
- 31.(012) Which is not a Defense Collaboration Services pod that is available for conferences?
- A.
Text chat.
- B.
User comments.
- C.
Video teleconferencing.
- D.
Remote computer access.
- 32.(013) What types of lines are used to provide telecommunications?
- A.
Ground
- B.
Internet
- C.
Cellular
- D.
Telephone
- 33.(014) What level of information, following unauthorized disclosure, could reasonably be expected to cause serious damage to national security?
- A.
Unclassified
- B.
Confidential
- C.
Secret
- D.
Top Secret
- 34.(014) When transporting classified information, what type of medium is high risk?
- A.
Laptop
- B.
Hardcopy
- C.
First Class mail
- D.
Electronic means
- 35.(015) What should be placed at the beginning of a paragraph that has For Official Use Only (FOUO) information in the paragraph itself, when the document is classified?
- A.
Secret
- B.
Top Secret
- C.
FOUO
- D.
The overall classification of the document
- 36.(016) When a request is made for Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) or Privacy Act (PA) material contained in a system of record, which program must the requester cite?
- A.
PA only
- B.
FOIA only
- C.
Both the FOIA and PA
- D.
Neither the FOIA or PA
- 37.(016) Under which Freedom of Information of Act (FOIA) exemption does most information in systems of records fall?
- A.
7, Investigative records.
- B.
6, Invasion of personal privacy.
- C.
5, Inter- or Intra-agency records.
- D.
2, Internal Personnel rules and practices.
- 38.(016) What penalty may be imposed if an unauthorized disclosure of Privacy Act material occurs?
- A.
$2,000 and a civil lawsuit.
- B.
$5,000 and a civil lawsuit.
- C.
$2,000 and a federal lawsuit.
- D.
$5,000 and a federal lawsuit.
- 39.(017) Which privacy act statement (PAS) element is a list of where and why the information will be disclosed outside the DOD?
- A.
Purpose
- B.
Authority
- C.
Disclosure
- D.
Routine uses
- 40.(017) Which method of personally identifiable information (PII) disclosure occurs most often?
- A.
Phishing
- B.
Burglary
- C.
Dumpster diving
- D.
Routine daily transmissions
- 41.(018) Which of the nine United States Code Title 5 records disclosure exemptions pertains to trade secrets?
- A.
Investigative records.
- B.
Invasion of personal privacy.
- C.
Confidential commercial information.
- D.
Internal personnel rules and practices.
- 42.(018) Who has the responsibility of identifying the requested Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) record so that it can be located with a reasonable amount of effort?
- A.
FOIA manager.
- B.
Government
- C.
Requester
- D.
Receiver
- 43.(019) What position carries the responsibility of being the focal point for all matters relating to information management policy?
- A.
Chief of Information Dominance and Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO A6).
- B.
Administrative Assistant to the Secretary of the Air Force (SAF/AA).
- C.
Forms manager/publication manager (FM/PM).
- D.
Office of primary responsibility (OPR).
- 44.(019) What position carries the responsibility of implementing information management policy and establishing publications and forms management guidance and procedures through the Information Directorate?
- A.
Chief of Information Dominance and Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO A6).
- B.
Administrative Assistant to the Secretary of the Air Force (SAF/AA).
- C.
Forms manager/publication manager (FM/PM).
- D.
Office of primary responsibility (OPR).
- 45.(019) Which office serves as the physical products distribution focal point for the Headquarters Air Force (HAF)?
- A.
Air Force Departmental Publishing Office (AFPDO).
- B.
SAF/AAI Information Directorate.
- C.
Media Distribution Division (MDD).
- D.
Office of primary responsibility (OPR).
- 46.(020) Who or what agency is the only approval authority/authenticator for Air Force policy directives (AFPD)?
- A.
Secretary of the Air Force (SAF).
- B.
Major command (MAJCOM).
- C.
Field operating agencies (FOA).
- D.
Direct reporting units (DRU).
- 47.(021) What must we always focus our efforts around in an effort to maintain effectiveness when maintaining publications and forms?
- A.
Customers’ needs.
- B.
Operations changes.
- C.
Mission changes.
- D.
Leadership
- 48.(021) ) What type of publication and form review conducted by the office of primary responsibility (OPR) has no time limit?
- A.
Independent
- B.
Two-year.
- C.
Special
- D.
Annual
- 49.(022) Regarding publications and forms, how many sections are contained in Part I of the product announcement?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
- 50.(022) What type of change is issued to announce only mission-essential information changes to a publication or form?
- A.
Interim
- B.
Supplemental
- C.
Congressional
- D.
Administrative
- 51.(023) In the Air Force records management program, what type of official record cannot be altered?
- A.
Final
- B.
Draft
- C.
Personal
- D.
Released
- 52.(024) What happens to Air National Guard (ANG)- generated state records when the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) gets involved in an emergency using federal dollars?
- A.
They remain state records.
- B.
They become federal records.
- C.
They are sent to the Air Force Reserve Command (AFRC) command records manager (CRM).
- D.
They are sent to the major command (MAJCOM) CRM.
- 53.(025) The person in which position has overall responsibility for the Air Force Records Management Program?
- A.
Air Force chief information officer.
- B.
Command records manager.
- C.
Air Force records officer.
- D.
Base Records manager.
- 54.(025) The person in which position administers the Air Force Records Management Program?
- A.
Air Force chief information officer.
- B.
Command records manager.
- C.
Air Force records officer.
- D.
Base records manager.
- 55.(025) When equipment is required for storing and retrieving records from files, who must be proficient on the equipment?
- A.
Records custodian.
- B.
Base records manager.
- C.
Chief of office of record.
- D.
Functional area records manager.
- 56.(026) In the files maintenance and disposition plan, which file arrangement requires the omission of numbers?
- A.
Chronological.
- B.
Geographical
- C.
Alphabetical
- D.
Subjective
- 57.(026) On a physical file, the labels are printed and affixed onto your files folders once
- A.
A supervisor and a commander have approved the file plan.
- B.
The chief of office of record (COR) has approved your file plan.
- C.
The commander and base records manager (BRM) have approved your file plan.
- D.
The BRM and the COR has approved the file plan.
- 58.(028) When labeling file drawers, they should have
- A.
A label identifying the contents
- B.
A disposition label affixed to the front.
- C.
An office symbol label affixed on the top of the drawer.
- D.
A label showing whether they are calendar or fiscal year.
- 59.(026) In reference to files record management, what term includes transferring a record from one organization to another?
- A.
Cross-reference
- B.
Disposition
- C.
Charge-out.
- D.
Movement
- 60.(026) In files and records management, how are emergency-operating records identified?
- A.
Temporary.
- B.
Permanent
- C.
Sensitive
- D.
Vital
- 61.(027) Degaussing is an effective method to destroy which types of records?
- A.
Paper
- B.
Flammable
- C.
Magnetic
- D.
Waterproof
- 62.(028) The authorization change request (ACR) is a manpower tool that can be initiated at which organizational level?
- A.
Air Force only
- B.
MAJCOM only
- C.
Wing only
- D.
Commanders at all levels
- 63.(028) What is the basic building block of the Future Years Defense Program?
- A.
Cost
- B.
Forces
- C.
Funds element
- D.
Program element
- 64.(028) The position number, a unique alphanumeric code used to identify a manpower
- A.
2
- B.
6
- C.
10
- D.
14
- 65.(029) What do manpower standard variances address?
- A.
Core manpower standards
- B.
Wartime manpower standards.
- C.
Peacetime manpower standards.
- D.
Work not included in core manpower standard.
- 66.(030) What AF form (source document) is used to record all training documentation?
- A.
623b, On-the-Job Training Record Label.
- B.
2096, Classification/On-the-Job Training Action.
- C.
623a, On-the-Job Training Record – Continuation Sheet.
- D.
797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS.
- 67.(030) Which information does not need to be documented on the 623a, Individual Training Record Folder?
- A.
Feedback
- B.
Counseling
- C.
Training status
- D.
Breaks in training
- 68.(030) The Air Force On-the-Job Program consists of how many training components?
- A.
3
- B.
6
- C.
4
- D.
8
- 69.(031) As it applies to the unit training program, the Instructional Systems Development principle has five steps. What is the third step??
- A.
Schedule training.
- B.
Select training strategies.
- C.
Determine training needs.
- D.
Determine training resources.
- 70.(032) Which type of leave would be used by someone separating from active duty?
- A.
Excess
- B.
Annual
- C.
Terminal
- D.
Advance
- 71.(033) What process is used for enlisted promotion and special duty selection?
- A.
Performance evaluations.
- B.
Performance observations.
- C.
Performance counseling.
- D.
Performance considerations.
- 72.(033) A civilian must have performed in his or her official position for at least how many days before an appraisal can be written?
- A.
90
- B.
120
- C.
180
- D.
360
- 73.(033) Letters of evaluation (LOE) cover periods of rate performance too short to require a performance report. When are LOEs optional?
- A.
When a reporting official change is due to PCS/PCA of the ratee.
- B.
When a reporting official change is due to PCS/PCA of the rater.
- C.
For periods of time when the ratee is under someone other than his or her designated rater.
- D.
For active duty A1Cs and below with less than 20 months of total federal military service (TAFMS).
- 74.(033) Which information is not required when submitting a change of reporting official (CRO)?
- A.
Effective date of assignment.
- B.
Effective date of supervision.
- C.
Rater’s full name, grade and SSAN.
- D.
Ratee’s full name, grade and SSAN.
- 75.(033) Which action is not part of the basic evaluation distributing process?
- A.
The rater receives an officer performance report/enlisted performance report (OPR/EPR) notice and any supporting material.
- B.
The rater reviews the OPR/EPR notice and contacts the Military Personnel Section (MPS) if he or she has questions.
- C.
When the notice is pushed out to the unit, designated commanders distribute it to the rater.
- D.
Evaluation report notices are generated by the personnel data system.
- 76.(034) In the Weighted Airmen Promotion System (WAPS), what is the promotion testing cycle for a staff sergeant (SSgt)?
- A.
February – March.
- B.
May – June.
- C.
December
- D.
September
- 77.(034) The unit commander reviews the unit promotion roster to decide who
- A.
Should below the zone test.
- B.
Should promotion test.
- C.
Meets testing eligibility.
- D.
Meets step promote eligibility.
- 78.(034) Which situation is not a reason for administrative demotion?
- A.
Failure to perform.
- B.
Failure to keep fit.
- C.
Failure to fulfill jury duty.
- D.
Failure to fulfill responsibilities.
- 79.(035) ) What is the maximum number of months per enlistment voluntary extensions are limited to for all Airmen?
- A.
24
- B.
36
- C.
48
- D.
56
- 80.(035) Which payment is not part of the Special Duty Assignment Pay (SDAP) Program?
- A.
Imminent danger.
- B.
Special duty assignment.
- C.
Hazardous duty incentive.
- D.
Career status bonus.
- 81.(036) What is the next level of counseling available to the supervisor after he or she has done a Record of Individual Counseling?
- A.
Unfavorable Information File.
- B.
Letter of Admonishment.
- C.
Letter of Counseling.
- D.
Letter of Reprimand.
- 82.(037) Which process is a part of the Individual Newcomer Treatment and Orientation (INTRO) Program to facilitate new unit arrivals?
- A.
Allocation Notice.
- B.
Virtual Outprocessing.
- C.
Unit Sponsorship Program.
- D.
Unit Overdue Arrival Confirmation Actions.
- 83.(037) What process provides gaining units a timely and accurate processing to identify “no-show” members?
- A.
Virtual Outprocessing.
- B.
Unit Sponsorship Program.
- C.
Personnel Reliability Program.
- D.
Unit Overdue Arrival Confirmation Actions.
- 84.(037) Which action is not a reason for using the Virtual Out-processing system?
- A.
Separation
- B.
Retirement
- C.
Assignment
- D.
Deployment
- 85.(037) Which key element is an important step of the decoration process?
- A.
Forms
- B.
B. Décor’6
- C.
Monitoring
- D.
Formatting
- 86.(038) Which agency provides postal service to the Department of Defense (DOD) components in support of DOD missions?
- A.
Military Post Office (MPO).
- B.
Postal Service Centers (PSC).
- C.
Military Postal Service (MPS).
- D.
Joint Military Postal Activities (JMPA).
- 87.(038) Who supervises mailing practices and reports misuse of official mail to the commanders of the alleged violators?
- A.
Official mail manager.
- B.
Military Post Office representative.
- C.
Postal Service Centers representative.
- D.
Joint Military Postal Activities manager.
- 88.(038) Which agency receives, sorts and distributes personal mail from the servicing postal activity for military members who reside in the dormitories/barracks?
- A.
Military Post Office.
- B.
Postal Service Centers.
- C.
Mail Control Activity or Agent.
- D.
Aerial Mail Terminal Functions.
- 89.
- A.
Military Post Office (MPO).
- B.
Official Mail Center (OMC).
- C.
Postal Service Centers (PSC).
- D.
Mail Control Activity (MCA).
- 90.(039) Which special mail service is the most secure because it provides a continuous chain of receipts?
- A.
Secure
- B.
Express
- C.
Certified
- D.
Registered
- 91.(039) Which mail class weight limit is 13 ounces?
- A.
Priority
- B.
Standard
- C.
First Class
- D.
Periodical
- 92.(039) What is the most secure mail service the United States Postal Service (UPSC) offers?
- A.
Official
- B.
Personal
- C.
Suspicious
- D.
Registered
- 93.(039) When classified information is transmitted from one place to another, it must be enclosed in what kind of sealed envelopes, wrappings, or containers, that are durable enough to properly protect the material from accidental exposure and facilitate detection of tampering?
- A.
Two secure
- B.
Four secure
- C.
Two opaque
- D.
Four opaque
- 94.(039)Tracer actions are initiated if a sender does not receive a signed receipt back within how many days for material sent within the continental United States or how many days for material sent outside the continental United States respectively?
- A.
15; 30.
- B.
30; 45.
- C.
45; 60.
- D.
60; 90.
- 95.(040) The fitness assessment (FA) provides who with a tool to assist in the determination of the overall fitness of their military personnel.
- A.
Supervisor
- B.
Commanders
- C.
First sergeants
- D.
Superintendents
- 96.(040) The Government Purchase Card (GPC) Program is governed by what Air Force instruction?
- A.
46–117, Air Force Government-wide Travel Card Program.
- B.
64–117, Air Force Government-wide Travel Card Program.
- C.
46–117, Air Force Government-wide Purchase Card Program.
- D.
64–117, Air Force Government-wide Purchase Card Program.
- 97.(040) Who is responsible for the implementation and administration of the MAJCOM/Agency Government Purchase Card (GPC) Program subject to the Department of Defense (DOD) and Air Force policies?
- A.
Level 1 focal point.
- B.
Level 2 focal point.
- C.
Level 3 focal point.
- D.
Level 4 focal point.
- 98.(040) What agency has the responsibility for establishing Air Force travel card policies?
- A.
GSA
- B.
GPC
- C.
SAF/FM
- D.
SAF/AQC
- 99.(041) Commander’s calls are conducted at least
- A.
Weekly
- B.
Monthly
- C.
Quarterly
- D.
Semiannually
- 100.(042) Which protocol officers are responsible for protocol decorum, customs, and courtesies during Air Force ceremonies, conferences, and social event; for hosting distinguished visitors; and for honors afforded at military funerals?
- A.
Direct Reporting Unit.
- B.
Air Force.
- C.
Major command.
- D.
Installation.
Back to top