3a151 Ure
.
- 1.
(001) Which level of career field manager (CFM) has the authority to waive Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) requirements?
- A.
Unit level training manager
- B.
Base level functional manager
- C.
Major command functional manager.
- D.
Air Force career field manager.
Correct Answer
D. Air Force career field manager. -
- 2.
(001) Which functional manager assigns collateral responsibility for training, classification, utilization and career development of enlisted Administration personnel?
- A.
Unit level training manager.
- B.
Base level functional manager.
- C.
Major command functional manager.
- D.
Air Force career field manager.
Correct Answer
B. Base level functional manager. -
- 3.
(002) Which customer service technique focuses on being postured for scheduled tasks that occur frequently?
- A.
Resolve issues in a timely manner.
- B.
Maintain open lines of communication.
- C.
The customer is a person and they matter.
- D.
Anticipate the need of the customer and exceed their expectations.
Correct Answer
D. Anticipate the need of the customer and exceed their expectations. -
- 4.
(003) What should you ask for that will show that you are being attentive to your customer’s needs?
- A.
Patience
- B.
More time
- C.
Clarification
- D.
Understanding
Correct Answer
C. Clarification -
- 5.
- (004) The easiest way to determine the type of file you are storing is by the file
- A.
Extension
- B.
Prefix
- C.
Name
- D.
Size
Correct Answer
A. Extension - 6.
(005) What program is not an application of the standard enterprise solution software used in the Air Force today?
- A.
Adobe Acrobat
- B.
Excel
- C.
Word
- D.
Outlook
Correct Answer
A. Adobe Acrobat -
- 7.
(005) Which Microsoft Word function makes it easier for a user to locate and replace words or phrases in a document?
- A.
Track Changes.
- B.
Merging Documents.
- C.
Search Document.
- D.
Proof Documents.
Correct Answer
C. Search Document. -
- 8.
(005) The four viewing options given for displaying document changes when using the Microsoft Word track changes feature are
- A.
Final and show mark-up, Final, Original and show mark up, Original.
- B.
Final and show mark-up, Final, Original and show mark up, and Signatures.
- C.
Final and show mark-up, Authenticators, Original and show mark up, and Original.
- D.
Final and show mark-up, Final, Original and show mark up, and Original Signature.
Correct Answer
A. Final and show mark-up, Final, Original and show mark up, Original. -
- 9.
(005) Electronic signatures are effective and easy but should not be used with a
- A.
Word document.
- B.
Military decoration.
- C.
Merged document.
- D.
Memorandum for record.
Correct Answer
B. Military decoration. -
- 10.
(005) What are the decision quality characteristics of information that are used in databases?
- A.
Accuracy, relevance, timeliness, usability, completeness, brevity, and security.
- B.
Accuracy, relevance, timeliness, comparable, highly detailed, brevity, and security.
- C.
Accuracy, highly detailed, timeliness, usability, completeness, brevity, and security.
- D.
Accuracy, comparable, timeliness, usability, completeness, brevity, and encrypted.
Correct Answer
A. Accuracy, relevance, timeliness, usability, completeness, brevity, and security. -
- 11.
(005) Why would you create a tailored database report for your customers?
- A.
To allow access to the database.
- B.
To maintain data’s integrity.
- C.
To allow data searches.
- D.
To record data structure vulnerabilities.
Correct Answer
B. To maintain data’s integrity. -
- 12.
(005) While creating a Microsoft Excel spreadsheet, you cannot add what type(s) of content?
- A.
Pivot tables.
- B.
Formula utilization.
- C.
Sorting and filtering data.
- D.
Video clips.
Correct Answer
D. Video clips. -
- 13.
(005) Microsoft Excel, which tab is used when performing mathematical calculation?
- A.
Formulas
- B.
Pivot Table
- C.
Data Forms
- D.
Data Consolidate
Correct Answer
A. Formulas -
- 14.
(005) When merging documents in Adobe Acrobat Pro, you can merge which types of files into a single document?
- A.
Portable document format (PDF) with PDF
- B.
Microsoft Word documents with PDF.
- C.
Microsoft PowerPoint documents with PDF.
- D.
Microsoft Excel documents with PDF.
Correct Answer
A. Portable document format (PDF) with PDF -
- 15.
(006) Which is an effective method of managing a high volume of e-mail messages in your inbox?
- A.
Creating subfolders.
- B.
Auto deleting messages by date.
- C.
Storing your messages in other outlook profiles.
- D.
Saving all inbox e-mails in .msg format for future reference or use.
Correct Answer
A. Creating subfolders. -
- 16.
(006) E-mail profiles are verified by
- A.
Establishing subfolders.
- B.
A .msg file that has a history of members’ profiles.
- C.
Certificates that reside on the members’ identification card.
- D.
The .pst file that is created and saved to the individuals account profile only.
Correct Answer
C. Certificates that reside on the members’ identification card. -
- 17.
(006) When digitally signing an electronic mail message, the signature indicates the message is
- A.
Authentic
- B.
Encrypted
- C.
Authenticated and encrypted
- D.
Official and private
Correct Answer
A. Authentic -
- 18.
(007) Which Microsoft Outlook function generates a pop-up message to alert the user to dismiss or snooze the action?
- A.
Cancel appointments.
- B.
Manage appointments.
- C.
Schedule appointments.
- D.
Appointment reminders.
Correct Answer
D. Appointment reminders. -
- 19.
(008) The main reason to use an IN TURN memorandum is to allow
- A.
Addressees to get their own copy.
- B.
The sender to see action office coordination.
- C.
The last action office to see coordination of the sender.
- D.
The final addressee to see the coordination of all addressees.
Correct Answer
D. The final addressee to see the coordination of all addressees. -
- 20.
(008) Who has the responsibility to ensure the intended receiver receives the tasking and the tasking is accurate?
- A.
Taskee
- B.
Tasker
- C.
Sender
- D.
Receiver
Correct Answer
C. Sender -
- 21.
(009) Which collaboration tool is used as an aid when providing content management, distributing information resources in a protective environment?
- A.
Access
- B.
Outlook
- C.
SharePoint
- D.
Task Management Tool
Correct Answer
C. SharePoint -
- 22.
(009) Which type of SharePoint site is open to all members of the organization for content contribution?
- A.
Team
- B.
Internal organization.
- C.
External organization.
- D.
Administrative organization.
Correct Answer
B. Internal organization. -
- 23.
(009) Which type of SharePoint site grants permissions to users across multiple organizations?
- A.
A. My site.
- B.
B. Team site.
- C.
C. Internal organization site.
- D.
D. External organization site.
Correct Answer
B. B. Team site. -
- 24.
(009) What type of SharePoint content dictate the overall look and feel of a SharePoint page?
- A.
Links
- B.
Graphics
- C.
Dashboard
- D.
Site Layout
Correct Answer
D. Site Layout -
- 25.
(009) Within the SharePoint gallery, which link section contains links to pages where you can modify administrative settings for a site?
- A.
Users and Permissions.
- B.
Galleries.
- C.
Site Administration.
- D.
Site Collection Administrators.
Correct Answer
A. Users and Permissions. -
- 26.
(009) Which SharePoint application is used to build and customize SharePoint sites and data-rich pages?
- A.
Designer
- B.
Workflow activation.
- C.
Site navigation.
- D.
Site collection features.
Correct Answer
A. Designer -
- 27.
(010) Which Air Force Portal responsibility can deploy content items, topics, and portlets to the production portal?
- A.
Content manager.
- B.
Content publisher.
- C.
Wing/Group/Unit Air Force Portal content manager.
- D.
Major command (MAJCOM) lead content manager.
Correct Answer
A. Content manager. -
- 28.
(011) Which network maintains the network bridges that each video teleconference site must use?
- A.
Defense Video Services.
- B.
Integrated Services Digital.
- C.
Defense Information System.
- D.
Program Management Office.
Correct Answer
C. Defense Information System. -
- 29.
(011) A unit's unique video teleconference (VTC) address is called
- A.
Site ID
- B.
Coder-Decoder (CODEC)
- C.
Certification
- D.
Accreditation
Correct Answer
A. Site ID -
- 30.
(012) What type of service is not available when using the Defense Collaboration Services (DCS)?
- A.
Briefing
- B.
Screen sharing
- C.
Video teleconference
- D.
File storage
Correct Answer
D. File storage -
- 31.
(012) Which is not a Defense Collaboration Services pod that is available for conferences?
- A.
Text chat.
- B.
User comments.
- C.
Video teleconferencing.
- D.
Remote computer access.
Correct Answer
D. Remote computer access. -
- 32.
(013) What types of lines are used to provide telecommunications?
- A.
Ground
- B.
Internet
- C.
Cellular
- D.
Telephone
Correct Answer
A. Ground -
- 33.
(014) What level of information, following unauthorized disclosure, could reasonably be expected to cause serious damage to national security?
- A.
Unclassified
- B.
Confidential
- C.
Secret
- D.
Top Secret
Correct Answer
C. Secret -
- 34.
(014) When transporting classified information, what type of medium is high risk?
- A.
Laptop
- B.
Hardcopy
- C.
First Class mail
- D.
Electronic means
Correct Answer
A. Laptop -
- 35.
(015) What should be placed at the beginning of a paragraph that has For Official Use Only (FOUO) information in the paragraph itself, when the document is classified?
- A.
Secret
- B.
Top Secret
- C.
FOUO
- D.
The overall classification of the document
Correct Answer
C. FOUO -
- 36.
(016) When a request is made for Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) or Privacy Act (PA) material contained in a system of record, which program must the requester cite?
- A.
PA only
- B.
FOIA only
- C.
Both the FOIA and PA
- D.
Neither the FOIA or PA
Correct Answer
D. Neither the FOIA or PA -
- 37.
(016) Under which Freedom of Information of Act (FOIA) exemption does most information in systems of records fall?
- A.
7, Investigative records.
- B.
6, Invasion of personal privacy.
- C.
5, Inter- or Intra-agency records.
- D.
2, Internal Personnel rules and practices.
Correct Answer
B. 6, Invasion of personal privacy. -
- 38.
(016) What penalty may be imposed if an unauthorized disclosure of Privacy Act material occurs?
- A.
$2,000 and a civil lawsuit.
- B.
$5,000 and a civil lawsuit.
- C.
$2,000 and a federal lawsuit.
- D.
$5,000 and a federal lawsuit.
Correct Answer
B. $5,000 and a civil lawsuit. -
- 39.
(017) Which privacy act statement (PAS) element is a list of where and why the information will be disclosed outside the DOD?
- A.
Purpose
- B.
Authority
- C.
Disclosure
- D.
Routine uses
Correct Answer
D. Routine uses -
- 40.
(017) Which method of personally identifiable information (PII) disclosure occurs most often?
- A.
Phishing
- B.
Burglary
- C.
Dumpster diving
- D.
Routine daily transmissions
Correct Answer
D. Routine daily transmissions -
- 41.
(018) Which of the nine United States Code Title 5 records disclosure exemptions pertains to trade secrets?
- A.
Investigative records.
- B.
Invasion of personal privacy.
- C.
Confidential commercial information.
- D.
Internal personnel rules and practices.
Correct Answer
C. Confidential commercial information. -
- 42.
(018) Who has the responsibility of identifying the requested Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) record so that it can be located with a reasonable amount of effort?
- A.
FOIA manager.
- B.
Government
- C.
Requester
- D.
Receiver
Correct Answer
C. Requester -
- 43.
(019) What position carries the responsibility of being the focal point for all matters relating to information management policy?
- A.
Chief of Information Dominance and Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO A6).
- B.
Administrative Assistant to the Secretary of the Air Force (SAF/AA).
- C.
Forms manager/publication manager (FM/PM).
- D.
Office of primary responsibility (OPR).
Correct Answer
A. Chief of Information Dominance and Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO A6). -
- 44.
(019) What position carries the responsibility of implementing information management policy and establishing publications and forms management guidance and procedures through the Information Directorate?
- A.
Chief of Information Dominance and Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO A6).
- B.
Administrative Assistant to the Secretary of the Air Force (SAF/AA).
- C.
Forms manager/publication manager (FM/PM).
- D.
Office of primary responsibility (OPR).
Correct Answer
B. Administrative Assistant to the Secretary of the Air Force (SAF/AA). -
- 45.
(019) Which office serves as the physical products distribution focal point for the Headquarters Air Force (HAF)?
- A.
Air Force Departmental Publishing Office (AFPDO).
- B.
SAF/AAI Information Directorate.
- C.
Media Distribution Division (MDD).
- D.
Office of primary responsibility (OPR).
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Departmental Publishing Office (AFPDO). -
- 46.
(020) Who or what agency is the only approval authority/authenticator for Air Force policy directives (AFPD)?
- A.
Secretary of the Air Force (SAF).
- B.
Major command (MAJCOM).
- C.
Field operating agencies (FOA).
- D.
Direct reporting units (DRU).
Correct Answer
A. Secretary of the Air Force (SAF). -
- 47.
(021) What must we always focus our efforts around in an effort to maintain effectiveness when maintaining publications and forms?
- A.
Customers’ needs.
- B.
Operations changes.
- C.
Mission changes.
- D.
Leadership
Correct Answer
A. Customers’ needs. -
- 48.
(021) ) What type of publication and form review conducted by the office of primary responsibility (OPR) has no time limit?
- A.
Independent
- B.
Two-year.
- C.
Special
- D.
Annual
Correct Answer
C. Special -
- 49.
(022) Regarding publications and forms, how many sections are contained in Part I of the product announcement?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
D. 4 -
- 50.
(022) What type of change is issued to announce only mission-essential information changes to a publication or form?
- A.
Interim
- B.
Supplemental
- C.
Congressional
- D.
Administrative
Correct Answer
A. Interim -
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Current Version
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Oct 28, 2016Quiz Edited by
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Sep 22, 2016Quiz Created by
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