Supply 7 Level Vol 3
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Who is responsible for establishing the condition and identity of items received, stored, issued, shipped, and transferred by the Logistics Readiness Squadron?
- A.
Air Force Materiel Command Supply Chain Management Retail (AFMC SCM-R) Stock Control Activity.
- B.
AFMC SCM-R Quality Assurance Activity.
- C.
Materiel Management Inspector.
- D.
Central Storage Personnel.
Correct Answer
C. Materiel Management Inspector.Explanation
The Materiel Management Inspector is responsible for establishing the condition and identity of items received, stored, issued, shipped, and transferred by the Logistics Readiness Squadron. They ensure that proper procedures are followed and that the items are handled correctly. This role plays a crucial part in maintaining the accuracy and integrity of the squadron's inventory management system.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which transaction identification code (TRIC) reduces the item record’s serviceable balance and creates an unserviceable detail (R920) record?
- A.
FCC
- B.
FCH
- C.
FER
- D.
1SA
Correct Answer
A. FCCExplanation
The correct answer is FCC. FCC is the transaction identification code that reduces the item record's serviceable balance and creates an unserviceable detail (R920) record.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to correct misidentified serviceable items in storage?
- A.
FCC
- B.
FCH
- C.
FER
- D.
1SA
Correct Answer
B. FCHExplanation
The correct answer is FCH. FCH is the transaction identification code used to correct misidentified serviceable items in storage.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to correct misidentified special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) items?
- A.
FCC
- B.
FCH
- C.
FER
- D.
1SA
Correct Answer
D. 1SAExplanation
The correct answer is 1SA. The 1SA transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to correct misidentified special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) items. This code is specifically designed to address and rectify any misidentification issues related to SPRAM items.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Material deficiency report (MDR)/product quality deficiency reports (PQDR) exhibit items are readily identified in stock by what Management Notice?
- A.
I023
- B.
I012
- C.
I008
- D.
I003
Correct Answer
B. I012 -
- 6.
What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to load warehouse location and the material deficiency report (MDR)/product quality deficiency reports (PQDR) report control number of the exhibit?
- A.
ISU
- B.
DFM
- C.
TIN
- D.
TRM
Correct Answer
B. DFMExplanation
The correct answer is DFM. The DFM transaction identification code is used to load the warehouse location and the material deficiency report (MDR)/product quality deficiency reports (PQDR) report control number of the exhibit.Rate this question:
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- 7.
As a minimum, shelf life items are inspected
- A.
Bi-weekly
- B.
Monthly
- C.
Quarterly
- D.
Annually
Correct Answer
C. QuarterlyExplanation
Shelf life items are products that have a limited lifespan and can deteriorate over time. To ensure their quality and safety, regular inspections are necessary. Inspecting these items on a quarterly basis allows for a reasonable interval between inspections, striking a balance between frequent checks and efficient use of resources. This timeframe allows for potential issues to be identified and addressed before they become significant problems, ensuring that the items remain suitable for use and minimizing the risk of spoilage or expiration.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which transaction identification code (TRIC) should an inspector use to transfer anunserviceable shelf life asset to maintenance?
- A.
FCC
- B.
ISU
- C.
MSI
- D.
TIN
Correct Answer
C. MSIExplanation
An inspector should use the transaction identification code (TRIC) MSI to transfer an unserviceable shelf life asset to maintenance.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Who is responsible for providing materiel management inspectors with a list of itemsrequiring extensive functional checks prior to installation?
- A.
Computer operations.
- B.
Chief of maintenance.
- C.
Maintenance contact point.
- D.
Air Force Materiel Command Supply Chain Management Retail (AFMC SCM-R) QualityAssurance Activity.
Correct Answer
C. Maintenance contact point.Explanation
The maintenance contact point is responsible for providing materiel management inspectors with a list of items requiring extensive functional checks prior to installation. This implies that the maintenance contact point is the primary source of information for the inspectors regarding the items that need thorough checks. The other options, such as computer operations, chief of maintenance, and AFMC SCM-R Quality Assurance Activity, do not specifically mention this responsibility.Rate this question:
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- 10.
What transaction identification code (TRIC) is processed to load or delete the functionalcheck flag indicator (F) on functional check assets?
- A.
FCD
- B.
FCH
- C.
FCK
- D.
FTR
Correct Answer
A. FCDExplanation
The correct answer is FCD. The transaction identification code (TRIC) FCD is processed to load or delete the functional check flag indicator (F) on functional check assets. This TRIC is specifically used for managing the functional check status of assets, indicating whether they have undergone functional checks or not.Rate this question:
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- 11.
What product expedites the accomplishment of retrofit changes to end items, parts and materiel within a specific time period and reduces the probability of accidents and unreliability of systems or equipment?
- A.
Time compliance technical orders (TCTO).
- B.
Inspection offline checklist (R32).
- C.
Functional check listing.
- D.
Shelf life listing.
Correct Answer
A. Time compliance technical orders (TCTO).Explanation
Time compliance technical orders (TCTO) are a product that expedites the accomplishment of retrofit changes to end items, parts, and materiel within a specific time period. They also reduce the probability of accidents and unreliability of systems or equipment. TCTOs provide specific instructions and procedures for implementing necessary changes or modifications to ensure compliance with safety regulations and improve the reliability and performance of equipment. By following TCTOs, organizations can ensure that necessary updates are made in a timely manner, minimizing the risk of accidents and enhancing the overall reliability of systems and equipment.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which materiel management personnel identify and control all items in stock requiringcompliance with technical orders (TO)?
- A.
Receiving
- B.
Inspector
- C.
War Readiness
- D.
Procedures and analysis
Correct Answer
B. InspectorExplanation
The correct answer is "Inspector." Inspectors are responsible for identifying and controlling all items in stock that require compliance with technical orders (TO). They ensure that the items meet the required standards and specifications outlined in the TO. By conducting inspections and quality control checks, inspectors help maintain the integrity and accuracy of the stock inventory.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Who forwards a copy of all time-compliance technical order (TCTO) publications with a cover letter to the inspection function?
- A.
TCTO kit manager.
- B.
Maintenance Quality Assurance.
- C.
Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Quality Assurance Section.
- D.
Air Force Materiel Command Supply Chain Management Retail Quality Assurance Activity.
Correct Answer
B. Maintenance Quality Assurance.Explanation
Maintenance Quality Assurance forwards a copy of all time-compliance technical order (TCTO) publications with a cover letter to the inspection function.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What does the time compliance technical order (TCTO) kit manager use to control shelf life items in the kits?
- A.
D043B system.
- B.
Kit stock numbers.
- C.
TCTO publications.
- D.
TCTO kit jacket file.
Correct Answer
B. Kit stock numbers.Explanation
The time compliance technical order (TCTO) kit manager uses kit stock numbers to control shelf life items in the kits. Kit stock numbers are unique identifiers assigned to each kit, which allow the manager to track and manage the inventory of shelf life items. By using kit stock numbers, the manager can easily identify which kits contain items that are nearing their expiration dates and take appropriate actions such as replacing or replenishing those items.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Items that could cause a hazardous condition or damage to personnel, property, or equipment if used before inspection for verification of serviceability are identified as what type of item?
- A.
Functional check.
- B.
Suspect/unsuitable.
- C.
Electrostatic sensitive device (ESD).
- D.
Time change technical order (TCTO).
Correct Answer
B. Suspect/unsuitable.Explanation
Items that could cause a hazardous condition or damage to personnel, property, or equipment if used before inspection for verification of serviceability are identified as suspect/unsuitable. This means that these items are not deemed safe or suitable for use until they have been inspected and verified for serviceability.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to load a suspect materiel flag to an item record?
- A.
FCC with an “F” in position 48.
- B.
FCD with an “F” in position 48.
- C.
FCC with an “S” in position 48.
- D.
FCD with an “S” in position 48.
Correct Answer
D. FCD with an “S” in position 48.Explanation
The correct answer is FCD with an "S" in position 48. This is because the question asks for the transaction identification code (TRIC) used to load a suspect materiel flag to an item record. The TRIC FCD indicates a change to the item record, and the "S" in position 48 specifies that the change is related to a suspect materiel flag. Therefore, FCD with an "S" in position 48 is the correct TRIC for this action.Rate this question:
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- 17.
What management notice is produced anytime a receipt or return is processed against a stock number that has a suspect materiel flag loaded against it?
- A.
I302.
- B.
I012.
- C.
F111.
- D.
F112.
Correct Answer
A. I302.Explanation
The correct answer is I302. This management notice is produced whenever a receipt or return is processed against a stock number that has a suspect material flag loaded against it. This notice is likely generated to alert management about the potential issue with the stock item and to take appropriate actions to investigate and resolve the matter.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What type of item is identified on the item record with a type cargo code 3?
- A.
Functional check.
- B.
Suspect/unsuitable.
- C.
Electrostatic sensitive device (ESD).
- D.
Time change technical order (TCTO).
Correct Answer
C. Electrostatic sensitive device (ESD).Explanation
An item identified on the item record with a type cargo code 3 is an Electrostatic Sensitive Device (ESD). This means that the item is sensitive to electrostatic discharge and requires special handling and packaging to prevent damage.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Who is responsible for maintaining a list of organization’s precious metals recovery program (PMRP) monitor’s name and contact information (including location), along with the type of recovery equipment, type of precious metals scrape generated, and the kind of precious metals and high precious metals content items used?
- A.
Item manager.
- B.
Maintenance commander.
- C.
Materiel management flight chief inspector.
- D.
Logistic Readiness Squadron (LRS) commander.
Correct Answer
C. Materiel management flight chief inspector.Explanation
The Materiel management flight chief inspector is responsible for maintaining a list of the organization's precious metals recovery program (PMRP) monitor's name and contact information, along with information about the type of recovery equipment, type of precious metals scrape generated, and the kind of precious metals and high precious metals content items used.Rate this question:
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- 20.
The precious metals recovery program (PMRP) manager reviews an organization’s PMRP operations, documentation, and adherence to the overall program requirements every
- A.
32 months.
- B.
24 months.
- C.
12 months.
- D.
6 months.
Correct Answer
B. 24 months.Explanation
The correct answer is 24 months. The PMRP manager reviews an organization's PMRP operations, documentation, and adherence to program requirements every 24 months. This periodic review ensures that the organization is following the guidelines and requirements of the PMRP and allows for any necessary adjustments or improvements to be made. A longer interval between reviews would increase the risk of non-compliance or inefficiencies going unnoticed for a longer period of time, while a shorter interval may be too frequent and burdensome for the organization. Therefore, a review every 24 months strikes a balance between ensuring compliance and allowing for effective program management.Rate this question:
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- 21.
What is the framework in which the overall materiel storage space is developed?
- A.
Facility design plan.
- B.
Facility layout guide.
- C.
Warehouse design plan.
- D.
Warehouse layout plan.
Correct Answer
D. Warehouse layout plan.Explanation
The correct answer is "Warehouse layout plan." This is because a warehouse layout plan refers to the framework or blueprint that is developed to organize and arrange the overall materiel storage space in a warehouse. It includes the allocation of different areas for storage, picking, receiving, and shipping, as well as the placement of equipment, aisles, and racks to optimize efficiency and maximize storage capacity.Rate this question:
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- 22.
When the physical layout of a storage facility is planned, the total or gross storage space is known as the
- A.
Reference point.
- B.
Identification point.
- C.
Authorization point.
- D.
Implementation point.
Correct Answer
D. Implementation point.Explanation
The physical layout of a storage facility involves planning the total or gross storage space. This refers to the actual implementation of the storage space, where it is physically set up and organized. The other options, such as reference point, identification point, and authorization point, do not accurately describe the concept of planning the physical layout of a storage facility. Therefore, the correct answer is implementation point.Rate this question:
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- 23.
What storage factor is used when fast moving items of great demand are stored in easily accessible locations with little handling as possible and slow moving items are stored in less convenient locations?
- A.
Item quantity.
- B.
Item similarity.
- C.
Item popularity.
- D.
Item size and weight.
Correct Answer
C. Item popularity.Explanation
This storage factor is used to prioritize the placement of items based on their popularity. Fast moving items with high demand are stored in easily accessible locations to ensure quick and efficient retrieval, while slow moving items are stored in less convenient locations as they are not in high demand and require less frequent handling. The popularity of the items determines their storage location.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Increasing the amount of space for an item in a location to eliminate overflow into another item’s location describes what type of storage factor?
- A.
Item quantity.
- B.
Item similarity.
- C.
Item popularity.
- D.
Item size and weight.
Correct Answer
A. Item quantity.Explanation
Increasing the amount of space for an item in a location to eliminate overflow into another item's location indicates that the storage factor being described is item quantity. This means that the focus is on the number or quantity of items being stored and ensuring that there is enough space allocated for each item to prevent overflow or overcrowding. It does not refer to the similarity, popularity, size, or weight of the items.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which aisle can increase the possibility of pilferage in a warehouse?
- A.
Main.
- B.
Service.
- C.
Working.
- D.
Personnel.
Correct Answer
D. Personnel.Explanation
The personnel aisle can increase the possibility of pilferage in a warehouse because it provides access to employees who may have the opportunity to steal or misuse items. Unlike the main, service, and working aisles which are primarily used for the movement of goods and equipment, the personnel aisle is typically used by employees to access their workstations or break areas. This increased foot traffic and access to valuable items can make it easier for theft to occur.Rate this question:
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- 26.
The basic resource of any supply and distribution operation is the
- A.
Gross space available.
- B.
Storage space layout.
- C.
Storage space.
- D.
Storage plan.
Correct Answer
C. Storage space.Explanation
The correct answer is storage space because it is the fundamental resource required for any supply and distribution operation. Without sufficient storage space, it would be impossible to store and organize goods effectively, leading to inefficiencies in the operation. The layout and plan of the storage space are important considerations, but the essential resource itself is the storage space.Rate this question:
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- 27.
At a minimum, how much clearance space must be maintained below automatic sprinkler heads in a storage space when stack heights exceed 15 feet?
- A.
12 inches
- B.
18 inches
- C.
24 inches
- D.
36 inches
Correct Answer
D. 36 inchesExplanation
In storage spaces where stack heights exceed 15 feet, a minimum clearance space of 36 inches must be maintained below automatic sprinkler heads. This is necessary to ensure that the sprinkler heads have enough space to effectively spray water in case of a fire. A larger clearance space allows for better coverage and reduces the risk of obstructions blocking the sprinkler heads, thus increasing the effectiveness of the sprinkler system in controlling and extinguishing fires.Rate this question:
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- 28.
In a storage space, the total or maximum amount of weight that can be stored in a specific amount of floor space is known as
- A.
Scale load.
- B.
Weight limit.
- C.
Floor load limit.
- D.
Weight restriction.
Correct Answer
C. Floor load limit.Explanation
The correct answer is "floor load limit." In a storage space, the floor load limit refers to the maximum amount of weight that can be safely stored in a specific amount of floor space. This limit is determined by the structural capacity of the floor and ensures that the weight does not exceed the floor's load-bearing capabilities.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which method of storage helps to ensure that the oldest items are issued before they become outdated?
- A.
First in, last out.
- B.
First in, first out.
- C.
Stock by serial number.
- D.
Stock using national stock number (NSN).
Correct Answer
B. First in, first out.Explanation
First in, first out (FIFO) is a method of storage where the oldest items are issued before they become outdated. This means that the items that are received or stocked first are also the first ones to be used or issued. This method ensures that the inventory is rotated properly, preventing items from becoming obsolete or expired. It is commonly used in industries where perishable or time-sensitive goods are involved, such as food and pharmaceuticals.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Top Secret materiel is stored in what class of storage vault?
- A.
A
- B.
B
- C.
C
- D.
D
Correct Answer
A. AExplanation
Top Secret materiel is stored in Class A storage vault.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Secret and Confidential materiel is stored in what class of storage vault?
- A.
A
- B.
B
- C.
C
- D.
D
Correct Answer
B. BExplanation
Secret and Confidential material is stored in Class B storage vault.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What type items have a ready resale value, civilian utility, or application as personal possessions, making them highly susceptible to theft?
- A.
Sensitive.
- B.
Pilferable.
- C.
Protective.
- D.
Critical.
Correct Answer
B. Pilferable.Explanation
Pilferable items are those that have a ready resale value, civilian utility, or application as personal possessions, making them highly susceptible to theft. These items are easily stolen due to their high demand and value in the market.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Which Standard Form (SF) must be used to secure all vaults, secure rooms, and containers used for the storage of classified materiel?
- A.
SF 700.
- B.
SF 701.
- C.
SF 702.
- D.
SF 703.
Correct Answer
C. SF 702.Explanation
The correct answer is SF 702. The SF 702 form is used to secure all vaults, secure rooms, and containers used for the storage of classified materiel. This form is specifically designed to document the opening, closing, and checking of these storage areas to ensure that they are properly secured and that access is limited to authorized personnel only. By using the SF 702 form, organizations can maintain a record of who accessed the storage areas and when, enhancing security and accountability.Rate this question:
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- 34.
What individual or activity schedules and conducts a warehouse location validation for satellite accounts?
- A.
Inspection Section personnel.
- B.
Inventory Section personnel.
- C.
Account storage personnel.
- D.
Accountable officer.
Correct Answer
C. Account storage personnel.Explanation
Account storage personnel are responsible for conducting and scheduling warehouse location validation for satellite accounts. They are the individuals who oversee the storage and organization of inventory in the warehouse, making them the most suitable for this task. Inspection Section personnel may be involved in other quality control activities, while Inventory Section personnel focus on tracking and managing inventory levels. The accountable officer is responsible for overall accountability and management, but may not be directly involved in the specific task of warehouse location validation.Rate this question:
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- 35.
What does the storage activity perform prior to the start of an inventory cycle to ensure property is accurately stored and matches the item record?
- A.
Warehouse location validation.
- B.
Surveillance inspection.
- C.
Organizational review.
- D.
Special inventory.
Correct Answer
A. Warehouse location validation.Explanation
Prior to the start of an inventory cycle, the storage activity performs warehouse location validation to ensure that the property is accurately stored and matches the item record. This process involves verifying the physical location of each item in the warehouse and cross-checking it with the corresponding item record in the inventory system. By conducting warehouse location validation, the storage activity can identify any discrepancies or errors in the storage of property and take corrective actions to ensure accurate inventory management.Rate this question:
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- 36.
The ability to print warehouse location validation listings and process transactions associated with location validation for bin rows, serviceable balances with no locations, and dead locations is provided by
- A.
Discoverer Plus.
- B.
Enterprise Solution-Supply (ES-S).
- C.
Enterprise Data Collection Layer (EDCL).
- D.
Interactive Communications Interface (ICI).
Correct Answer
B. Enterprise Solution-Supply (ES-S).Explanation
ES-S provides the ability to print warehouse location validation listings and process transactions associated with location validation for bin rows, serviceable balances with no locations, and dead locations.Rate this question:
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- 37.
What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to delete a dead location?
- A.
FSC
- B.
FID
- C.
FIC
- D.
FCS
Correct Answer
D. FCSExplanation
The transaction identification code (TRIC) used to delete a dead location is FCS.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Failure to identify and move property that is located in the wrong warehouse location in a timely manner contributes to out-of-balance conditions, erroneous stock records, and
- A.
Zero demand levels.
- B.
Warehouse refusals.
- C.
Out of cycle inventories.
- D.
Mission capabilities (MICAP).
Correct Answer
B. Warehouse refusals.Explanation
Failure to identify and move property that is located in the wrong warehouse location in a timely manner can result in warehouse refusals. This means that the warehouse may refuse to accept or store the property due to it being in the wrong location. This can contribute to out-of-balance conditions, as the property is not where it should be, and erroneous stock records, as the records may not accurately reflect the location of the property. Additionally, this can lead to zero demand levels, as the property may not be accessible or available for use.Rate this question:
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- 39.
What listing is used to identify items having a serviceable balance but no warehouse location assigned to them, and a date of last transaction (DOLT) greater than 3 days?
- A.
R28
- B.
R36
- C.
R37
- D.
R38
Correct Answer
B. R36Explanation
The listing used to identify items having a serviceable balance but no warehouse location assigned to them, and a date of last transaction (DOLT) greater than 3 days is R36.Rate this question:
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- 40.
What listing is used to control auditable transactions processed by the materiel management system and provides a comprehensive means to review normal transactions on a daily basis?
- A.
D04
- B.
M04
- C.
R36
- D.
S04
Correct Answer
A. D04Explanation
The listing used to control auditable transactions processed by the materiel management system and provides a comprehensive means to review normal transactions on a daily basis is D04.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Warehouse personnel use the Daily Document Register (D04) to verify successful processing for transactions on warehouse location deletions, indicative data changes, unit of issue changes and
- A.
Organizational refusals.
- B.
Hazardous item changes.
- C.
Controlled item changes.
- D.
Record reversal and corrections.
Correct Answer
C. Controlled item changes.Explanation
The Daily Document Register (D04) is used by warehouse personnel to verify successful processing for various types of transactions. These include warehouse location deletions, indicative data changes, unit of issue changes, organizational refusals, hazardous item changes, and controlled item changes. Among these options, the correct answer is "controlled item changes". This means that the D04 is specifically used to verify successful processing for changes related to controlled items in the warehouse.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Which freeze code is loaded to the item record due to a warehouse refusal?
- A.
C
- B.
D
- C.
I
- D.
Q
Correct Answer
C. IExplanation
The freeze code "I" is loaded to the item record due to a warehouse refusal. This freeze code indicates that the item is inactive or unavailable for sale. It could be due to various reasons such as damage, expiration, or quality issues. By assigning the freeze code "I" to the item record, the system ensures that the item is not available for purchase or further processing until the issue is resolved.Rate this question:
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- 43.
All copies of warehouse refused documents are forwarded to what materiel management element?
- A.
Analysis.
- B.
Receiving.
- C.
Inventory.
- D.
Equipment.
Correct Answer
C. Inventory.Explanation
When all copies of warehouse refused documents are forwarded to the inventory, it suggests that the inventory department is responsible for managing and keeping track of the items that have been refused by the warehouse. They will likely update their records accordingly and take appropriate actions such as returning the items to the supplier or reallocating them to other areas of the organization.Rate this question:
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- 44.
What flag must be entered in the master bench stock detail if the authorized level is not based on consumption?
- A.
Minimum reserve authorization (MRA) or maximum authorized quantity (MAQ).
- B.
Authority for issue or economic order quantity (EOQ) consumption.
- C.
Maintenance priority or Mission Capable (MICAP) action.
- D.
Cumulative recurring demand or excess exception code.
Correct Answer
A. Minimum reserve authorization (MRA) or maximum authorized quantity (MAQ).Explanation
If the authorized level is not based on consumption, the flag that must be entered in the master bench stock detail is the Minimum Reserve Authorization (MRA) or Maximum Authorized Quantity (MAQ). This flag indicates the minimum quantity that should be maintained in stock or the maximum quantity that is authorized for use, regardless of consumption levels.Rate this question:
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- 45.
A complete inventory and replenishment is done how many days before a scheduled semiannual phase II review?
- A.
5
- B.
10
- C.
15
- D.
20
Correct Answer
C. 15Explanation
A complete inventory and replenishment is done 15 days before a scheduled semiannual phase II review. This timeframe allows enough time to assess the current inventory levels, identify any shortages or excesses, and order or adjust stock accordingly. It ensures that the inventory is fully stocked and ready for the review, minimizing any potential disruptions or delays during the process.Rate this question:
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- 46.
What listing is used to calculate bench stock authorized quantities?
- A.
D04
- B.
M04
- C.
R36
- D.
S04
Correct Answer
B. M04Explanation
The correct answer is M04. The M04 listing is used to calculate bench stock authorized quantities.Rate this question:
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- 47.
What listing provides information on existing bench stock details for recommended changes and deletions and identifies possible additions based on consumption?
- A.
D04
- B.
M04
- C.
R36
- D.
S04
Correct Answer
B. M04Explanation
The listing that provides information on existing bench stock details for recommended changes and deletions and identifies possible additions based on consumption is M04.Rate this question:
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- 48.
When is the S04 run in item number sequence?
- A.
At least annually.
- B.
After the M04 is processed.
- C.
After each semiannual review.
- D.
After items with deviations are added.
Correct Answer
C. After each semiannual review.Explanation
The S04 run in item number sequence occurs after each semiannual review. This suggests that the S04 run is a regular process that takes place twice a year, likely to update or review items in a specific order. The other options do not provide a clear indication of when the S04 run occurs, making them less likely to be the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 49.
To ensure all items assigned a warehouse location and/or a detail record, the inventory schedule will be established by
- A.
5 days after validation.
- B.
15 days after validation.
- C.
The end of the fiscal year.
- D.
The end of the calendar year.
Correct Answer
C. The end of the fiscal year.Explanation
The correct answer is "the end of the fiscal year." This means that the inventory schedule will be established by the last day of the fiscal year. This timing ensures that all items will have a warehouse location and/or a detail record assigned to them before the fiscal year ends. This is important for accounting and tracking purposes, as it allows for accurate reporting and management of inventory.Rate this question:
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- 50.
What type of inventory is conducted by line item on an as-required basis?
- A.
Sample
- B.
Special
- C.
Complete
- D.
Out-of-cycle
Correct Answer
B. SpecialExplanation
A special inventory is conducted by line item on an as-required basis. This means that instead of conducting a complete inventory of all items, only specific items are counted based on a particular need or requirement. This type of inventory is typically done for high-value or critical items, or when there is a suspicion of inventory discrepancies. It allows for targeted and efficient inventory management, focusing on specific items rather than conducting a complete inventory.Rate this question:
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