Security Forces Craftsman Vol. 2
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Questions and Answers
- 1.
Who provides the foundation of the integrated defense concept?
- A.
Security Forces
- B.
Intelligence fusion cell
- C.
Other Air force members
- D.
AFOSI
Correct Answer
A. Security ForcesExplanation
The correct answer is Security Forces. Security Forces are responsible for providing the foundation of the integrated defense concept. They are the military personnel who are trained and equipped to protect and defend the Air Force base and its personnel from any potential threats. They work alongside other Air Force members, including the Intelligence fusion cell and AFOSI, but it is the Security Forces who form the core of the integrated defense concept.Rate this question:
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- 2.
All of the following are guiding principles of the integrated defense concept except
- A.
Focused logistics
- B.
Full dimensional protection
- C.
Capabilities for dominating mass
- D.
Concept of full spectrum dominance
Correct Answer
C. Capabilities for dominating massExplanation
The guiding principles of the integrated defense concept include focused logistics, full dimensional protection, and the concept of full spectrum dominance. However, capabilities for dominating mass is not a guiding principle of the integrated defense concept. This means that the integrated defense concept does not prioritize or focus on overpowering the enemy through sheer numbers or mass.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Integrated defense does not require the capability to
- A.
Deny
- B.
Deter
- C.
Delay
- D.
Defuse
Correct Answer
D. DefuseExplanation
Integrated defense does not require the capability to defuse. Integrated defense refers to a comprehensive approach to security that combines various defensive measures to protect against threats. While denying, deterring, and delaying are all important components of integrated defense, defusing is not typically a part of this strategy. Defusing refers to the act of neutralizing or deactivating a threat, which is usually handled by specialized units or experts in specific fields. Integrated defense focuses more on proactive measures to prevent or mitigate threats rather than defusing them.Rate this question:
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- 4.
The intelligence fusion cell and it's products are the primary information sources that directly supports the
- A.
MAJCOM Commander
- B.
Installation commander
- C.
Defense Force Commander
- D.
Integrated defense working group
Correct Answer
C. Defense Force CommanderExplanation
The intelligence fusion cell and its products are the primary information sources that directly support the Defense Force Commander. This means that the fusion cell provides crucial intelligence and information to the Defense Force Commander, who is responsible for overseeing and leading the defense forces. The fusion cell's products likely include analysis, reports, and assessments that aid the Commander in making informed decisions and taking appropriate actions to ensure the defense of the organization or entity.Rate this question:
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- 5.
THe loss or disablment of non-nuclear assets that would harm or damage AF effectiveness to project decisive combat power and wage war are identified as
- A.
Conventional weapons
- B.
Mission support assets
- C.
Power projection assets
- D.
Non-Nuclear weapon systems
Correct Answer
C. Power projection assetsExplanation
Power projection assets refer to military capabilities that allow a country to deploy and sustain forces in a foreign territory to achieve strategic objectives. These assets include aircraft carriers, amphibious assault ships, long-range bombers, and other platforms that can transport and support troops and equipment. The loss or disablment of power projection assets would significantly impact the Air Force's ability to project combat power and wage war effectively, as it would limit their ability to deploy and sustain forces in critical regions.Rate this question:
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- 6.
What is defined as "organizing installation defense efforts among responsible internal/external agencies to ensure all aspects of integrated defense are accomplished, considered, and compensated for?
- A.
Integrated defense plan
- B.
Integrated defense concepts
- C.
Integrated defense security systems
- D.
Integrated defense risk management process
Correct Answer
A. Integrated defense planExplanation
An integrated defense plan refers to the coordination and organization of installation defense efforts among various internal and external agencies. This plan ensures that all aspects of defense are considered, accomplished, and compensated for. It involves the development and implementation of strategies, tactics, and systems to protect the installation from potential threats and risks. The integrated defense plan aims to create a comprehensive and cohesive approach to defense by bringing together different agencies and resources to effectively address security challenges.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Integrated defense plans (IDP'S) are accomplished by Air Reserve and Air National Guard installations/units
- A.
Only if the installation is a full time reserve or guard installation/unit
- B.
Only if the installation is responsible for protection level resources
- C.
Only if the installation has non-Protection level resources
- D.
Only during war
Correct Answer
B. Only if the installation is responsible for protection level resourcesExplanation
Integrated defense plans (IDP's) are accomplished by Air Reserve and Air National Guard installations/units only if the installation is responsible for protection level resources. This means that the installation must have the responsibility of protecting important resources in order to carry out integrated defense plans. The other options are not correct because they do not specify the requirement of being responsible for protection level resources.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What can effectively delay intruders in order to facilitate definitive threat classification and assessment and response by security forces?
- A.
Physical barriers
- B.
Night vision device
- C.
Infrared imaging device
- D.
Closed circuit television
Correct Answer
A. Physical barriersExplanation
Physical barriers can effectively delay intruders by physically obstructing their access to a certain area or facility. These barriers can include fences, walls, gates, or other structures that make it difficult for intruders to enter. By delaying their entry, security forces have more time to assess the threat, classify it, and respond accordingly. Physical barriers provide an additional layer of protection and can deter potential intruders from attempting to breach a secure area.Rate this question:
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- 9.
A relatively secure area that allows for identification of personnel and vehicles is defined as
- A.
A safe area
- B.
A search area
- C.
A denial area
- D.
An exclusion area
Correct Answer
B. A search areaExplanation
A search area is a relatively secure area that allows for identification of personnel and vehicles. This suggests that it is a designated space where authorized personnel can conduct thorough searches to identify individuals and vehicles. It implies that security measures are in place to ensure that only authorized individuals and vehicles are allowed access to this area, making it relatively secure.Rate this question:
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- 10.
What area should be as far back from the search facility as possible?
- A.
Parking area
- B.
Staging area
- C.
Overwatch
- D.
Search pit
Correct Answer
B. Staging areaExplanation
The staging area should be as far back from the search facility as possible. This is because the staging area is a designated location where resources and personnel are organized and prepared for a specific task or operation. By positioning it further away from the search facility, it ensures that there is enough space for equipment, vehicles, and personnel to gather and coordinate without interfering with the search operations. Additionally, having the staging area further back reduces the risk of any disturbances or disruptions to the search facility, allowing for a more efficient and focused search process.Rate this question:
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- 11.
In offense, obstacles assist in flank security, limiting enemy counterattack, cut off enemy reinforcment or routes of withdrawal and
- A.
Separating the enemy from vehicle support when they are using mounted operations
- B.
Channeling the enemy into places where they can more easily be engaged
- C.
Protecting defending units
- D.
Isolating objectives
Correct Answer
D. Isolating objectivesExplanation
Obstacles in offense can be used to isolate objectives by creating barriers or blockades that prevent the enemy from reaching or reinforcing their objectives. By strategically placing obstacles, the defending units can limit the enemy's movement and force them into specific areas where they can be easily engaged. This isolation of objectives makes it easier for the attacking forces to focus their efforts on capturing or neutralizing the objectives without worrying about enemy reinforcements or support.Rate this question:
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- 12.
The two types of obstacles you will typically encounter are
- A.
Existing and reinforcing
- B.
Disrupting and turning
- C.
Blocking and turning
- D.
Turning and fixing
Correct Answer
A. Existing and reinforcingExplanation
The correct answer is "Existing and reinforcing." When encountering obstacles, there are typically two types: existing obstacles that are already present and reinforcing obstacles that make the situation more difficult. Existing obstacles may include physical barriers or limitations, while reinforcing obstacles can be additional challenges or complications that arise during the process.Rate this question:
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- 13.
"To fight and win our nation's wars by providing prompt, sustained land dominance across the full range of military operations and spectrum of conflict in support of combatant commanders" is the mission of the
- A.
Army
- B.
Navy
- C.
Air Force
- D.
Marine Corps.
Correct Answer
A. ArmyExplanation
The given statement describes the mission of the Army. The Army's mission is to fight and win our nation's wars by providing prompt, sustained land dominance across the full range of military operations and spectrum of conflict in support of combatant commanders. This implies that the Army is responsible for conducting ground operations and maintaining land dominance in order to support combatant commanders in various military operations and conflicts.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What is the Navy's largest formation?
- A.
Fleet
- B.
Flotilla
- C.
Task force
- D.
Strike Group
Correct Answer
A. FleetExplanation
The Navy's largest formation is called a fleet. A fleet consists of multiple task forces, strike groups, and other smaller units. It is responsible for conducting major operations and exercises in a specific region or theater of operations. Fleets are commanded by high-ranking officers and play a crucial role in projecting naval power and maintaining maritime security.Rate this question:
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- 15.
A marine corps platoon is equivalent to an Air Force
- A.
Squadron
- B.
Group
- C.
Flight
- D.
Wing
Correct Answer
C. FlightExplanation
A marine corps platoon is equivalent to an Air Force Flight. In military terminology, a platoon is a small unit consisting of a few squads and is typically led by a lieutenant. Similarly, a flight is a small unit in the Air Force that consists of a few aircraft and is led by a flight commander. Both units are at a similar level in terms of size and leadership structure within their respective branches of the military. Therefore, Flight is the correct answer as it is the most appropriate equivalent for a marine corps platoon in the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 16.
The term used for a terrorist group that generally operates independently of, but receives support from, one or more governments is
- A.
Non-State supported
- B.
State supported
- C.
State organized
- D.
Stated ditected
Correct Answer
B. State supportedExplanation
The term used for a terrorist group that generally operates independently of, but receives support from, one or more governments is "State supported." This means that the terrorist group is not directly controlled or organized by the government(s), but they receive assistance, such as funding, weapons, or training, from these governments. This support can come in various forms, including financial, logistical, or ideological backing, and it enables the terrorist group to carry out their activities more effectively.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Generally, specially trained terrorists are of above average intelligence and between the ages of
- A.
16 and 24
- B.
21 and 28
- C.
23 and 30
- D.
25 and 32
Correct Answer
C. 23 and 30Explanation
Specially trained terrorists are typically individuals who possess above average intelligence and fall within a specific age range. The given answer, 23 and 30, aligns with this understanding. It suggests that individuals who undergo special training for terrorism are typically between the ages of 23 and 30, indicating that they are likely to be in their prime physical and mental capabilities during this period.Rate this question:
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- 18.
When are terrorist team members brought together for final rehearsals?
- A.
Never; terrorist team members do not conduct rehearsals
- B.
One week prior to scheduled attack execution
- C.
Just before departing for the target
- D.
Before executing the attack
Correct Answer
C. Just before departing for the targetExplanation
Terrorist team members are brought together for final rehearsals just before departing for the target. This allows them to practice and coordinate their actions, ensuring that they are prepared for the attack. By rehearsing their roles and going over the plan one last time, they can increase their chances of success and minimize the risk of failure. This timing also allows them to make any necessary adjustments or changes based on the latest information and circumstances.Rate this question:
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- 19.
The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is
- A.
Arson
- B.
Bombing
- C.
Hijacking
- D.
Assassination
Correct Answer
B. BombingExplanation
Terrorist groups commonly use bombing as their tactic due to its destructive nature and ability to cause mass casualties. Bombs can be easily concealed and detonated in public spaces, causing fear and chaos among the population. This tactic allows terrorists to make a strong impact and attract global attention to their cause. Bombings have been employed by various terrorist organizations worldwide, making it the most prevalent tactic used by such groups.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What term describes the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests?
- A.
Activity
- B.
Intentions
- C.
Operational capability
- D.
Operating environment
Correct Answer
B. IntentionsExplanation
The term "intentions" accurately describes the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests. Intentions refer to the motivations, goals, or objectives that drive individuals or groups to carry out terrorist activities. Understanding the intentions of terrorists is crucial for counterterrorism efforts as it helps in identifying potential threats and devising strategies to prevent attacks.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts against targets of opportunity?
- A.
Agent activity
- B.
Sympathizers
- C.
Terrorists
- D.
Partisans
Correct Answer
B. SympathizersExplanation
Sympathizers are individuals who support a cause or group but may not actively participate in organized activities. They may engage in random acts against targets of opportunity as a way to show their support or solidarity. While terrorists engage in planned and coordinated attacks, sympathizers may act individually or in small groups without a specific plan or direction. This random nature of their actions aligns with the description provided in the question. Therefore, the correct answer is sympathizers.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which term is defined as acting as individuals or in small groups and using a wide range of weapons, including small arms, hand grenades, rocket -propelled grenades, various small explosives, and incendiary devices?
- A.
Agent activity
- B.
Sympathizers
- C.
Terrorists
- D.
Partisans
Correct Answer
C. TerroristsExplanation
Terrorists are defined as individuals or small groups who use a wide range of weapons, including small arms, hand grenades, rocket-propelled grenades, various small explosives, and incendiary devices. They engage in acts of violence and terrorize people in order to achieve their political, religious, or ideological goals.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which threat level doctrine stresses the use if battalion size units to Co duct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 kilometers?
- A.
I
- B.
II
- C.
III
- D.
IV
Correct Answer
C. IIIExplanation
Threat level doctrine III stresses the use of battalion size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 kilometers. This means that in this particular threat level doctrine, the emphasis is placed on utilizing battalion size units and helicopters to carry out insertions at a significant distance of 50 kilometers. This approach allows for a larger force to be deployed quickly and efficiently to a specified location, enhancing the effectiveness of the operation.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which of these is not a force protection effect?
- A.
Deter
- B.
Detect
- C.
Defuse
- D.
Mitigate
Correct Answer
C. DefuseExplanation
The correct answer is "Defuse." Defusing is not a force protection effect. Force protection effects refer to measures taken to safeguard military personnel, equipment, and operations. Deterrence aims to discourage potential adversaries from taking hostile actions. Detection involves identifying and monitoring potential threats. Mitigation involves reducing the impact of a threat. However, defusing, which typically refers to deescalating tense situations or resolving conflicts, is not considered a force protection effect.Rate this question:
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- 25.
The key to force protection countermeasure planning is
- A.
A classified protection plan
- B.
An offensive force protection plan
- C.
A defensive force protection plan
- D.
Protecting sensitive information
Correct Answer
D. Protecting sensitive informationExplanation
The correct answer is "Protecting sensitive information." Force protection countermeasure planning involves measures taken to safeguard military personnel, resources, and operations from potential threats. Protecting sensitive information is crucial in this planning process as it helps prevent adversaries from gaining access to critical intelligence, tactics, or strategies. By safeguarding sensitive information, the military can maintain a tactical advantage and minimize the risk of potential attacks or compromises.Rate this question:
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- 26.
What is defined as the capability to reduce the effectiveness of attacking forest and reconnaissance assets through the principles of hide, blend, disguise, and decoy?
- A.
Cover, camouflage, and deception
- B.
Concealing camouflage decietfully
- C.
Deceptive camouflage concealment
- D.
Camouflage concealment deception
Correct Answer
D. Camouflage concealment deceptionExplanation
The capability to reduce the effectiveness of attacking forest and reconnaissance assets through the principles of hide, blend, disguise, and decoy is defined as camouflage concealment deception. This involves using various techniques and tactics to hide, blend in with the surroundings, disguise oneself or equipment, and create decoys to confuse and mislead the enemy. By employing these strategies, one can effectively reduce the chances of being detected or targeted by the enemy.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which term means to simulate an object or to use a signature generator to simulate a potential target?
- A.
Disguise
- B.
Decoy
- C.
Blend
- D.
Hide
Correct Answer
B. DecoyExplanation
A decoy is an object or device used to simulate or imitate something in order to divert attention or deceive others. In this context, using a signature generator to simulate a potential target can be considered as creating a decoy. By generating a signature that mimics the target, it tricks others into thinking that the decoy is the actual target, thus diverting attention away from the real object or person.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Rules of engagement are the commanders rules for
- A.
Mission requirements
- B.
National policy goals
- C.
The use of force
- D.
The rule of law
Correct Answer
C. The use of forceExplanation
The correct answer is "The use of force." In military operations, rules of engagement are the guidelines or instructions given to commanders regarding the circumstances and limitations under which they can use force. These rules ensure that military actions are conducted within legal and ethical boundaries, preventing excessive or unnecessary use of force. By defining when and how force can be employed, rules of engagement help maintain discipline, protect civilians, and achieve mission objectives effectively.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What consideration does not drive rules of engagement?
- A.
Legal
- B.
Policy
- C.
Military
- D.
Civilian
Correct Answer
D. CivilianExplanation
The rules of engagement are guidelines and directives that govern the use of force in military operations. They are primarily driven by legal, policy, and military considerations. Legal considerations ensure that military actions are in compliance with international laws and treaties. Policy considerations align military actions with the objectives and strategies of the government. Military considerations focus on the effectiveness and efficiency of military operations. However, civilian considerations do not drive the rules of engagement as they are more focused on the protection and welfare of non-combatants rather than determining the use of force.Rate this question:
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- 30.
What is defined as the threat of imminent use if force against the U.S. and U.S. Forces and includes the threat to use force to preclude or impede the mission and/or duties of U.S. Forces?
- A.
Hostile act
- B.
Hostile Force
- C.
Hostile intent
- D.
Elements of self defense
Correct Answer
C. Hostile intentExplanation
Hostile intent is defined as the threat of imminent use of force against the U.S. and U.S. Forces, including the threat to use force to prevent or hinder the mission and duties of U.S. Forces. It refers to the intention or purpose of an individual or group to cause harm or engage in hostile actions towards the U.S. or its forces. This term is used to identify potential threats and assess the level of danger posed by individuals or entities.Rate this question:
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- 31.
The Air Force unit type code (UTC) has how many posturing codes?
- A.
2
- B.
4
- C.
6
- D.
8
Correct Answer
C. 6Explanation
The Air Force unit type code (UTC) has six posturing codes. Posturing codes are used to indicate the status or condition of a unit, such as whether it is active, inactive, or in a training status. These codes are important for tracking and managing the readiness and availability of Air Force units.Rate this question:
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- 32.
When the need for a new unit type code or a major change in an existing UTC is required, the change is initiated at
- A.
Any level
- B.
Unit level
- C.
MAJCOM level
- D.
Air Staff only
Correct Answer
A. Any levelExplanation
When the need for a new unit type code or a major change in an existing UTC is required, the change can be initiated at any level within the organization. This means that individuals or groups at any level, whether it is at the unit level, MAJCOM level, or even at the Air Staff level, have the authority to initiate the change. This allows for flexibility and decentralization in the decision-making process, enabling quick and efficient responses to the evolving needs of the organization.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What unit type code, when deployed with QFEBB and QFEBS, provides HQ staff support for a medium to large (130-180 personnel) deployed Security Forces unit?
- A.
QFEBU
- B.
QFEPR
- C.
QFEBF
- D.
QFEBA
Correct Answer
D. QFEBAExplanation
QFEBA is the correct answer because it is the unit type code that provides HQ staff support for a medium to large deployed Security Forces unit. The other options, QFEBU, QFEPR, and QFEBF, do not specify the type of support needed for a unit of this size.Rate this question:
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- 34.
How many phases are there in the deployment process?
- A.
Five
- B.
Four
- C.
Three
- D.
Two
Correct Answer
B. FourExplanation
The correct answer is Four. In the deployment process, there are typically four phases. These phases include planning, building, testing, and releasing. During the planning phase, the goals and requirements of the deployment are defined. In the building phase, the necessary resources and infrastructure are prepared. The testing phase involves checking the functionality and performance of the deployment. Finally, in the releasing phase, the deployment is made available to users.Rate this question:
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- 35.
The process of reception, staging, onward movement and integration begins in which deployment phase?
- A.
Deployment
- B.
Employment
- C.
Re-deployment
- D.
Pre-deployment
Correct Answer
A. DeploymentExplanation
The process of reception, staging, onward movement, and integration begins in the deployment phase. This phase involves the initial deployment of personnel and equipment to the designated area of operation. It includes activities such as setting up base camps, establishing communication networks, and coordinating logistical support. The deployment phase is crucial in preparing the forces for their mission and ensuring a smooth transition into the operational environment.Rate this question:
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- 36.
In the deployment process, which of these is the focal point for all base deployments?
- A.
Installation deployment readiness cell
- B.
Installation personnel readiness team
- C.
Installation deployment officer
- D.
Unit deployment manager
Correct Answer
A. Installation deployment readiness cellExplanation
The focal point for all base deployments is the Installation Deployment Readiness Cell. This cell is responsible for ensuring that all necessary preparations and resources are in place for the deployment process. They coordinate with various teams and personnel to ensure that everything is ready for deployment, including personnel readiness, equipment, and logistics. They play a crucial role in ensuring a smooth and successful deployment operation.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which of the following is not a readiness reporting tool?
- A.
Status of resources training systems (SORTS)
- B.
Designed operational capability (DOC) statement
- C.
Air expeditionary force reporting tool (ART)
- D.
Mission-essential task list (METL)
Correct Answer
B. Designed operational capability (DOC) statementExplanation
The Designed Operational Capability (DOC) statement is not a readiness reporting tool. Readiness reporting tools are used to assess and report the readiness of military units and resources. SORTS, ART, and METL are all examples of readiness reporting tools that are commonly used in the military. However, the DOC statement is a document that outlines the desired operational capabilities of a military unit or system, rather than a tool used for reporting readiness.Rate this question:
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- 38.
The status of resources and training syste. (SORTS) has how many areas of reporting?
- A.
4
- B.
7
- C.
10
- D.
15
Correct Answer
A. 4Explanation
The correct answer is 4. The question asks about the number of areas of reporting in the Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS). This suggests that SORTS has different areas or categories for reporting purposes. The answer "4" indicates that there are four such areas in SORTS.Rate this question:
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- 39.
A summary of a units mission and resources for which it has been organized, designed, and equipped is known as
- A.
A Status of resources and training systems
- B.
A designed operational capability statement
- C.
An air expeditionary force reporting tool
- D.
A mission essential task list
Correct Answer
B. A designed operational capability statementExplanation
A designed operational capability statement is a summary of a unit's mission and the resources it has been organized, designed, and equipped with. It provides an overview of the unit's capabilities and outlines how it is prepared to fulfill its mission. This statement helps to communicate the unit's readiness and effectiveness to higher authorities and other stakeholders.Rate this question:
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- 40.
What must security forces ensure is identified immediately so that action can be taken to mitigate across the Air Force?
- A.
Any deficiencies
- B.
Any hazards
- C.
Any threats
- D.
Any risks
Correct Answer
A. Any deficienciesExplanation
Security forces must ensure that any deficiencies are identified immediately so that action can be taken to mitigate them across the Air Force. Identifying deficiencies is crucial in maintaining a secure environment and preventing potential security breaches. By promptly identifying and addressing deficiencies, security forces can take appropriate measures to rectify the issues and enhance the overall security posture of the Air Force. This proactive approach helps in mitigating risks and ensuring the safety and protection of personnel, assets, and sensitive information.Rate this question:
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- 41.
At a minimum how many after action reports (AARs) must be aubmitted?
- A.
One
- B.
Two
- C.
Three
- D.
Four
Correct Answer
B. TwoExplanation
The question is asking for the minimum number of after action reports (AARs) that must be submitted. The correct answer is "Two" because after action reports are typically used to evaluate and analyze the results of a particular event or action. By having at least two AARs, it allows for a more comprehensive assessment from different perspectives, potentially identifying different areas for improvement and providing a more well-rounded evaluation.Rate this question:
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- 42.
The final after action report (AAR) must be submitted how many days prior to the end of a deployment?
- A.
45
- B.
30
- C.
15
- D.
5
Correct Answer
C. 15Explanation
The final after action report (AAR) must be submitted 15 days prior to the end of a deployment. This allows sufficient time for the report to be reviewed and analyzed before the deployment concludes. Submitting the report earlier ensures that any necessary adjustments or improvements can be made before the deployment ends, maximizing the effectiveness of the AAR process.Rate this question:
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- 43.
The use of electronic control devices is included in what after action report (AAR) incident classification?
- A.
Combat arms or training incident
- B.
Shooting incident
- C.
Security incident
- D.
Miscellaneous
Correct Answer
D. MiscellaneousExplanation
The use of electronic control devices is included in the Miscellaneous category of the after action report (AAR) incident classification. This category is typically used for incidents that do not fit into the other specified categories such as combat arms or training incidents, shooting incidents, or security incidents.Rate this question:
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- 44.
The nuclear road map focuses primarily from the
- A.
Tactical level
- B.
Strategic level
- C.
Operational level
- D.
Administrative level
Correct Answer
C. Operational levelExplanation
The operational level is the correct answer because the nuclear road map refers to the planning and execution of nuclear operations. The operational level is responsible for translating strategic objectives into specific actions and coordinating the tactical level to achieve those objectives. It involves the day-to-day management and coordination of resources, personnel, and activities to ensure the smooth functioning of nuclear operations. The operational level is critical for implementing and maintaining the effectiveness of nuclear strategies and ensuring the safe and efficient use of nuclear resources.Rate this question:
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- 45.
What is essential to our security?
- A.
Nuclear operations
- B.
Nuclear detterrence
- C.
Nuclear restraint
- D.
Nuclear surety
Correct Answer
B. Nuclear detterrenceExplanation
Nuclear deterrence is essential to our security because it serves as a deterrent against potential adversaries. The possession of nuclear weapons and the ability to retaliate with devastating force acts as a deterrent, discouraging other countries from launching a nuclear attack. This concept is based on the belief that the fear of mutually assured destruction will prevent any rational actor from initiating a nuclear conflict. Therefore, nuclear deterrence plays a crucial role in maintaining stability and preventing large-scale conflicts.Rate this question:
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- 46.
The nuclear road map aligns mission focus with
- A.
Installation commanders
- B.
Combatant Commanders
- C.
Secretary of defense
- D.
The President
Correct Answer
B. Combatant CommandersExplanation
The correct answer is Combatant Commanders. The nuclear road map aligns its mission focus with Combatant Commanders, who are responsible for the military operations and strategic planning in specific geographic regions. This alignment ensures that the nuclear road map is in line with the overall military strategy and objectives set by the Combatant Commanders, who have a deep understanding of the specific challenges and requirements in their respective areas of responsibility.Rate this question:
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- 47.
What is defined as the denial of unauthorized access to nuclear weapons?
- A.
Nuclear weapons security standard
- B.
Nuclear weapons security principle
- C.
Nuclear weapons security program
- D.
Two-person concept
Correct Answer
A. Nuclear weapons security standardExplanation
The correct answer is "Nuclear weapons security standard" because it refers to a set of guidelines or criteria that are established to prevent unauthorized access to nuclear weapons. These standards are put in place to ensure the safety and security of nuclear weapons and to prevent them from falling into the wrong hands. It involves measures such as physical security, personnel reliability, and strict access controls to protect against theft, sabotage, or unauthorized use of nuclear weapons.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Inspections and visits focus primarily on whether the security program can meet the nuclear weapon security standard (NWSS) under scenarios represented by
- A.
Defense intelligence agency
- B.
Air Force global strike command
- C.
MAJCOM IG
- D.
DOD IG
Correct Answer
A. Defense intelligence agencyExplanation
Inspections and visits are conducted to assess the security program's ability to meet the nuclear weapon security standard (NWSS) under various scenarios. The Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA) is responsible for providing intelligence support to the Department of Defense, including assessing threats to national security. Therefore, the DIA's involvement in inspections and visits ensures that the security program is capable of addressing potential threats identified by intelligence agencies.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Active and passive security measures are used to achieve which principle?
- A.
Deter
- B.
Delay
- C.
Denial
- D.
Detect
Correct Answer
B. DelayExplanation
Active and passive security measures are used to achieve the principle of "Delay." Delaying an attacker's progress is an effective strategy in preventing unauthorized access or damage. Active security measures involve actively preventing or disrupting an attack, such as using firewalls or intrusion detection systems. Passive security measures, on the other hand, focus on creating barriers or obstacles to slow down an attacker, such as using strong encryption or physical barriers. By implementing both active and passive security measures, organizations can effectively delay attackers, giving them more time to detect and respond to potential threats.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Who ensures that the host nation meets two-person concept requirements and that no-lone zones are delineated around nuclear logistic aircraft?
- A.
Entry control personnel
- B.
Non-qualified personnel
- C.
Non-US personnel
- D.
Couriers
Correct Answer
D. CouriersExplanation
Couriers ensure that the host nation meets two-person concept requirements and that no-lone zones are delineated around nuclear logistic aircraft. They are responsible for transporting sensitive and classified materials, ensuring their safe and secure delivery. Couriers play a crucial role in maintaining the security and integrity of nuclear logistics, ensuring that the necessary protocols and requirements are met to prevent any unauthorized access or compromise of nuclear assets.Rate this question:
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