PTCB Test Review

211 Questions

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PTCB Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The recommended dose of phenytoin sodium is 6mg/kg/d administered in three equally divided doses. The phenytoin stock suspension is available in a 125mg/5 mL concentration. How much should be given to a 44 lb child for each dose?
    • A. 

      1.6 ml

    • B. 

      3.5 ml

    • C. 

      4.8 ml

    • D. 

      10.5 ml

  • 2. 
    The volume in ML of cherry syrup needed to dilute 100 mL of Phenobarbital 20 mg/5mL o a concentration of 2 mg/mL is:
    • A. 

      50

    • B. 

      90

    • C. 

      100

    • D. 

      200

  • 3. 
    Using a standard heparin solution (25,000 units/500 mL D5W), how many mL per hour should the infusion rate be to achieve a dose of 1100 units/ hour?
    • A. 

      2.2

    • B. 

      11

    • C. 

      22

    • D. 

      44

  • 4. 
    Simvastatin is used to manage
    • A. 

      Diabetes

    • B. 

      Cholesterol

    • C. 

      Blood pressure

    • D. 

      Anxiety

  • 5. 
    Which of the following supplies are used when cleaning chemotherapy spills? 
    • A. 

      Paper towels

    • B. 

      Double gloves

    • C. 

      Waste paper basket

    • D. 

      Wet mop

  • 6. 
    Which of the following drug products is classified as a CII drug?
    • A. 

      Halcion

    • B. 

      Sonata

    • C. 

      Valium

    • D. 

      Ritalin

  • 7. 
    The hospital's morphine injection inventory is depleted on Friday, ad the wholesaler does not deliver again until Monday morning. The pharmacist should do which of the following?
    • A. 

      Substitute meperidine or hydromorphone upon the patient's request

    • B. 

      Substitute meperidine or hydromorphone because they are therapeutically equivalent

    • C. 

      Obtain morphine from another hospital, completing a DEA form 222 for the lender's records

    • D. 

      Borrow morphine from another hospital, promising to return it Monday

  • 8. 
    After receiving a delivery of a Schedule II product. what info must be recorded on the DEA 222 form?
    • A. 

      The cost of the product

    • B. 

      The date the product was placed

    • C. 

      The manufacturer of the product

    • D. 

      The date the product was received

  • 9. 
    Which of the following OTC vitamins is an antioxidant?
    • A. 

      Niacin

    • B. 

      Vitamin D

    • C. 

      Vitamin E

    • D. 

      Pyridoxine

  • 10. 
    A pharmacy is flooded. The FDA and state board of pharmacy rule that all of the medications in the pharmacy are non-dispensable and must be destroyed. What legal term describes these products?
    • A. 

      Recalled

    • B. 

      Misbranded

    • C. 

      Adulterated

    • D. 

      Outdated

  • 11. 
    Which of the following medications required DEA Form 222 when ordering?
    • A. 

      Duragesic

    • B. 

      Equagesic

    • C. 

      Depo-Medrol

    • D. 

      Enbrel

  • 12. 
    If the hospital's dopamine infusion product is labeled "400 mg/250 mL" the pump rate for an infusion of 800 mcg/ min should be set at?
    • A. 

      3 mL/h

    • B. 

      7.5 ml/h

    • C. 

      30 mL/ h

    • D. 

      120 ml/h

  • 13. 
    If the FDA reports a shortage of lipid lowering agents, which of the following meds could be involved?
    • A. 

      Doxepine

    • B. 

      Metformin

    • C. 

      Pregablin

    • D. 

      Pravastatin

  • 14. 
    FDA classifications of the pregnancy risks of meds may be found in the 
    • A. 

      MSDS guidelines

    • B. 

      OSHA guidelines

    • C. 

      Merck Manual

    • D. 

      Package insert

  • 15. 
    A 55 lb child is to receive heparin sodium by IV infusion in a dose of 50 units/ kg of body weight every 4 hours. How many ml of heparin injection containing 5000 units/ml will be administered for each dose?
    • A. 

      0.15

    • B. 

      0.25

    • C. 

      1.5

    • D. 

      2.5

  • 16. 
    Which of the following resources is used to obtain the most current drug info?
    • A. 

      The merck Manual

    • B. 

      Drug facts and comparisons

    • C. 

      Remington: The Science and Practice of Pharmacy

    • D. 

      The orange book

  • 17. 
    A prescription calls for injecting 50 units of insulin. What size syringe should be dispensed?
    • A. 

      0.3 ml

    • B. 

      0.5 ml

    • C. 

      1 ml

    • D. 

      3 ml

  • 18. 
    A customer presents to the pharmacy with a prescription for Emla. From what section would the pharm tech obtain this medication to fill for the prescription?
    • A. 

      Topical

    • B. 

      Injection

    • C. 

      Ophthalmic

    • D. 

      Refrigerator

  • 19. 
    Which of the following is a commercially available dose of oral levothyroxine?
    • A. 

      100 mcg

    • B. 

      1 mg

    • C. 

      500 mcg

    • D. 

      5 mg

  • 20. 
    Xalatan should be stored under which of the following conditions?
    • A. 

      Refrigerator at 2 deg to 8 deg C (36-46 deg F)

    • B. 

      Freezer at -20 to -10 deg C ( -4 to 14 deg F)

    • C. 

      Room temperature at 15 to 30 deg C ( 59 to 86 deg F)

    • D. 

      Warm at 30 to 40 deg C ( 86 to 104 deg F)

  • 21. 
    Which insulin may be added to an IV solution
    • A. 

      NPH

    • B. 

      Lantus

    • C. 

      Humulin 70/30

    • D. 

      Regular

  • 22. 
    Which of the following aux labels should be placed on a prescription container for antianxiety, antidepressant, or anticonvulsant? 
    • A. 

      Avoid dairy products

    • B. 

      May cause drowsiness

    • C. 

      Refrigerate

    • D. 

      Shake well

  • 23. 
    What is the basic reimbursement formula for pharmacies?
    • A. 

      Co-pay

    • B. 

      Drug cost + standard markup rate

    • C. 

      Drug cost + dispensing fee

    • D. 

      Drug cost + dispensing fee - deductible

  • 24. 
    What standards must be followed during extemporaneous compounding?
    • A. 

      DEA

    • B. 

      FDA

    • C. 

      GMP

    • D. 

      OMBRA-90

  • 25. 
    What is the minimum amount of time that a patient must wait before purchasing another bottle of an exempt narcotic?
    • A. 

      24 hour

    • B. 

      48 hr

    • C. 

      72 hr

    • D. 

      96 hr

  • 26. 
    Which vitamin will increase the flood coagulation of a patient taking Coumadin?
    • A. 

      Vitamin B1

    • B. 

      Vitamin B6

    • C. 

      Vitamin C

    • D. 

      Vitamin K

  • 27. 
    What is NOT found in a total nutrient admixture?
    • A. 

      Amino acids

    • B. 

      Dextrose

    • C. 

      Lipids

    • D. 

      Proteins

  • 28. 
    Which of the following may require K supplement
    • A. 

      Aldactone

    • B. 

      Dyazide

    • C. 

      Dyrenium

    • D. 

      Lasix

  • 29. 
    Which of the following categories of meds does NOT appear on the list of high alert meds?
    • A. 

      Antiarrhythmias

    • B. 

      Antibiotics

    • C. 

      Antithrombotics

    • D. 

      Oral hypoglycemic agents

  • 30. 
    Which of the following is NOT a goal of inventory management?
    • A. 

      Maximize costs associated with placing orders to the wholesale

    • B. 

      Minimize the time spent on purchasing functions

    • C. 

      Minimize capital charge on average inventory

    • D. 

      Minimize shrinkage, breakage, and obsolescence of inventory

  • 31. 
    Drugs of which classification may yield side effects such as dry eyes, dry mouth, or difficult urination or defecation. 
    • A. 

      Alpha blockers

    • B. 

      Anticholinergics

    • C. 

      Beta blockers

    • D. 

      Cephalosporins

  • 32. 
    Which of the following inventory principles is defines as the cost of goods sold/ average inventory value?
    • A. 

      Economic order quantity

    • B. 

      Inventory turnover rate

    • C. 

      Minimum maximum

    • D. 

      PAR

  • 33. 
    Which of the following drugs is not a PPI?
    • A. 

      Exomeprazole

    • B. 

      Itraconazole

    • C. 

      Lansoprazole

    • D. 

      Pantropazole

  • 34. 
    Which of the following would NOT be used in the preparation of IV med?
    • A. 

      Ampules

    • B. 

      Class A prescription balance

    • C. 

      Laminar flow hood

    • D. 

      Syringes

  • 35. 
    Which of the following could be used to prepare an ointment if another tech is using the ointment slab?
    • A. 

      Graduate

    • B. 

      Mortar

    • C. 

      Parchment paper

    • D. 

      Weighing paper

  • 36. 
    How much dextrose does 1 L of D10W have?
    • A. 

      10 mg

    • B. 

      100 mg

    • C. 

      1 g

    • D. 

      100 g

  • 37. 
    What type of formulary would a retail pharmacy use?
    • A. 

      Closed

    • B. 

      Open

    • C. 

      Restricted

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 38. 
    Which of the following is not a required text in the pharmacy?
    • A. 

      Copt of the controlled substance act

    • B. 

      USP-NF

    • C. 

      Drug facts and comparison

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 39. 
    According to MEDMARX which of the following meds has been associated with a large number of med errors?
    • A. 

      Amoxicillin

    • B. 

      Heparin

    • C. 

      Ibuprofen

    • D. 

      Prilosec

  • 40. 
    What USP term is assigned to any temp between 15 and 30 deg C?
    • A. 

      Freezer

    • B. 

      Cool

    • C. 

      Room

    • D. 

      Cold

  • 41. 
    Which org has issued a do not use list of pharm abbreviations?
    • A. 

      ISMP

    • B. 

      National Association Boards of PHamracy

    • C. 

      BOP

    • D. 

      TJC

  • 42. 
    What is the meaning of CPOE?
    • A. 

      Cardiac pulmonary obstructive embolism

    • B. 

      Complicated pregnancy obstruction exam

    • C. 

      Computerized prescriber order entry

    • D. 

      Congestive pulmonary obstructive embolism

  • 43. 
    Which of the following has been implemented by the FDA to eliminate med errors?
    • A. 

      DO NOT crush list

    • B. 

      Sound alike, look alike names

    • C. 

      Tall man letters

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 44. 
    What term refers to the price a pharmacy pays for meds after all of the discounts have been applied to it?
    • A. 

      AAC

    • B. 

      AWP

    • C. 

      MAC

    • D. 

      Retail price

  • 45. 
    Which of the following pharm abbreviations should not be used on a prescription due to the possibility of error?
    • A. 

      Ac

    • B. 

      Bid

    • C. 

      Ou

    • D. 

      Tab

  • 46. 
    Which organization has developed tools to reduce med orders?
    • A. 

      CMS

    • B. 

      FDA

    • C. 

      ISMP

    • D. 

      TJC

  • 47. 
    Which piece of legislation provided prescription drug coverage for patients receiving medicare?
    • A. 

      Drug listing act

    • B. 

      OBRA-87

    • C. 

      OBRA-90

    • D. 

      MMA

  • 48. 
    Which aux label should be placed on a bottle of tetracycline?
    • A. 

      Avoid sunlight

    • B. 

      Take 1 hr before or 2 hr after taking a dairy product or antacids

    • C. 

      Take all med

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 49. 
    Which of the following is defined as the difference between the prescription selling price vs cost
    • A. 

      Discount

    • B. 

      Inventory turnover rate

    • C. 

      Markup

    • D. 

      Net profit

  • 50. 
    What is the generic name for the beta blocker Tenormin?
    • A. 

      Atenolol

    • B. 

      Metoprolol

    • C. 

      Propranolol

    • D. 

      Nadolol

  • 51. 
    What is Medwatch?
    • A. 

      A device that signals an another IV bag need to be hung in a institution

    • B. 

      A reporting program available to pharmacies indicating physicians who may be overprescribing narcotics

    • C. 

      Reporting program available to health care providers to report adverse events that pose serious health threats

    • D. 

      A service established by the AARP to monitor polypharmacy in elderly adults

  • 52. 
    Which form is required to dispense controlled substances
    • A. 

      222

    • B. 

      224

    • C. 

      225

    • D. 

      363

  • 53. 
    What type of drug is affected by MAC?
    • A. 

      Discounted drugs

    • B. 

      Investigational drugs

    • C. 

      Nonproprietary drugs

    • D. 

      Proprietary drugs

  • 54. 
    What is the name of the opening of a needle?
    • A. 

      Bevel

    • B. 

      Hilt

    • C. 

      Lumen

    • D. 

      Point

  • 55. 
    What form must be submitted to the DEA to request the destroy of controlled substances??
    • A. 

      41

    • B. 

      49

    • C. 

      224

    • D. 

      225

  • 56. 
    Which of the following orgs is an advocate for the practice of pharmacy?
    • A. 

      APHA

    • B. 

      ISMP

    • C. 

      USP

    • D. 

      TJC

  • 57. 
    Amitriptyline is to TCA as venlafaxine is to 
    • A. 

      Ca channel blocker

    • B. 

      H2 antagonist

    • C. 

      Protease inhibitor

    • D. 

      SNRI

  • 58. 
    Which of the following is federally funded reimbursement program?
    • A. 

      HAS

    • B. 

      HMO

    • C. 

      Medicare

    • D. 

      Medication assistance programs

  • 59. 
    Which of the following is an example of clinical decision support systems (CDSS)
    • A. 

      Nonformulary drug use

    • B. 

      Patient info

    • C. 

      Pharmacist intervention

    • D. 

      Therapeutic duplication

  • 60. 
    Which of the following meds should NOT be rushed?
    • A. 

      Accutane

    • B. 

      Ambien

    • C. 

      Amoxicillin

    • D. 

      Ampicillin

  • 61. 
    Which of the following drugs is NOT available in a transmerdal dosage form?
    • A. 

      Clonidine

    • B. 

      Estradiol

    • C. 

      Fentanyl

    • D. 

      Feroxfenadine

  • 62. 
    Which is an example of a work list that can be generated through a pharmacy's info system?
    • A. 

      Cart fill updates

    • B. 

      Intervention documentation

    • C. 

      Narcotic dispensing records

    • D. 

      PAR levels

  • 63. 
    Which of the following medical payment programs uses tax-deductible dollars?
    • A. 

      HSA

    • B. 

      Manufacturer drug coupons

    • C. 

      Medicare

    • D. 

      Self-pay

  • 64. 
    Which drug classification is NOT used to treat depression
    • A. 

      Anticholinergics

    • B. 

      MAOIs

    • C. 

      SSRI

    • D. 

      TCAs

  • 65. 
    Which org provides packaging guidelines to the drug manufacturers 
    • A. 

      DEA

    • B. 

      FDA

    • C. 

      ISMP

    • D. 

      USP

  • 66. 
    Which of the following requires special handling?
    • A. 

      Controlled substances

    • B. 

      Investigational drugs

    • C. 

      Repacked med

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 67. 
    Which org oversees MEDMARX?
    • A. 

      ASHP

    • B. 

      IOM

    • C. 

      ISMP

    • D. 

      USP

  • 68. 
    Which forms of managed care uses capitation? 
    • A. 

      EPOS

    • B. 

      HMO

    • C. 

      POS

    • D. 

      PPO

  • 69. 
    Which of the following drugs must be placed in a child-resistant container 
    • A. 

      Inhalation products

    • B. 

      Mebendazole products

    • C. 

      Rantidine

    • D. 

      SL Nitroglycerin

  • 70. 
    Cephalexin is to cephalosporin as ciprofloxacin is to 
    • A. 

      Macrolide

    • B. 

      Penicillin

    • C. 

      Quinolone

    • D. 

      Tetracycline

  • 71. 
    What is the generic name of Zestril
    • A. 

      Enalapril

    • B. 

      Fosinopril

    • C. 

      Lisinopril

    • D. 

      Quinapril

  • 72. 
    Which term refers to the name of the med, its strength, and quantity that is dispensed?
    • A. 

      Inscription

    • B. 

      Rx

    • C. 

      Signa

    • D. 

      Subscription

  • 73. 
    Which of the following meds is an example of hazardous waste?
    • A. 

      Epinephrine

    • B. 

      Heparin

    • C. 

      Hydrocodone

    • D. 

      Insulin

  • 74. 
    How many grams of a 10% and 1% ointment should be used to make 45 g of a 2% ointment
    • A. 

      5 g of 1% and 40 g of 2%

    • B. 

      5 g of 1% and 40 g of 10%

    • C. 

      5 g of 10% and 40 g of 2%

    • D. 

      5 g of 10% and 40 g of 1%

  • 75. 
    Which organization is responsible for drug recalls?
    • A. 

      BOP

    • B. 

      DEA

    • C. 

      FDA

    • D. 

      NABP

  • 76. 
    Which of following drugs if expired can result in fatality?
    • A. 

      Amoxicillin

    • B. 

      Cephalexin

    • C. 

      Clarithromycin

    • D. 

      Tetracycline

  • 77. 
    Which of the following would not be found on a CSAR?
    • A. 

      Amount of med administered

    • B. 

      Amount of med wasted

    • C. 

      Date and time of admin

    • D. 

      Expiration date of the drug admin

  • 78. 
    Which is not a cephalosporin
    • A. 

      Keflex

    • B. 

      Lorabid

    • C. 

      Suprax

    • D. 

      Vantin

  • 79. 
    Which med would NOT be given to individuals younger than age 18 years?
    • A. 

      Cephalexin

    • B. 

      Cipro

    • C. 

      Clarithromycin

    • D. 

      Clindamycin

  • 80. 
    What does PCA stand for?
    • A. 

      Patient calibrated analysis

    • B. 

      Patient controlled analgesia

    • C. 

      Partially collapsed artery

    • D. 

      Perennial circumvented ateriosclerosis

  • 81. 
    What term is defined as the process of identifying the most up to date list of all meds the patient is taking
    • A. 

      Drug utilization evauluation

    • B. 

      Drug utilization record

    • C. 

      Medication reconcilliation

    • D. 

      Patient profile update

  • 82. 
    What DEA form is used to document the breakage of spillage of a controlled substance 
    • A. 

      41

    • B. 

      106

    • C. 

      222

    • D. 

      224

  • 83. 
    Which term refers to the reducing of a substance into small fine particles
    • A. 

      Blending

    • B. 

      Comminution

    • C. 

      Levigation

    • D. 

      Tumbling

  • 84. 
    Who may handle the disposition of controlled substances?
    • A. 

      DEA

    • B. 

      FDA

    • C. 

      Drug manufacturer

    • D. 

      Reverse distributor

  • 85. 
    Which of the following accredits pharm tech programs?
    • A. 

      ACPE

    • B. 

      ASHP

    • C. 

      PTCB

    • D. 

      PTCE

  • 86. 
    What DEA form is used to order schedule III, IV, V drugs?
    • A. 

      41

    • B. 

      106

    • C. 

      222

    • D. 

      No form required

  • 87. 
    Which of following meds is not measured in international units
    • A. 

      Heparin

    • B. 

      Insulin

    • C. 

      Vitamin b

    • D. 

      Vitamin E

  • 88. 
    Which org establishes standards for batch transactions, pharm identification cards, and med history
    • A. 

      ISMP

    • B. 

      NCPDP

    • C. 

      PSTAC

    • D. 

      SCRIPT

  • 89. 
    You receive a med order to prepare a 250 ml bag of NS with 1 g of Kefzol. The patient is to receive a 250 mg dose per hour. The infusion is calibrated tat 10 gtt/ml. What flow rate is need to deliver the dose?
    • A. 

      1 gtt/min

    • B. 

      10 gtt/min

    • C. 

      15 gtt/min

    • D. 

      20 gtt/min

  • 90. 
    Which process brings a drug from the administration site into the bloodstream
    • A. 

      Absorption

    • B. 

      Distribution

    • C. 

      Matabolism

    • D. 

      Elimination

  • 91. 
    What is the generic name for Lotensin
    • A. 

      Benazepril

    • B. 

      Enalapril

    • C. 

      Lisinopril

    • D. 

      Prinivil

  • 92. 
    Which law is being violated if a drug is dispensed without a valid prescription
    • A. 

      Controlled substance act of 1970

    • B. 

      Durham humphrey act

    • C. 

      FDCA 1938

    • D. 

      OBRA 90

  • 93. 
    What is the generic name for Fosamax?
    • A. 

      Alendronate

    • B. 

      Calcitonin salmon

    • C. 

      Etridronate

    • D. 

      Raloxifene

  • 94. 
    Which of the following is an example of a health maintenance organization? (HMO?
    • A. 

      Blue cross blue shield

    • B. 

      CHAMPUS

    • C. 

      Kaiser permanente

    • D. 

      Worker's compensation

  • 95. 
    Which is not used to treat hyperlipidemia?
    • A. 

      Aspirin

    • B. 

      Fibric acid derivatives

    • C. 

      HMCG-CoA reductase inhibitors

    • D. 

      Metamucil

  • 96. 
    Which drug class of antibiotics should be taken with caution if the patient is allergic to penicillin?
    • A. 

      Aminoglycosides

    • B. 

      Cephalosporins

    • C. 

      Macrolides

    • D. 

      Quinolones

  • 97. 
    What is the sensitivity of a class A balance?
    • A. 

      1 mg

    • B. 

      6 mg

    • C. 

      10 mg

    • D. 

      20 mg

  • 98. 
    Which expression defines the quantity of product left in stock reaches a predetermined point?
    • A. 

      Desired level

    • B. 

      Min max level

    • C. 

      Par level

    • D. 

      Stock level

  • 99. 
    Gentamicin 120 mg in 100 ml D5W is administered over 30 minutes every 8 hr with a 10 drop kit. What will the rate be?
    • A. 

      2 gtt/ min

    • B. 

      4 gtt/ min

    • C. 

      16 gtt/ min

    • D. 

      33 gtt/ min

  • 100. 
    Which of the following terms refers to the cost of health insurance?
    • A. 

      Benefit

    • B. 

      Co pay

    • C. 

      Deductible

    • D. 

      Premium

  • 101. 
    Levothyroxine is to hypothryoidism as glyburide is to 
    • A. 

      ACE inhbitor

    • B. 

      Beta blocker

    • C. 

      Oral hyperglycemic agent

    • D. 

      Oral hypoglycemic agent

  • 102. 
    Which drug is not used for asthma?
    • A. 

      Albuterol

    • B. 

      Ipratropium

    • C. 

      INH

    • D. 

      Salmeterol

  • 103. 
    Which dosage form is produced by compression
    • A. 

      Capsule

    • B. 

      Lozenge

    • C. 

      Suppository

    • D. 

      Tablet

  • 104. 
    Which drug is safe to take for headaches if the patient has peptic ulcer disease?
    • A. 

      Acetaminophen

    • B. 

      Acetylsalicylic acid

    • C. 

      Ibuprifen

    • D. 

      Naproxen sodium

  • 105. 
    You have a solution of heparin 100.000 unit/ L with an infusion apparatus labeled 60 gtt/ mL. What is the flow rate to deliver a dose of 20 units/min?
    • A. 

      3 gtt/ min

    • B. 

      12 gtt/ min

    • C. 

      15 gtt/ min

    • D. 

      20 gtt/ min

  • 106. 
    Which is not a correct aux label for doxycycline?
    • A. 

      Avoid dairy products

    • B. 

      Avoid sunlight

    • C. 

      Not to be taken by pregnant women or children under the age of 9

    • D. 

      Take on an empty stomach

  • 107. 
    How many gtt/ml does a mini drip system provide
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      15

    • C. 

      20

    • D. 

      60

  • 108. 
    Which of following is not used as a prophylactic product?
    • A. 

      Amoxicillin

    • B. 

      Imitrex

    • C. 

      Norgestimate-ethinyl estradiol

    • D. 

      Proprandol

  • 109. 
    Which of following can be used as a smoking cessation product and antidepressant?
    • A. 

      Bupropion

    • B. 

      Nicotine

    • C. 

      Trazodone

    • D. 

      Zolpidem

  • 110. 
    What units are electrolytes measured in?
    • A. 

      MEW

    • B. 

      Mg

    • C. 

      Ml

    • D. 

      Units

  • 111. 
    What was the purpose of the durham humphrey amendment?
    • A. 

      Distinguished prescriptions and OTC meds

    • B. 

      Distinguished proprietary and nonproprietary drugs

    • C. 

      Established schedules of meds based on their potential for abuse

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 112. 
    Which respiratory med is NOT a combo product?
    • A. 

      Adavair

    • B. 

      Allegra D

    • C. 

      Combivient

    • D. 

      Singulair

  • 113. 
    Which of following is not an example of dispersion?
    • A. 

      Emulsion

    • B. 

      Lotion

    • C. 

      Ointment

    • D. 

      Suppository

  • 114. 
    Meaning of w/v 
    • A. 

      Number of grams per 1 ml

    • B. 

      Number of grams per 100 ml

    • C. 

      Number of mcg per 100 ml

    • D. 

      Number of mg per 100 ml

  • 115. 
    What type of card is provided to the patient that allows a patient to obtain meds at the contracted provided rate
    • A. 

      Drug coupon card

    • B. 

      Drug discount card

    • C. 

      Medicare card

    • D. 

      Medicaid card

  • 116. 
    How quickly does a multidose container need to be used after opening?
    • A. 

      7 days

    • B. 

      14 days

    • C. 

      21 days

    • D. 

      28 days

  • 117. 
    What is the primary source of med for community pharmacies?
    • A. 

      Chain pharmacy warehouse

    • B. 

      GPOs

    • C. 

      Manufacturers and wholealers

    • D. 

      Store to store vendors

  • 118. 
    What is the universal precaution?
    • A. 

      An infection control principle

    • B. 

      An infection control principle that requires a health care provider to treat human blood as infectious

    • C. 

      An infection control principle required when using equipment

    • D. 

      Precautions used when handling hazardous waste

  • 119. 
    What volume does a small volume parenteral use? 
    • A. 

      100 ml

    • B. 

      250 ml

    • C. 

      500 ml

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 120. 
    Which of the following aux labels would not bot be appropriate for a prescription of sulfasalazine?
    • A. 

      Avoid sunlight

    • B. 

      Drink plenty of water

    • C. 

      Keep refrigerated

    • D. 

      May discolor urine

  • 121. 
    How many inventory turns would a pharmacy experience if the initial inventory of accounting period was $225,000, the final inventory of the period was $250,000 and the pharmacy had sales of $2.75 million
    • A. 

      12.22 turns

    • B. 

      11.58 turns

    • C. 

      11 turns

    • D. 

      5.79 turns

  • 122. 
    Which of the following ophthalmic products should be refrigerated?
    • A. 

      Apraclonidine

    • B. 

      Brimonidine

    • C. 

      Brinzolamide

    • D. 

      Latanoprost

  • 123. 
    Which of the following is not a cardiovascular med?
    • A. 

      Coreg

    • B. 

      Diovan

    • C. 

      Evista

    • D. 

      Plavix

  • 124. 
    What is another term for master formula sheet?
    • A. 

      MAR

    • B. 

      MSDS

    • C. 

      Pharmacy compounding lfo

    • D. 

      Record log sheet

  • 125. 
    Which dosage form is clear, sweetened, flavored, hydroalcoholic solution containing water and ethanol?
    • A. 

      Collodion

    • B. 

      Elixer

    • C. 

      Suspension

    • D. 

      Syrup

  • 126. 
    What is the generic name for Avapro?
    • A. 

      Candesartan

    • B. 

      Irbesartan

    • C. 

      Losartan

    • D. 

      Valsartan

  • 127. 
    • A. 

      DEA

    • B. 

      FDA

    • C. 

      Medwatch

    • D. 

      State board of pharmacy

  • 128. 
    What is the generic name for Prevacid
    • A. 

      Esomeprazole

    • B. 

      Lansoprazole

    • C. 

      Omeprazole

    • D. 

      Pantoprazole

  • 129. 
    New OTC drugs are required to go through necessary phases. Which phase occurs when a final review is done on the ingredients of the agent in question and the public is able to give feedback?
    • A. 

      I

    • B. 

      II

    • C. 

      III

    • D. 

      IV

  • 130. 
    What term describes directions to a pharmacist on a prescription?
    • A. 

      DAW indicator

    • B. 

      Inscription

    • C. 

      Subscription

    • D. 

      Signa

  • 131. 
    What is the unit of measurement for insulin?
    • A. 

      USP units

    • B. 

      MEq

    • C. 

      ML

    • D. 

      Miliosmoles

  • 132. 
    Which of following meds may NOT be used to treat osteoporosis. 
    • A. 

      Actonel

    • B. 

      Boniva

    • C. 

      Cordarone

    • D. 

      Fosamax

  • 133. 
    What type of unit dose system is referred to as punch cards, bingo cards, or blister packs?
    • A. 

      Blended unit dose system

    • B. 

      Modified

    • C. 

      Modular casette

    • D. 

      Multiple med packages

  • 134. 
    Which of following is NOT required for authorization to release patient info?
    • A. 

      A handwritten copy

    • B. 

      A list of the patients prescriptions and OTC meds

    • C. 

      Reason for release

    • D. 

      Patient signature

  • 135. 
    What is the proper dose for a 6 year old child if the adult dose is 10 mg?
    • A. 

      33 mcg

    • B. 

      3.3 mg

    • C. 

      33 mg

    • D. 

      333 mg

  • 136. 
    Which of the following do anabolic steroids belong?
    • A. 

      Schedule I

    • B. 

      Schedule II

    • C. 

      Schedule III

    • D. 

      Schedule IV

  • 137. 
    Which form is used to document meds being administered to patient?
    • A. 

      MAR

    • B. 

      MDR

    • C. 

      POS

    • D. 

      TAR

  • 138. 
    Which of following dosage forms could a patient with diabetes receive?
    • A. 

      Elixer

    • B. 

      Emulsion

    • C. 

      Spirits

    • D. 

      Syrup

  • 139. 
    What is the brand name for lorazepam?
    • A. 

      Ativan

    • B. 

      Dalmane

    • C. 

      Klonopin

    • D. 

      Valium

  • 140. 
    What does ASHP mean?
    • A. 

      American Schools of Health Practices

    • B. 

      American Society of Health Pharmacists

    • C. 

      American Society of Hospital Pharmacists

    • D. 

      Association of Specialty Health Practitioners

  • 141. 
    Which of following would be administered if the patient had received an overdose of heparin?
    • A. 

      Aspirin

    • B. 

      Phytonadione

    • C. 

      Protamine Sulfate

    • D. 

      Warfarin

  • 142. 
    Which of following effects may be attributed to an overdose of salicylates?
    • A. 

      GI upset

    • B. 

      Platelet changes

    • C. 

      Tinnitus

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 143. 
    Which is a potassium sparing diuretic?
    • A. 

      Chlorthalidone

    • B. 

      Furosemide

    • C. 

      Hydrochlorothiazide

    • D. 

      Spironolactone

  • 144. 
    Which is not an antiviral agent? 
    • A. 

      Acyclovir

    • B. 

      Clotrimazole

    • C. 

      Didanosine

    • D. 

      Zidovudine

  • 145. 
    What part of Medicare reimburses a retail pharmacy for prescription meds?
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      B

    • C. 

      C

    • D. 

      D

  • 146. 
    Which is not used to treat GI problems?
    • A. 

      Antacids

    • B. 

      H2 receptor agonists

    • C. 

      H2 receptor antagonists

    • D. 

      PPI

  • 147. 
    The medications Diovan HCT, Dyazide, Hyzaar, and Zestoretic are combo products used in the treatment of cardiovascular disease. Which med is found in all of them?
    • A. 

      Hydrochlorothiazide

    • B. 

      Lisinopril

    • C. 

      Triamterene

    • D. 

      Valsartan

  • 148. 
    Which is not a macrolide?
    • A. 

      Azithromycin

    • B. 

      Clarithromycin

    • C. 

      Doxycycline

    • D. 

      Erythromycin-sulfisoxazole

  • 149. 
    Which method of administration is used to provide medication to unconscious person?
    • A. 

      Inunction

    • B. 

      Inhalation

    • C. 

      Parenteral

    • D. 

      Peroral

  • 150. 
    What is the generic name for Depakote?
    • A. 

      Divalproex

    • B. 

      Gabapentin

    • C. 

      Primidone

    • D. 

      Valproic acid

  • 151. 
    Who provides regulations for compounding of sterile products
    • A. 

      Pure food and drug act

    • B. 

      Food drug and cosmetic act

    • C. 

      MSDS

    • D. 

      USP 797

  • 152. 
    What would be appropriate directions for Ambien?
    • A. 

      I tab PO q am

    • B. 

      I tab PO q hs

    • C. 

      I tab sl q hs

    • D. 

      I tab PO tid prn anxiety

  • 153. 
    Which of following meds should be prepared in a biological safety cabinet?
    • A. 

      Etoposide

    • B. 

      IV solution containing insulin

    • C. 

      IV solution containing gentamicin

    • D. 

      Skin cream

  • 154. 
    Which of the following is an indication of Zofran?
    • A. 

      Constipation

    • B. 

      Diarrhea

    • C. 

      Migraine

    • D. 

      Nausea vomitting

  • 155. 
    What pharm law clearly defined adulteration and misbranding?
    • A. 

      Pure food and drug act of 1906

    • B. 

      Food drug and cosmetic act of 1932

    • C. 

      Durham humphrey amendment

    • D. 

      Poison control act of 1970

  • 156. 
    Which reference book is the official compendium of pharmaceutical products in the US?
    • A. 

      Facts and comparisons

    • B. 

      Physicians' desk reference

    • C. 

      Remingtons

    • D. 

      USP-NF

  • 157. 
    What is the route of admin of heparin?
    • A. 

      IA

    • B. 

      IM

    • C. 

      IV

    • D. 

      Oral

  • 158. 
    Which developed leadership process and accountability, competent and capable workforce, safe environment for staff and patients, clinical care of patients, and improving quality and safety. 
    • A. 

      FDA

    • B. 

      ISMP

    • C. 

      OSHA

    • D. 

      TJC

  • 159. 
    What advice should not be given to a patient taking penicillin products
    • A. 

      Do not take with juices or colas

    • B. 

      May cause drowsiness

    • C. 

      Take on an empty stomach

    • D. 

      Take with water

  • 160. 
    Which class of drugs has many interactions with many foods and OTC products?
    • A. 

      MAOIs

    • B. 

      MOAs

    • C. 

      SSRI

    • D. 

      TCAs

  • 161. 
    Which should not be chewed?
    • A. 

      Azatadine

    • B. 

      Azelastine

    • C. 

      Benzonatate

    • D. 

      Fexofenadine

  • 162. 
    How is insulin administered?
    • A. 

      IV

    • B. 

      IM

    • C. 

      PO

    • D. 

      SC

  • 163. 
    Which of following is not a quinolone med?
    • A. 

      Cipro

    • B. 

      Norflex

    • C. 

      Norfloxacin

    • D. 

      Floxin

  • 164. 
    Which is true about generically equivalent drugs?
    • A. 

      Chemically different but are expected to produce the same therapeutic outcome and toxicity

    • B. 

      Chemically identical and strength, concentration, dosage form, and route of administration

    • C. 

      Contain different active ingredients

    • D. 

      Price exactly the same as brand name drugs

  • 165. 
    Which dosage form bypasses the digestive system?
    • A. 

      Capsule

    • B. 

      Enteric coated tablet

    • C. 

      Oral tablet

    • D. 

      Sublingual tablet

  • 166. 
    What is hypoglycemia?
    • A. 

      High BP

    • B. 

      Low blood sugar

    • C. 

      Low BP

    • D. 

      High blood sugar

  • 167. 
    Which book contains drug costs?
    • A. 

      Red

    • B. 

      Blue

    • C. 

      Orange

    • D. 

      White

  • 168. 
    Which condition would have symptoms of excessive fluid resulting in swollen legs and ankles?
    • A. 

      Congestive heart failure

    • B. 

      Coronary artery disease

    • C. 

      Dysrhythmia

    • D. 

      Hyperthyroidism

  • 169. 
    What is the generic name for Glucophage?
    • A. 

      Glimepiride

    • B. 

      Glipizide

    • C. 

      Glyburide

    • D. 

      Metformin

  • 170. 
    What piece of legislation requires that a med be proven effective to the FDA before it may be marketed.
    • A. 

      Durham Humphrey act

    • B. 

      Kefauver Harris Amendment

    • C. 

      Poison Prevention Act

    • D. 

      Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act

  • 171. 
    Which should be dispensed in the regular container?
    • A. 

      Crixivan

    • B. 

      Diflucan

    • C. 

      Epitol

    • D. 

      Singular

  • 172. 
    What is the markup rate for a prescription that costs $35 and retails for $50
    • A. 

      30%

    • B. 

      43%

    • C. 

      57%

    • D. 

      75%

  • 173. 
    Which is not contained in a patient product insert?
    • A. 

      Drug indication

    • B. 

      Drug contraindication

    • C. 

      Drug precautions

    • D. 

      Drug cost

  • 174. 
    What type of solution is a total parenteral solution?
    • A. 

      Dialysis

    • B. 

      Hypotonic

    • C. 

      Hypertonic

    • D. 

      Isotonic

  • 175. 
    Which org developed terminology dealing with storage temps?
    • A. 

      FDA

    • B. 

      ISMP

    • C. 

      USP

    • D. 

      TJC

  • 176. 
    What is the nonproprietary name for Deltasone?
    • A. 

      Lithium

    • B. 

      Methylprednisolone

    • C. 

      Prednisolone

    • D. 

      Prednisone

  • 177. 
    Which legislation established the NDC?
    • A. 

      Durham humphrey act

    • B. 

      Drug listing act

    • C. 

      Food Drug and Cosmetic ACt

    • D. 

      OBRA 90

  • 178. 
    What must be signed when dispensing an investigational drug?
    • A. 

      CSAR

    • B. 

      DAR

    • C. 

      MAR

    • D. 

      TAR

  • 179. 
    Which of the following is not required for an institutional pharmacy?
    • A. 

      Medication files

    • B. 

      Payer and insurance info

    • C. 

      Physician info

    • D. 

      Prescriber info

  • 180. 
    According to USP how many CSP microbial contamination risk levels are there?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      5

  • 181. 
    What is the duration of action for Humulin N insulin?
    • A. 

      4-6 hours

    • B. 

      3-4 hours

    • C. 

      14-20 hours

    • D. 

      Up to 36 hours

  • 182. 
    Deficiency in which vitamin may result ins scurvy?
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      B1

    • C. 

      C

    • D. 

      D

  • 183. 
    Which of the following may cause photosensitivity?
    • A. 

      Sulfamethoxazole

    • B. 

      Ketorolac

    • C. 

      Estradiol

    • D. 

      Fluoxetine

  • 184. 
    A med that should be protected from light is?
    • A. 

      Ondansetron

    • B. 

      Diphenhydramine

    • C. 

      Ampiciliin

    • D. 

      Nitroprusside

  • 185. 
    An order is received for refills of metoprolol and lovastatin. Which med from the patient profile should be refilled?
    • A. 

      Lopressor and Mevacor

    • B. 

      Tenormin and Zocor

    • C. 

      Lopressor and Zocor

    • D. 

      Tenormin and Mevacor

  • 186. 
    Containers used for repackaging of injectable meds should be sterile and 
    • A. 

      Made of low density plastic

    • B. 

      Pyrogen free

    • C. 

      Made of glass

    • D. 

      Clear and colorless

  • 187. 
    The primary function of P&T committee is to 
    • A. 

      Formulate policies governing selection and therapeutic use of pharmaceutical products and medical devices

    • B. 

      Enforce state law and FDA regulation

    • C. 

      Fund independent research to verify therapeutic claims by manufacturers of pharmaceutical products and medical devices

    • D. 

      Create credentialing requirements for pharm employees

  • 188. 
    All of the following are automated dispensing systems except 
    • A. 

      Pyrix

    • B. 

      Sure med

    • C. 

      McKesson's Baker APS

    • D. 

      Kirby Lester KL 25

  • 189. 
    Which of the following drug categories may be selected for DUE criteria? 
    • A. 

      Drugs known to cause adverse reactions or drug interaction s

    • B. 

      Drugs in phase III of clinical trial

    • C. 

      Drugs frequently backordered by the manufacturer

    • D. 

      Drugs that are classified as controlled substances

  • 190. 
    Which of following meds on the profile would the pharmacy tech refill for a patient requesting nerve pills?
    • A. 

      Chlordiazepoxide

    • B. 

      Chlorothiazide

    • C. 

      Chloropheniramine

    • D. 

      Chlorpropamide

  • 191. 
    A TPN order that includes 2 mg/L is filled using a stock vial that delivers 5 mg/mL. What volume of injection will be used to prepare at 2500 mL TPN bag?
    • A. 

      0.1 mL

    • B. 

      0.5 mL

    • C. 

      1 mL

    • D. 

      2.5 mL

  • 192. 
    KCL supplements are most often used in combo with
    • A. 

      Hydrochlorothiazide

    • B. 

      Phenytoin

    • C. 

      Lisinopril

    • D. 

      Ibuprofen

  • 193. 
    Trade name for glyburide
    • A. 

      Diabinese

    • B. 

      Micronase

    • C. 

      Glucophage

    • D. 

      Glucotrol

  • 194. 
    Generic equivalent for Percodan consists of 
    • A. 

      Aspirin and oxycodone

    • B. 

      Aspirin and codeine

    • C. 

      APAP and oxycodone

    • D. 

      APAP and hydrocodone

  • 195. 
    Which of following must be stored in fridge?
    • A. 

      Fluoxetine

    • B. 

      Cimetidine

    • C. 

      Tetracycline

    • D. 

      Procaine penicillin

  • 196. 
    Which of meds is on the institute for safe med practices list of confused drug names because it is available in two different chemical forms that can be easily confused.
    • A. 

      Labetalol

    • B. 

      Hydralazine

    • C. 

      Nifedipine

    • D. 

      Metoprolol

  • 197. 
    Which of following injectable drugs would be stored in fridge?
    • A. 

      Clindamycin

    • B. 

      Ciprofloxacin

    • C. 

      Cyanocobalamin

    • D. 

      Calcitonin salmon

  • 198. 
    Durable medical equipment may be reimbursable to the pharmacy under Medicare Part
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      B

    • C. 

      C

    • D. 

      D

  • 199. 
    Which of following is indicated in the treatment of Parkinson's disease?
    • A. 

      Amatadine

    • B. 

      Alprazolam

    • C. 

      Amittriptyline

    • D. 

      Amiloride

  • 200. 
    Which of the following brand generic pairs is correct?
    • A. 

      Decadron/prednisone

    • B. 

      Aleve/Ketropfen

    • C. 

      Premarin/ Estradiol

    • D. 

      Ativan/ lorazepam

  • 201. 
    Which is a calcium channel blocker?
    • A. 

      Diltiazem

    • B. 

      Atenolol

    • C. 

      Ramirpil

    • D. 

      Nitroglycerin

  • 202. 
    Treximet is a combination tablet for treating migraines that contains sumatriptan and which other med?
    • A. 

      Naproxen

    • B. 

      Ibuprofen

    • C. 

      Acetaminophen

    • D. 

      Diclofenac

  • 203. 
    When required to go to a network health care provider the patient is insured through.
    • A. 

      A preferred provider organization

    • B. 

      Workers compensation

    • C. 

      Pharmacy benefit manager

    • D. 

      Health maintenance organization

  • 204. 
    An order for Lortab 5/500 mg tab every 4 to 6h prn. No refill info is provided. Tech should conclude that the prescription is 
    • A. 

      Refillable for 6 months

    • B. 

      Is refillable for a year

    • C. 

      May be refilled 5 times

    • D. 

      May not be refilled

  • 205. 
    What is the percentage of concentration of a solution that contains 500 mg/50mL?
    • A. 

      0.5%

    • B. 

      1%

    • C. 

      5%

    • D. 

      10%

  • 206. 
    Which of following meds included in the iPLEDGE restricted drug program?
    • A. 

      Amnesteem and Valtrax

    • B. 

      Isotretinoin and Avita

    • C. 

      Azelex and Tazorac

    • D. 

      Accutane and Claravis

  • 207. 
    A pharm tech receives a prescription from a patient. The patient need sall meds to bre crushed. Which of the following would you alert the pharmacist to before entering in the prescription.
    • A. 

      Oxybutynin immediate release 5 mg tablet

    • B. 

      Metformin 500 mg sustained action tablet

    • C. 

      Potassium 10 mg dispersible tablet

    • D. 

      Furosemide 40 mg tablet

  • 208. 
    Physician prescribes 5 mg of a drug per kg of body weight bid or a patient weighing 110 lb. How many 0.5 g tablets of the drug are required for a 10 day duration?
    • A. 

      5

    • B. 

      10

    • C. 

      20

    • D. 

      40

  • 209. 
    Special IV tubing is recommended for the admin of 
    • A. 

      Nitroglycerin

    • B. 

      Ciprofloxacin

    • C. 

      Gentamicin

    • D. 

      Penicillin

  • 210. 
    Which med is on the institute for safe med practices list of confused drug names because it is  available in two different chemical forms that can be easily confused
    • A. 

      Labetalol

    • B. 

      Hydralizine

    • C. 

      Nifedipine

    • D. 

      Metoprolol

  • 211. 
    Which of following sedative hypnotics is a benzodiazepine?
    • A. 

      Zolpidem

    • B. 

      Alprazolam

    • C. 

      Zalepon

    • D. 

      Eszopicione