2s071 Vol III

60 Questions | Total Attempts: 67

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2s071 Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    (401) How are material deficiency report (MDR)/ product quality deficiency reports (PQDR) exhibit items readily identified in stock?
    • A. 

      I023 Management Notice

    • B. 

      I003 Management Notice.

    • C. 

      I012 Management Notice.

    • D. 

      I008 Management Notice.

  • 2. 
    (401) What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to load warehouse location and the material deficiency report (MDR)/product quality deficiency reports (PQDR) report control number of the exhibit?
    • A. 

      ISU.

    • B. 

      DFM.

    • C. 

      TIN.

    • D. 

      TRM.

  • 3. 
    (402) Who performs normal inspection functions which include certifying work by the receiving inchecker, changing the stock number, unit of issue, and quantity if required?
    • A. 

      Qualified inspectors.

    • B. 

      Inspection section.

    • C. 

      Receiving clerk.

    • D. 

      Storage and issue personnel.

  • 4. 
    (402) What do you do if the original documents are missing or badly mutilated?
    • A. 

      Reproduce the copies.

    • B. 

      Notify the source of supply.

    • C. 

      Fill out a new document based on the information you find from the mutilated documents.

    • D. 

      Initiate a supply discrepancy report.

  • 5. 
    (403) Which transaction identification code (TRIC) should an inspector use to transfer an unserviceable shelf life asset to maintenance?
    • A. 

      FCC.

    • B. 

      ISU.

    • C. 

      MSI.

    • D. 

      TIN.

  • 6. 
    (403) What is the purpose of the AF Form 2032, Inspection Extension? 
    • A. 

      Update inspection data.

    • B. 

      Identify condemned items.

    • C. 

      Identify property turned over to maintenance.

    • D. 

      Identify property in stock that has been suspended.

  • 7. 
    (404) What list is published by Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) that provides data on products which have been tested or condemned?
    • A. 

      Quality Status List (QSL).

    • B. 

      Priority Requirements Activity List (R01).

    • C. 

      Problem Item List (R29).

    • D. 

      Due Out Validation Listing (M30).

  • 8. 
    (405) What transaction identification code (TRIC) is processed to load or delete the functional check flag indicator (F) on functional check assets?
    • A. 

      FCD.

    • B. 

      FCH.

    • C. 

      FCK.

    • D. 

      FTR.

  • 9. 
    (405) How often are functional check listings run? 
    • A. 

      Semiannually.

    • B. 

      Annually.

    • C. 

      Monthly.

    • D. 

      Quarterly.

  • 10. 
    (406) Which materiel management personnel identify and control all items in stock requiring compliance with technical orders (TO)?
    • A. 

      Receiving.

    • B. 

      Inspector.

    • C. 

      War readiness.

    • D. 

      Procedures and analysis.

  • 11. 
    (406) Who forwards two copies of each time-compliance technical order (TCTO) publication with a cover letter to the inspection function?
    • A. 

      Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) In-checker.

    • B. 

      TCTO kit monitor.

    • C. 

      LRS Warehouse supervisor.

    • D. 

      Base Maintenance quality control.

  • 12. 
    (406) A time-compliance technical order (TCTO) item is identified in the computer by a TCTO flag or by _____________.
    • A. 

      Other assets indicator “5.”

    • B. 

      Other assets indicator “4.”

    • C. 

      Numeric parts preference code (NPPC) “5.”

    • D. 

      NPPC “4.”

  • 13. 
    (407) Which computer input is used to load a suspect materiel flag to an item? 
    • A. 

      FCC with an “F” in position 48.

    • B. 

      FCD with an “F” in position 48.

    • C. 

      FCC with an “S” in position 48.

    • D. 

      FCD with an “S” in position 48.

  • 14. 
    (407) Who maintains inquiry images for items that are unsuitable for Air Force use? 
    • A. 

      Repair cycle report (RCS).

    • B. 

      Materiel Management inspector.

    • C. 

      Stock Control.

    • D. 

      Production control.

  • 15. 
    (407) The Inspection Offline Checklist (R32) should be processed at least _______________.
    • A. 

      Weekly.

    • B. 

      Monthly.

    • C. 

      Quarterly.

    • D. 

      Semiannually.

  • 16. 
    (408) What Department of Defense (DOD) system provides an automated database of specific manufacturer’s materiel safety data sheet (MSDS) information readily available to Air Force personnel?
    • A. 

      Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) Hazard Communication Standard (HCS).

    • B. 

      Materiel Management System.

    • C. 

      Hazardous Materials Information Resource System (HMIRS).

    • D. 

      Bioenvironmental Engineering Services (BES).

  • 17. 
    (408) The document that specifies materiel safety data sheets (MSDS) requirements for government purchases is ____________.
    • A. 

      Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 23–110.

    • B. 

      AFMAN 23–210.

    • C. 

      Federal Standard (FED-STD)–313.

    • D. 

      Federal Publication (FED–PUB) 313.

  • 18. 
    (408) Which issue exception (IEX) codes identify health hazard items? 
    • A. 

      “3,” “6,” and “M.”

    • B. 

      “8,” “9,” and “M.”

    • C. 

      “E,” “F,” and “9.”

    • D. 

      “H,” “G,” and “8.”

  • 19. 
    (408) Which activity must approve all additions or deletions to the Health Hazard Approval Listing (HHAL)?
    • A. 

      Maintenance contact point.

    • B. 

      Customer service.

    • C. 

      Item manager.

    • D. 

      Bioenvironmental Engineering Services (BES).

  • 20. 
    (409) How are electrostatic sensitive devices (ESD) identified on the item record? 
    • A. 

      Issue exception (IEX) code “3.”

    • B. 

      IEX code “4.”

    • C. 

      Type cargo code “3.”

    • D. 

      Type cargo code “4.”

  • 21. 
    (409) Which transaction identification code (TRIC) and activity code is used to process an electrostatic sensitive device (ESD) on a detail record to maintenance for testing?
    • A. 

      Issue (ISU), “E.”

    • B. 

      MSI, “E.”

    • C. 

      ISU, “C.”

    • D. 

      MSI, “C.”

  • 22. 
    (410) What is the framework in which the overall materiel storage space is developed? 
    • A. 

      Facility design plan.

    • B. 

      Facility layout guide.

    • C. 

      Warehouse design plan.

    • D. 

      Warehouse layout plan.

  • 23. 
    (410) When the physical layout of a storage facility is planned, the total or gross storage space is known as the _______________.
    • A. 

      Reference point.

    • B. 

      Authorization point.

    • C. 

      Identification point.

    • D. 

      Implementation point.

  • 24. 
    (410) What item storage factor is used when fast-moving items of great demand in locations are easily accessible with as little handling as possible and slow-moving items in less-convenient locations?
    • A. 

      Quantity.

    • B. 

      Similarity.

    • C. 

      Popularity.

    • D. 

      Size and weight.

  • 25. 
    (410) When you increase the amount of space for an item in a location to eliminate overflow into another item’s location, you are implementing what item storage factor?
    • A. 

      Quantity.

    • B. 

      Similarity.

    • C. 

      Popularity.

    • D. 

      Size and weight.

  • 26. 
    (410) Which warehouse aisle runs the entire length of the warehouse? 
    • A. 

      Fire.

    • B. 

      Main.

    • C. 

      Service.

    • D. 

      Working.

  • 27. 
    (410) Which warehouse aisle can increase the possibility of pilferage in a warehouse? 
    • A. 

      Main.

    • B. 

      Service.

    • C. 

      Working.

    • D. 

      Personnel.

  • 28. 
    (411) The basic resource of any supply and distribution operation is the ______________.
    • A. 

      Gross space available.

    • B. 

      Storage space layout.

    • C. 

      Storage space.

    • D. 

      Storage plan.

  • 29. 
    (411) The practice of storing items in a way that causes a loss of storage space is called ___________.
    • A. 

      Honeycombing.

    • B. 

      Cross stacking.

    • C. 

      Mezzanine storage.

    • D. 

      Potential vacant space.

  • 30. 
    (412) Which method of storage helps to ensure that the oldest items are issued before they become outdated?
    • A. 

      First in, last out.

    • B. 

      First in, first out.

    • C. 

      Stock by serial number.

    • D. 

      Stock using national stock number (NSN)

  • 31. 
    (412) In what class of storage vault is Top Secret materiel stored? 
    • A. 

      A.

    • B. 

      B.

    • C. 

      C.

    • D. 

      D.

  • 32. 
    (412) What type items have a ready resale value, civilian utility, or application as personal possessions; and, therefore, are subject to theft?
    • A. 

      Sensitive items.

    • B. 

      Pilferable items.

    • C. 

      Protective items

    • D. 

      Highly desired items.

  • 33. 
    (412) As a minimum, how often must the combination on combination padlocks be changed for classified storage?
    • A. 

      Monthly.

    • B. 

      Quarterly.

    • C. 

      Semiannually.

    • D. 

      Annually.

  • 34. 
    (412) What form must be used to secure all vaults, secure rooms, and containers used for the storage of classified materiel?
    • A. 

      Standard form (SF) 700.

    • B. 

      SF 702.

    • C. 

      SF 703.

    • D. 

      Air Force Form 701.

  • 35. 
    (413) What individual or activity schedules and conducts a warehouse location validation for satellite accounts?
    • A. 

      Material Storage and Distribution (MS&D) officer.

    • B. 

      Account storage personnel.

    • C. 

      Inventory activity.

    • D. 

      Accountable officer.

  • 36. 
    (413) All assigned warehouse locations must be validated at least _____________.
    • A. 

      Monthly.

    • B. 

      Quarterly.

    • C. 

      Semiannually.

    • D. 

      Annually.

  • 37. 
    (414) What freeze code is loaded to the item record of a warehouse refusal? 
    • A. 

      “C.”

    • B. 

      “D.”

    • C. 

      “I.”

    • D. 

      “Q.”

  • 38. 
    (414) All copies of a warehouse refused document are forwarded to what materiel management element? 
    • A. 

      Analysis.

    • B. 

      Receiving.

    • C. 

      Inventory.

    • D. 

      Equipment.

  • 39. 
    (415) When controlled items, which are not already specified by an issue exception (IEX) code, are approved by the unit commander in writing to be placed on bench stock, they are assigned IEX code ___________.
    • A. 

      “J.”

    • B. 

      “K.”

    • C. 

      “M.”

    • D. 

      “N.”

  • 40. 
    (415) What listing controls the assignment of bench stock item numbers and helps shop personnel locate bench stock items?
    • A. 

      M04.

    • B. 

      R26.

    • C. 

      R31.

    • D. 

      S04.

  • 41. 
    (415) As a minimum, how often must standard reporting designator (SRD) data and minimum reserve authorization (MRA) levels be validated?
    • A. 

      Monthly.

    • B. 

      Quarterly.

    • C. 

      Semiannually.

    • D. 

      Annually.

  • 42. 
    (415) When is the S04 run in item number sequence? 
    • A. 

      At least annually.

    • B. 

      After the M04 is processed.

    • C. 

      After each semiannual review.

    • D. 

      After items with deviations are added.

  • 43. 
    (416) What type of inventory is conducted using the closed warehouse method? 
    • A. 

      Complete.

    • B. 

      Special.

    • C. 

      Sample.

    • D. 

      Equipment authorization inventory data (EAID).

  • 44. 
    (416) Which program assigns freeze code “C” to all item records specified within the report parameter for a complete inventory?
    • A. 

      Supply Point Listing (Q13).

    • B. 

      Sample Inventory Program (R17).

    • C. 

      Inventory Count File Program (R12).

    • D. 

      Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document Register (M10).

  • 45. 
    (417) Which option is not an objective of inventory research? 
    • A. 

      Account for rejected transactions.

    • B. 

      Correct warehouse location errors.

    • C. 

      Process requisitions when required.

    • D. 

      Reverse-post erroneous transactions.

  • 46. 
    (417) To indicate that additional research is needed, the inventory recount (IRC) image contains a recount/research indicator of
    • A. 

      “AC.”

    • B. 

      “AR.”

    • C. 

      “AT.”

    • D. 

      “AZ.”

  • 47. 
    (417) When researching a physical overage, how far back from the current date do you go to the last inventory adjustment?
    • A. 

      18 months.

    • B. 

      12 months.

    • C. 

      6 months.

    • D. 

      3 months.

  • 48. 
    (418) The type account code for an item to be considered for an automatic adjustment is ____________.
    • A. 

      “B.”

    • B. 

      “D.”

    • C. 

      “E.”

    • D. 

      “X.”

  • 49. 
    (418) The last page of the M10 shows the number of sample inventories in progress over a period of how many days?
    • A. 

      15.

    • B. 

      30.

    • C. 

      45.

    • D. 

      60.

  • 50. 
    (418) What function is responsible for ensuring that certification and approved signatures are on the original copy of the Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document Register (M10)? 
    • A. 

      Inventory.

    • B. 

      Procedures.

    • C. 

      Document Control.

    • D. 

      Records Maintenance.

  • 51. 
    (419) When submitting the query, what icon is selected to retrieve the selected Items Not Received report from the ES-S Asset Management database? 
    • A. 

      Run Query.

    • B. 

      Run Report.

    • C. 

      Asset management database.

    • D. 

      Items not delivered.

  • 52. 
    (419) In the ES-S Asset Management database , to view records in more detail, select a record from the report results list by clicking on ______________.
    • A. 

      Items Not Pulled icon.

    • B. 

      Items Not Put Away icon.

    • C. 

      Hyperlinked asset management ID number.

    • D. 

      Items Not Delivered icon.

  • 53. 
    (420) This is defined as material which requires protection in the interest of national security. 
    • A. 

      Nuclear Weapons Related Materiel (NWRM).

    • B. 

      Classified.

    • C. 

      COMSEC.

    • D. 

      Sensitive

  • 54. 
    (421) Who is responsible for the accuracy of inventory held under its control to include units maintaining communications security (COMSEC) and equipment in-use assets?
    • A. 

      Storage activity.

    • B. 

      Inspection section.

    • C. 

      Mobility section.

    • D. 

      Equipment element.

  • 55. 
    (421) What Air Force Instruction (AFI) directs Air Force organizations to formally designate in writing, personnel permitted and authorized to accept controlled materiel?
    • A. 

      Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 23–110.

    • B. 

      Air Force Instruction (AFI )23–2308.

    • C. 

      Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff Instructions (CJCSI) 3150.04.

    • D. 

      AFI 31–401.

  • 56. 
    (422) How often are code components inventoried as designated in Strategic Command (STRATCOM) guidance?
    • A. 

      At 15, 30 and/or 90 day intervals.

    • B. 

      At 30, 45 and/or 90 day intervals.

    • C. 

      At 15, 30 and/or 120 day intervals.

    • D. 

      At 30, 45 and/or 120 day intervals.

  • 57. 
    (422) What color ink is used to stamp or handwrite the words “Classified Item” on copies of source documents for classified items?
    • A. 

      Blue.

    • B. 

      Red.

    • C. 

      Black.

    • D. 

      Green.

  • 58. 
    (423) How is an overage of a serialized control item processed?
    • A. 

      A. By processing a serialized asset inquiry in the Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS) and/or contact the depot with the actual serial number of the asset.

    • B. 

      B. By processing a serialized asset inquiry in Air Force Global Logistics Support Center (AFGLSC) and/or contact the depot with the actual serial number of the asset.

    • C. 

      C. By processing a serialized asset inquiry in AFEMS and/or contacting the contractor.

    • D. 

      D. By processing an overage in the Reparable Item Movement Control System (RIMCS) detail system.

  • 59. 
    (423) What does materiel management activities sign to maintain custody accountability?
    • A. 

      Department of Defense (DD) Form 1348–1A.

    • B. 

      DD Form 1907, or carrier furnished signature and tally record.

    • C. 

      DD Form 200.

    • D. 

      Custody Receipt Listing.

  • 60. 
    (423) Who is responsible for the health of assigned items to meet mission requirements over the life cycle of these assets?
    • A. 

      Item Manager.

    • B. 

      Inspection.

    • C. 

      Air Force Material Command (AFMC).

    • D. 

      Defense Logistics Agency (DLA).