5 Level Volume 1

104 Questions | Total Attempts: 61

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5 Level Volume 1

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    (001) Which functions form a maintenance group?
    • A. 

      Operations, aircraft maintenance, flying.

    • B. 

      Maintenance, operations, quality assurance.

    • C. 

      Quality assurance (QA), support, aircraft maintenance.

    • D. 

      Maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and QA.

  • 2. 
     (001) To which flight is the engine management section assigned?
    • A. 

      Programs and Resources.

    • B. 

      Maintenance Operations.

    • C. 

      Maintenance Training.

    • D. 

      Quality Assurance.

  • 3. 
     (001) Who monitors flying and maintenance schedules and maintains visibility of fleet health indicators?
    • A. 

      Operations Support Center.

    • B. 

      Logistics Support Squadron.

    • C. 

      Operations Support Squadron.

    • D. 

      Maintenance Operations Center.

  • 4. 
     (002) What does the fifth position of the Air Force specialty code (AFSC) 3A652 represent?
    • A. 

      Career field subdivision.

    • B. 

      Specific AFSC.

    • C. 

      Career field.

    • D. 

      Skill level.

  • 5. 
     (002) What will be your title once you obtain the 7-skill level?
    • A. 

      Craftsman.

    • B. 

      Apprentice.

    • C. 

      Journeyman.

    • D. 

      Superintendent.

  • 6. 
     (002) What type of training is provided to help you learn the knowledge portion of your job?
    • A. 

      On-the-job training.

    • B. 

      Task qualification training.

    • C. 

      Career development course.

    • D. 

      Noncommissioned Officer Academy (NCOA).

  • 7. 
     (002) How many months must you have in the Air Force before you may attend the Airman Leadership School (ALS)?
    • A. 

      24.

    • B. 

      36.

    • C. 

      48.

    • D. 

      60.

  • 8. 
     (003) Air Force occupational safety and health (AFOSH) standards are located within Air Force publication series
    • A. 

      91.

    • B. 

      66.

    • C. 

      127.

    • D. 

      161.

  • 9. 
     (003) Which piece of personal protective equipment is required to avoid potential hazards when lifting heavy objects?
    • A. 

      Goggles.

    • B. 

      Back brace.

    • C. 

      Leather gloves.

    • D. 

      Safety-toed boots.

  • 10. 
     (003) Which Air Force instruction defines quality maintenance and requires maintenance personnel to display integrity and comply with all written guidance?
    • A. 

      00–5–1.

    • B. 

      00–20–1.

    • C. 

      21–101

    • D. 

      36–2108

  • 11. 
     (004) Prior to starting any maintenance on the aircraft, what can you do to ensure that it is safe to proceed?
    • A. 

      Lock and pin the work stands.

    • B. 

      Check the intake for foreign object damage (FOD).

    • C. 

      Review the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 781K.

    • D. 

      Check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft.

  • 12. 
     (004) How far does a propeller’s axis of rotation extend?
    • A. 

      20 feet to the front and 15 feet from the rear.

    • B. 

      15 feet to the front and 10 feet from the rear.

    • C. 

      10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear.

    • D. 

      5 feet to the front and 1 foot from the rear.

  • 13. 
     (004) In order to avoid the engine exhaust blast, what is the minimum distance to the rear of the aircraft?
    • A. 

      100 feet.

    • B. 

      200 feet.

    • C. 

      300 feet.

    • D. 

      400 feet.

  • 14. 
     (005) Foreign object damage (FOD) is normally caused by
    • A. 

      People.

    • B. 

      Animals.

    • C. 

      Weather.

    • D. 

      Mechanical failure.

  • 15. 
     (005) Who has overall responsibility for the foreign object damage (FOD) program?
    • A. 

      Quality Assurance.

    • B. 

      Production supervisor.

    • C. 

      Squadron commander.

    • D. 

      Vice Wing commander.

  • 16. 
     (006) Toxic materials are easiest to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions when they are in the form of
    • A. 

      Aerosols.

    • B. 

      Liquids.

    • C. 

      Solids.

    • D. 

      Gases.

  • 17. 
     (007) Who is responsible for providing you with training on how to wear, use, and maintain personal protective equipment?
    • A. 

      Safety.

    • B. 

      Hospital

    • C. 

      Supervisor.

    • D. 

      Environmental.

  • 18. 
     (007) What would you normally use to clean and sanitize respirators?
    • A. 

      Alcohol.

    • B. 

      Pine oil.

    • C. 

      Mild soap.

    • D. 

      Fleur-de-lis.

  • 19. 
     (007) Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent
    • A. 

      Explosions.

    • B. 

      Unauthorized entry.

    • C. 

      Overflow of materials.

    • D. 

      Mixing of unlike materials.

  • 20. 
     (007) Containers holding hazardous waste must be clearly marked to show the contents and
    • A. 

      Flash point.

    • B. 

      Classification

    • C. 

      Shipping name.

    • D. 

      Date the waste began to accumulate.

  • 21. 
     (008) A specialized function of the supply mission is
    • A. 

      Repair.

    • B. 

      Service.

    • C. 

      Disposal.

    • D. 

      Retrieval.

  • 22. 
     (008) From what perspective does the Global Logistics Support Center (GLSC) manage supply?
    • A. 

      Base system.

    • B. 

      Weapons system.

    • C. 

      Inventory system.

    • D. 

      Geographical system.

  • 23. 
     (008) Selected equipment items, when returned to depot because of their design characteristics function or application, are predetermined to require
    • A. 

      Overhaul.

    • B. 

      Retest OK.

    • C. 

      Time change.

    • D. 

      Repair cycle support.

  • 24. 
     (008) Which supply document provides a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by the Standard Base Supply System (SBSS)?
    • A. 

      Priority Monitor Report (D18).

    • B. 

      Daily Document Register (D04).

    • C. 

      Due-out Validation Listing (M30).

    • D. 

      Repair Cycle Asset Management Listing (D23).

  • 25. 
     (008) Base Supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a prioritized basis because of the differences in each organization’s
    • A. 

      Type of aircraft.

    • B. 

      Contract.

    • C. 

      Mission.

    • D. 

      Location.

  • 26. 
     (009) What does a completed Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 350 serve to identify?
    • A. 

      Origin of an item.

    • B. 

      Why the item broke.

    • C. 

      How long the item will take to repair.

    • D. 

      The responsible reparable processing center.

  • 27. 
     (010) If you need detailed information concerning codes and entries on the Air Force Information Management Tool (IMT) Form 2005, Issue/Turn-In Request, refer to Air Force Manual (AFMAN)
    • A. 

      23–254.

    • B. 

      23–110.

    • C. 

      91–254.

    • D. 

      91–110.

  • 28. 
     (011) Items that are awaiting parts or maintenance are each required to have an attached Department of Defense (DD) Form
    • A. 

      1574.

    • B. 

      1575.

    • C. 

      1577–2.

    • D. 

      1577–3

  • 29. 
     (012) When a bench stock item has a type I shelf-life, it means the item
    • A. 

      Has an assigned shelf-life period that may be extended.

    • B. 

      Should be returned to supply after expiration date.

    • C. 

      Has a definite nonextendible period of shelf-life.

    • D. 

      Should be inspected or tested.

  • 30. 
     (013) A Category I deficiency report (DR) is used to report a deficiency
    • A. 

      That is required for tracking by agreement of the single manager.

    • B. 

      Found during an initial acceptance inspection (critical or major defects only).

    • C. 

      That, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system.

    • D. 

      That identifies a potential enhancement (applies to enhancements noted during the acquisition cycle).

  • 31. 
     (013) Within how many hours must Category I deficiency reports (DR) be forwarded to the originating point?
    • A. 

      8.

    • B. 

      12

    • C. 

      24.

    • D. 

      72.

  • 32. 
     (014) Which type of items must be reflected on the Custodian Authorization/Custody Receipt Listing (CA/CRL)?
    • A. 

      Shelf-life.

    • B. 

      Bench stock.

    • C. 

      Hazardous materials.

    • D. 

      Equipment authorization inventory data.

  • 33. 
     (014) To become an equipment custodian, you must be appointed by the
    • A. 

      Shop chief.

    • B. 

      Supervisor.

    • C. 

      Commander.

    • D. 

      Supply chief.

  • 34. 
     (014) When should new equipment account custodians receive training?
    • A. 

      Before signing for the account.

    • B. 

      Within 10 days of signing for the account.

    • C. 

      Within 15 days of signing for the account.

    • D. 

      Within 30 days of signing for the account.

  • 35. 
     (015) The second section of a technical order (TO) number gives the
    • A. 

      Classification.

    • B. 

      Type of equipment.

    • C. 

      Mission type of equipment.

    • D. 

      Model and series for equipment type.

  • 36. 
     (016) Which technical order (TO) describes the Air Force TO system?
    • A. 

      00–5–1.

    • B. 

      00–5–2.

    • C. 

      00–20–1.

    • D. 

      00–20–2.

  • 37. 
     (017) Which type of technical manual is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action?
    • A. 

      General Equipment.

    • B. 

      General System.

    • C. 

      Fault Isolation.

    • D. 

      Job Guide.

  • 38. 
     (017) What section of the Illustrated Parts Breakdown (IPB) contains definitions of the codes used in the IPB?
    • A. 

      Introduction.

    • B. 

      Numerical index.

    • C. 

      Group assembly parts list.

    • D. 

      Reference designation index.

  • 39. 
     (018) What time compliance technical order (TCTO) category is issued to correct hazardous safety conditions that can result in a fatality or serious injury to personnel?
    • A. 

      Record.

    • B. 

      Urgent action.

    • C. 

      Routine action.

    • D. 

      Immediate action.

  • 40. 
     (019) Who originates technical orders?
    • A. 

      Section supervisor.

    • B. 

      Contracting squadron.

    • C. 

      Equipment manufacturer.

    • D. 

      Maintenance group commander.

  • 41. 
     (020) An Air Force technical order (AFTO) information management tool (IMT) Form 22, Technical Manual (TM) Change Recommendation and Reply, is not submitted for
    • A. 

      Preliminary technical orders (TO).

    • B. 

      Methods and procedures TOs.

    • C. 

      Work cards.

    • D. 

      Job guides.

  • 42. 
      (020) Who makes sure the Air Force technical order (AFTO) information management tool (IMT) Form 22 is valid and warrants submission? maintenance (RCM) approach?
    • A. 

      Initiator.

    • B. 

      Commander.

    • C. 

      Supervisor of initiator.

    • D. 

      Product improvement office.

  • 43. 
     (021) What are the two classifications of failures in the reliability centered maintenance (RCM) approach?
    • A. 

      Evident and hidden.

    • B. 

      Potential and evident.

    • C. 

      Hidden and functional.

    • D. 

      Potential and functional.

  • 44. 
     (021) In the reliability centered maintenance (RCM) approach, which preventative maintenance task is a scheduled inspection to detect a potential failure condition?
    • A. 

      Hard time.

    • B. 

      Lubrication.

    • C. 

      On condition.

    • D. 

      Failure finding.

  • 45. 
     (022) Which program integrates hardware, software, maintenance, and diagnostic processes to quantify and monitor/manage engine health?
    • A. 

      Centralized repair facility (CRF).

    • B. 

      Engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D).

    • C. 

      Engine life-cycle management planning (ELMP).

    • D. 

      Comprehensive engine management system (CEMS).

  • 46. 
     (022) Within the engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D) program, to whom do flight-line personnel transfer collected data for analysis?
    • A. 

      Depot-level engine maintenance shops.

    • B. 

      Base engine maintenance shop.

    • C. 

      Product center engineers.

    • D. 

      Flight-line expediter.

  • 47. 
     (022) Which technicians provide maintenance activity data to the engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D) program?
    • A. 

      Propulsion and depot.

    • B. 

      Depot and nondestructive inspection.

    • C. 

      Propulsion and nondestructive inspection.

    • D. 

      Environmental health and nondestructive inspection.

  • 48. 
     (023) Centralized repair facilities (CRF) provide support for whom?
    • A. 

      War fighters.

    • B. 

      Test cell personnel.

    • C. 

      Flight-line mechanics.

    • D. 

      Back shop mechanics.

  • 49. 
     (023) Who maintains accountability of centralized repair facility (CRF) assets and reports their status?
    • A. 

      Production supervisor.

    • B. 

      Depot item manager.

    • C. 

      Engine technician.

    • D. 

      Supply officer.

  • 50. 
     (024) Depot maintenance provides support to base-level technicians by
    • A. 

      Notifying maintenance personnel of upcoming time compliance technical orders (TCTO).

    • B. 

      Providing technical assistance and performing repairs beyond their capability.

    • C. 

      Ensuring replacement parts are ordered in a timely manner.

    • D. 

      Providing the most current TO updates to the field.

  • 51. 
     (024) Depot level support includes depot field teams (DFT) and
    • A. 

      Contract field teams (CFT).

    • B. 

      Base jet engine run crews.

    • C. 

      Oil analysis teams.

    • D. 

      Slide engineers.

  • 52. 
     (025) A primary objective of the engine reporting system is to
    • A. 

      Schedule engine replacement times.

    • B. 

      Track parts replacement on jet engines.

    • C. 

      Report all engine-related discrepancies.

    • D. 

      Maintain accurate and timely engine inventories.

  • 53. 
     (025) The key to making the comprehensive engine management system (CEMS) work is
    • A. 

      Availability of engines and their parts.

    • B. 

      Availability of storage and analysis computers.

    • C. 

      Accurate and timely data at the lowest level.

    • D. 

      Accurate and timely data at the highest level.

  • 54. 
     (026) You should record the removal and replacement of engine accessories on the following Air Force technical order (AFTO) Forms
    • A. 

      25.

    • B. 

      44.

    • C. 

      95.

    • D. 

      349.

  • 55. 
     (027) Which is not a Lead the Fleet/Pacer program objective?
    • A. 

      Reducing customer wait time for serviceable assets.

    • B. 

      Accurately update scheduled maintenance requirements.

    • C. 

      Evaluate the engine controls and accessories to include engine monitoring systems.

    • D. 

      Detect any unique durability problems that might force special scheduled inspections.

  • 56. 
     (027) How many years ahead should participating units accelerate engines, modules, and accessories?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 57. 
     (028) Carrying a hand tool in your pocket is potentially hazardous because it could cause
    • A. 

      Injury to you.

    • B. 

      Torn clothing.

    • C. 

      Electrical shock.

    • D. 

      Damage to the tool.

  • 58. 
     (028) You should wear eye protection when you work
    • A. 

      With tools that may cause flying particles.

    • B. 

      Where there is a fire hazard.

    • C. 

      Around any type of fluid.

    • D. 

      On any type of job.

  • 59. 
     (028) What would you use to hold your tools when you cannot locate your toolbox within arm’s reach?
    • A. 

      Foreign object damage (FOD) bag.

    • B. 

      Ziploc bag.

    • C. 

      Parts bag.

    • D. 

      Tool bag.

  • 60. 
     (029) If you must torque a sequence of three or more bolts,
    • A. 

      Use maximum torque.

    • B. 

      Torque from left to right.

    • C. 

      Use a staggered sequence.

    • D. 

      Overtorque, loosen, and retorque.

  • 61. 
     (029) The length of a torque extension is determined by the distance between the center of the square drive and the center of the
    • A. 

      Lock.

    • B. 

      Grip.

    • C. 

      Shaft index line.

    • D. 

      Broached opening.

  • 62. 
     (029) What type of rule should you use for measuring an inside diameter?
    • A. 

      6-inch steel.

    • B. 

      Grip.

    • C. 

      Shaft index line.

    • D. 

      Broached opening.

  • 63. 
     (029) If you were tasked to measure the clearance between two surfaces, what type of gauge would you use?
    • A. 

      Steel-rule.

    • B. 

      Micrometer.

    • C. 

      Dial-indicator.

    • D. 

      Thickness gauge.

  • 64. 
     (030) The longest calibrated movement between the spindle and anvil of an outside micrometer is
    • A. 

      1 inch.

    • B. 

      2 inches.

    • C. 

      3 inches.

    • D. 

      4 inches.

  • 65. 
     (031) What feature is common to all dial indicators?
    • A. 

      Construction of indicator.

    • B. 

      Construction of indicating hand.

    • C. 

      Ability to amplify movement greatly.

    • D. 

      Ability to amplify movement slightly.

  • 66. 
     (032) The Fluke 8025A multimeter control that is used to set the meter to check for alternating current (AC) and direct current (DC) is the
    • A. 

      Touch-hold push-button switch.

    • B. 

      Function selector rotary switch.

    • C. 

      Range-mode pushbutton switch.

    • D. 

      Volts, ohms, diode test input jack.

  • 67. 
     (032) If the input into the Fluke 8025A meter is over the range being used, what will the digital display show?
    • A. 

      OL.

    • B. 

      OR.

    • C. 

      COM.

    • D. 

      OFF.

  • 68. 
     (032) What is the maximum voltage that can be measured if the range button is set at 30 on the Fluke 8025A multimeter?
    • A. 

      28

    • B. 

      30

    • C. 

      32

    • D. 

      34

  • 69. 
     (033) What is the purpose of a borescope inspection on an assembled engine?
    • A. 

      Replace a teardown inspection.

    • B. 

      Visually inspect internal sections.

    • C. 

      Detect major damage inside the engine.

    • D. 

      Determine how much maintenance is required during a periodic inspection.

  • 70. 
     (034) Light is transmitted to the tip of a borescope by
    • A. 

      The fiber optics.

    • B. 

      An optical illusion bundle.

    • C. 

      A grounded extension cord.

    • D. 

      A directly magnified light source.

  • 71. 
     (034) When operating a borescope, what part of the borescope illuminates the interior of the area you’re inspecting?
    • A. 

      Control unit.

    • B. 

      Light guide tube.

    • C. 

      Distal tip light guides.

    • D. 

      Bending section lever.

  • 72. 
     (034) Which factor is not considered for borescope operator certification?
    • A. 

      Experience.

    • B. 

      Maturity.

    • C. 

      Age.

    • D. 

      Rank.

  • 73. 
     (034) Which type of borescope misuse causes a poor field of view (black spots)?
    • A. 

      Setting the light source selector switch on high.

    • B. 

      Operation of the bending section with the brake on.

    • C. 

      Inserting tools in the working channel with the brake on.

    • D. 

      Application of lateral (pinching) pressure to the fiber bundle.

  • 74. 
     (035) The grip length of a bolt should be a few thousandths of an inch shorter than the material it is holding to
    • A. 

      Allow for the installation of a washer.

    • B. 

      Keep the nut from backing loose.

    • C. 

      Allow for expansion of the metal.

    • D. 

      Avoid bottoming out the nut.

  • 75. 
     (035) Which nuts should never be used in areas where the temperature exceeds 250°F?
    • A. 

      Plain nuts.

    • B. 

      Wing nuts.

    • C. 

      Metallic self-locking nuts.

    • D. 

      Nonmetallic self-locking nuts.

  • 76. 
     (035) How is a screw length measured?
    • A. 

      Thread length of the treads.

    • B. 

      Base of the head to the bottom the threads.

    • C. 

      Length of the shank plus the threaded portion.

    • D. 

      Top of the head to the bottom of the screw threads.

  • 77. 
     (035) When installing a self-taping screw, the hole must be
    • A. 

      Slightly smaller than the screw.

    • B. 

      The same size as the screw shank.

    • C. 

      Slightly deeper than the length of the shank.

    • D. 

      Slightly shallower than the length of the screw.

  • 78. 
     (035) To prevent damage to the soft metal surfaces and a lock washer is required, what should you use?
    • A. 

      Plain washer underneath the lock washer.

    • B. 

      Soft lock washer.

    • C. 

      Special washer.

    • D. 

      Crush washer.

  • 79. 
     (036) What type of pin is used in joints that carry shear loads and where the absence of clearance is essential?
    • A. 

      Tapered.

    • B. 

      Flathead.

    • C. 

      Cotter.

    • D. 

      Shear.

  • 80. 
     (037) When lock wiring, how many twists per inch are required to produce the proper stiffness?
    • A. 

      6 to 8.

    • B. 

      8 to 10.

    • C. 

      10 to 12.

    • D. 

      12 to 14.

  • 81. 
     (038) Why is it necessary to carefully remove support clamps when disconnecting tubes?
    • A. 

      Allows for ease of removal.

    • B. 

      Aids in further inspections.

    • C. 

      Prevents nicking and scratching.

    • D. 

      Prevents possible static electricity.

  • 82. 
     (038) Why should dust caps be installed over tube ends rather than inside them?
    • A. 

      Provides a tighter fit.

    • B. 

      Prevents nicking of inner tube surface.

    • C. 

      Avoids possibility of leaving caps installed.

    • D. 

      Provides less contact with corrosive lubricants.

  • 83. 
     (038) Which type of hose assemblies are exempt from shelf-life storage?
    • A. 

      Teflon.

    • B. 

      Rubber.

    • C. 

      Synthetic rubber.

    • D. 

      Metal reinforced rubber.

  • 84. 
     (038) What is one method of eliminating hose chafing?
    • A. 

      Use suitable bulkhead-type grommets.

    • B. 

      Maintain tight bends during installation.

    • C. 

      Use a minimal number of cushioned clamps.

    • D. 

      Support the hose approximately 7 inches from each connection.

  • 85. 
     (039) When you receive an engine in your shop, you should check the applicable forms and then
    • A. 

      Look for leaks.

    • B. 

      Change the oil filter.

    • C. 

      Inspect for missing parts.

    • D. 

      Check the compressor inlet.

  • 86. 
     (039) When disassembling the oil filter, why should you always use a clean container?
    • A. 

      Because the oil can be reused.

    • B. 

      To prevent false contaminant indications.

    • C. 

      So a reliable Oil Analysis Program sample can be obtained.

    • D. 

      The oil is recycled and must be kept clean.

  • 87. 
     (039) Operating procedures and practices that if not strictly observed may result in damage to equipment are shown in the maintenance manuals in the form of
    • A. 

      Notes.

    • B. 

      Hints.

    • C. 

      Warnings.

    • D. 

      Cautions

  • 88. 
     (040) Preservation of a component being shipped is required when it is being returned to depot or stored for more than how many days?
    • A. 

      15

    • B. 

      30

    • C. 

      45

    • D. 

      60

  • 89. 
     (041) The requirements for storing engines in a metal container is to maintain
    • A. 

      Nitrogen pressure.

    • B. 

      Engine dehydration

    • C. 

      Warehouse facilities.

    • D. 

      Ventilatory plugs and caps.

  • 90. 
     (042) What should you use to check for pressure leaks on an engine/module shipping container?
    • A. 

      Engine oil.

    • B. 

      Dry nitrogen.

    • C. 

      A leak detector.

    • D. 

      A soap-water solution.

  • 91. 
     (042) To determine whether an engine stored in a shipping container is serviceable or repairable, look on the
    • A. 

      Side of the container.

    • B. 

      Data plate on both halves of the container.

    • C. 

      Top half on the right panel of the container.

    • D. 

      Bottom half on the left panel of the container.

  • 92. 
     (043) Prior to removing a shipping container lid, what warning must be observed?
    • A. 

      Ensure humidity indicator is blue.

    • B. 

      Release all pressure before removing lid.

    • C. 

      Ensure pressure is below 5 psi before loosening bolts.

    • D. 

      Loosen bolts in a staggered pattern to prevent warping.

  • 93. 
     (043) How many pins secure the adapters to the shipping container support?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      8

  • 94. 
     (044) During the "over 180 days" preservation period, the fuel system is maintained full of
    • A. 

      Fuel.

    • B. 

      Calibration fluid.

    • C. 

      MIL-L–7808.

    • D. 

      MIL-L–6081 (grade 1010).

  • 95. 
     (044) Engines inactive for over 180 days must have what accomplished?
    • A. 

      Motor the engine to circulate the oil.

    • B. 

      Inspect reservoirs to ensure they are full.

    • C. 

      Visually inspect compressor for corrosion.

    • D. 

      Preservation run and fuel system preservation.

  • 96. 
     (044) When can you consider a depreserved engine ready for service?
    • A. 

      After motoring the engine and changing the filters.

    • B. 

      As soon as all depreservation fluid has been purged.

    • C. 

      Only after a ground check run of the engine has been performed.

    • D. 

      After visually inspecting the compressor and turbine for signs of corrosion.

  • 97. 
     (045) What is used to help remove moisture from an area where engines are stored?
    • A. 

      Corrosion-preventive compound (CPC).

    • B. 

      Corrosion-preventive mixture (CPM).

    • C. 

      Cobalt chloride.

    • D. 

      Desiccants.

  • 98. 
     (045) To dry an engine after water-washing a compressor, run the engine for at least
    • A. 

      1 minute.

    • B. 

      2 minutes.

    • C. 

      3 minutes.

    • D. 

      4 minutes.

  • 99. 
     (046) On the personnel maintenance platforms, the purpose of the platform safety lockpins is to
    • A. 

      Prevent the platform from lowering while it is in use.

    • B. 

      Prevent the platform from swaying while it is in use.

    • C. 

      Lock the base structure while the platform is in use.

    • D. 

      Prevent the wheels from swiveling while it is in use.

  • 100. 
     (047) What information is found in Part I of an Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 244, Industrial/Support Equipment Record?
    • A. 

      Supervisory review.

    • B. 

      Item identification.

    • C. 

      Employee number blocks.

    • D. 

      Nonscheduled inspection blocks.

  • 101. 
    Which one do you like?
    • A. 

      Option 1

    • B. 

      Option 2

    • C. 

      Option 3

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 102. 
    Which one do you like?
    • A. 

      Option 1

    • B. 

      Option 2

    • C. 

      Option 3

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 103. 
    Which one do you like?
    • A. 

      Option 1

    • B. 

      Option 2

    • C. 

      Option 3

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 104. 
    Which one do you like?
    • A. 

      Option 1

    • B. 

      Option 2

    • C. 

      Option 3

    • D. 

      Option 4