Bio 2 Midterm- 1/20/2016

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Biology Quizzes & Trivia

Biology courses cover foundational concepts in the study of living organisms, from the basics of cells and molecules to subfields like plant and marine biology. The midterms are around the corner, take this exam sample to measure your preparedness and get rid of the pre-exam jitters. All the best!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The nucleus of an atom contains
    • A. 

      Electrons and protons

    • B. 

      Electrons and neutrons

    • C. 

      Protons and neutrons

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 2. 
    The octet rule states that ________ electrons are needed for the outer energy level to be considered stable
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      6

    • C. 

      8

    • D. 

      10

  • 3. 
    The atomic number is used to determine the : 
    • A. 

      Atomic mass

    • B. 

      Number of protons

    • C. 

      Number of neutrons

    • D. 

      If the atom is an isotope

  • 4. 
    An isotope is an atom that contains a different
    • A. 

      Number of protons

    • B. 

      Number of neutrons

    • C. 

      Number of electrons

    • D. 

      Atomic number

  • 5. 
    Element with 53 protons
    • A. 

      Silicon

    • B. 

      Chromium

    • C. 

      Iodine

    • D. 

      Potassium

  • 6. 
    • A. 

      It is the same number of protons

    • B. 

      You subtract the atomic number from the atomic mass

    • C. 

      You add the number of proton and electrons

    • D. 

      You add the atomic number and the atomic mass

  • 7. 
    What is a polar molecule
    • A. 

      A molecule with a slightly negative charge at one end and a slightly positive charge on the other end

    • B. 

      A molecule with no charge

    • C. 

      A molecule that cant bond with other molecules

    • D. 

      A stable molecule

  • 8. 
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      6

    • C. 

      8

    • D. 

      12

  • 9. 
    Fluorine atoms tend to...? when they form chemical compounds with metals
    • A. 

      Lose electrons

    • B. 

      Gain electrons

    • C. 

      Neither lose or gain electrons, they usually share with metals

    • D. 

      Fluorine atoms do not form compounds with other atoms, fluorine is an inert gas

  • 10. 
    Carbohydrate molecules:
    • A. 

      Serve as structural components of human cell walls

    • B. 

      Are a source of energy

    • C. 

      Form enzymes

    • D. 

      Contain the genetic information of a cell

    • E. 

      Help protect vital organs from damage

  • 11. 
    • A. 

      Monosaccharide: maltose

    • B. 

      Disaccharide: sucrose

    • C. 

      None of these pairs are correctly matched

    • D. 

      Polysaccharide: cellulose

    • E. 

      All of these pairs

  • 12. 
    • A. 

      Carbon-to-carbon bonds are limited to single bonds

    • B. 

      Carbon can form bonds to various other atoms

    • C. 

      Carbon has 4 valence electrons

    • D. 

      Carbon-to-carbon bonds are strong

    • E. 

      2 carbon atoms can share three electron pairs with each other

  • 13. 
    • A. 

      Monosaccharide

    • B. 

      Starch

    • C. 

      Polysaccharide

    • D. 

      Disaccharide

    • E. 

      Carbohydrate

  • 14. 
    A molecule of saturated fat contains
    • A. 

      The max number of double bonds between carbons in the fatty acid chains

    • B. 

      The max number of triple bonds between carbons in the fatty acid chains

    • C. 

      The max number of hydrogen atoms in the fatty acid chains, all with single bonded Carbons

    • D. 

      Fatty acid chains with both amino and carboxyl groups

    • E. 

      Alternating single and double bonds between carbons in the fatty acid chains

  • 15. 
    • A. 

      They are more common in animals

    • B. 

      They are generally liquids at room temp

    • C. 

      They have no double bonds in the carbon chains of their fatty acids

    • D. 

      Contain more hydrogen than do saturated fats having the same number of carbon atoms

    • E. 

      Fewer fatty acids per fat molecule than do saturated fats

  • 16. 
    Major functions of proteins include
    • A. 

      Catalyzing chemical reactions

    • B. 

      Strengthening and protecting cells and tissues

    • C. 

      Aiding in immune system functions

    • D. 

      Both A and B

    • E. 

      A B and C are correct

  • 17. 
    At what level of protein structure are peptide bonds formed
    • A. 

      Primary

    • B. 

      Secondary

    • C. 

      Tertiary

    • D. 

      Quaternary

    • E. 

      Globular

  • 18. 
    • A. 

      DNA is usually composed of 2 strands

    • B. 

      DNA contains deoxyribose

    • C. 

      The nucleotides of DNA are linked by phosphodiester linkages

    • D. 

      DNA doesnt normally contain uracil

    • E. 

      DNA doesnt normally contain a phosphate group

  • 19. 
    This molecule transmits heredity information
    • A. 

      Cholesterol

    • B. 

      Nucleic acid

    • C. 

      Fatty acid

    • D. 

      Adenosine triphosphate

    • E. 

      Ploysaccharide

  • 20. 
    • A. 

      Amino acids are used to build proteins

    • B. 

      Monosaccharides are used to build polysaccharides

    • C. 

      Fatty acids are used to build nucleic acids

    • D. 

      Glucose molecules are used to build starches

    • E. 

      All of these monomers are correctly matched with the corresponding polymer

  • 21. 
    Pepsin converts _______ to _______
    • A. 

      Starch; sugars

    • B. 

      Fats; fatty acids and glycerol

    • C. 

      Nucleic acids; nucleotides

    • D. 

      Peptides; amino acids

    • E. 

      Proteins; peptides

  • 22. 
    Chyme flows from the
    • A. 

      Jejunum>ilium>duodenum

    • B. 

      Ilium>duodenum>jejunum

    • C. 

      Duodenum>ilium>jejunum

    • D. 

      Duodenum-jejunum>ilium

    • E. 

      Ilium>jejunum>duodenum

  • 23. 
    The pyloric sphincter is located at the exit of the
    • A. 

      Rectum

    • B. 

      Esophagus

    • C. 

      Stomach

    • D. 

      Duodenum

    • E. 

      Jejunum

  • 24. 
    One of the main functions of bile is
    • A. 

      Protecting the stomach lining

    • B. 

      Chemically digesting fats

    • C. 

      Stimulating peristalsis

    • D. 

      Enzymatically digesting starches

    • E. 

      Enzymatically digesting proteins

  • 25. 
    Glycogen is hydrolyzed (broken down by)
    • A. 

      Amylase

    • B. 

      Maltase

    • C. 

      Dipeptidase

    • D. 

      Bile salts

    • E. 

      Chymotrypsin

  • 26. 
    • A. 

      Digestion of a meal begins in the mouth

    • B. 

      Hydrolysis (break down) of proteins begins in the stomach

    • C. 

      Most hydrolysis (break down) of fats take place in the stomach

    • D. 

      Absorption of amino acids take place in the small intestine

    • E. 

      Absorption of water takes place in the large intestine

  • 27. 
    A chylomicron is a
    • A. 

      Hormone

    • B. 

      Component of bile

    • C. 

      Digestive enzyme

    • D. 

      Protein-covered fat droplet

    • E. 

      Component of fiber

  • 28. 
    Undigested (waste) material flows from the ascending colon directly to the:
    • A. 

      Duodenum

    • B. 

      Transverse colon

    • C. 

      Cecum

    • D. 

      Rectum

    • E. 

      Descending colon

  • 29. 
    • A. 

      It is also called the colon

    • B. 

      It harbors beneficial bacteria

    • C. 

      It is involved with the absorption of sodium

    • D. 

      It is involved with the absorption of water

    • E. 

      It secretes digestive enzymes

  • 30. 
    All of the following are functions of vitamin A except
    • A. 

      Assisting in cell differentation

    • B. 

      Being involved in bone growth

    • C. 

      Being involved in health vision

    • D. 

      Being involved in providing the body with energy

  • 31. 
    All of the following are factors that may cause free radical information EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Overexposure to the sun

    • B. 

      Tobacco smoke

    • C. 

      Eating fruits and vegetables

    • D. 

      Pollution

  • 32. 
    All of the following are factors that impact vitamin D status EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Use of antioxidants

    • B. 

      Age

    • C. 

      Use of sunscreen

    • D. 

      Cloudy weather

  • 33. 
    In order to increase absorption of iron, a person may benefit from consuming an adequate intake of which vitamin
    • A. 

      K

    • B. 

      D

    • C. 

      A

    • D. 

      C

  • 34. 
    All of the following are good sources of folate/folic acid except
    • A. 

      Rice

    • B. 

      Dairy foods

    • C. 

      Lentils

    • D. 

      Green leafy vegetables

  • 35. 
    • A. 

      Keshan disease

    • B. 

      Xeropthalmia

    • C. 

      Scurvy

    • D. 

      Osteoporosis

  • 36. 
    • A. 

      Chicken

    • B. 

      Tomatoes

    • C. 

      Oranges

    • D. 

      Nuts

  • 37. 
    All of the following may benefit from vitamin supplementation EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Elderly

    • B. 

      Pregnant woman

    • C. 

      Healthy adults

    • D. 

      Vegans

  • 38. 
    All of the following vitamins can become toxic if consumed in excess quantities EXCEPT
    • A. 

      K

    • B. 

      E

    • C. 

      A

    • D. 

      D

  • 39. 
    • A. 

      Tissue hemorrhage

    • B. 

      Increased hair growth

    • C. 

      Infertility

    • D. 

      Decreased hair growth

  • 40. 
    • A. 

      Essential to sight

    • B. 

      Enhancing absorption of iron

    • C. 

      Protecting LDL from oxidation

    • D. 

      Cell differentation

  • 41. 
    The B vitamins include:
    • A. 

      Niacin, folate, and selenium

    • B. 

      Thiamin, pantothenic acid, biotin

    • C. 

      Beta-carotene, riboflavin, pyridoxine,

    • D. 

      Cobalamin, choline, and chromium

  • 42. 
    The vitamin most closely associated with blood clotting is
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      B12

    • C. 

      Niacin

    • D. 

      K

  • 43. 
    Which of the following statements about iron is true
    • A. 

      Iron is stored primarily in the heart muscle and skeletal muscles

    • B. 

      Iron is a components of RBC's, WBC's, platelets, plasma

    • C. 

      Iron is a component of hemoglobin, myoglobin, and certain enzymes

    • D. 

      Iron needs are higher for elderly women than for younger women

  • 44. 
    Three important nutrients found in many brands of table salt sold in the US include
    • A. 

      Sodium, chloride, iodine

    • B. 

      Sodium, potassium, iodine

    • C. 

      Sodium, potassium, chlorine

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 45. 
    Calcium is neccessry for several body functions, including;
    • A. 

      Hemoglobin production, nerve transmission, and immune responses

    • B. 

      Structure of cartilage, nerve transmission, and muscle contraction

    • C. 

      Structure of bone and blood, immune responses, muscle contraction

    • D. 

      Structure of bone, nerve transmission, and muscle contraction

    • E. 

      Sodium, calcium, magnesium

  • 46. 
    Mineral responsible for muscle contraction:
    • A. 

      Zinc

    • B. 

      Selenium

    • C. 

      Phosphorus

    • D. 

      Calcium

  • 47. 
    All of the following are typical of an individual with bulimia nervosa except
    • A. 

      Severely restricting foods on a regular basis

    • B. 

      Laxative abuse

    • C. 

      Vomiting

    • D. 

      Excessive exercise

  • 48. 
    • A. 

      Triggers are probably unique for each person

    • B. 

      Family environment

    • C. 

      Media

    • D. 

      Society's influence

  • 49. 
    The best way for a woman to reduce her risk of having a baby with a neural tube defect is to begin taking a folate/folic acid supplement as soon as she learns she is pregnant
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 50. 
    The body absorbs vitamin D from sunlight
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 51. 
    Free radical formation can occur as a result of normal cellular metabolism
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 52. 
    Although osteoporosis can lead to painful and debilitating fractures, it is not associated with an increased risk of premature death
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 53. 
    People with bulimia typically purge to compensate for the binge
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 54. 
    • A. 

      A population is capable of producing more offspring than the environment can support

    • B. 

      Individuals that are best adapted to their environment are more likely to survive and reproduce

    • C. 

      A struggle for existence exits among individuals of a population

    • D. 

      Traits acquired during an individuals life are passed on to its offspring

    • E. 

      Individuals of a population are genetically variable

  • 55. 
    __________ arranged organisms into a scale of nature and first stated that organisms changed toward the more complex and perfect, but thought the universe was unchanging
    • A. 

      Dobzhanksy

    • B. 

      Lamarck

    • C. 

      Darwin

    • D. 

      E. darwin

    • E. 

      Aristotle

  • 56. 
    According to lamarcks hypothesis, giraffes have long necks:
    • A. 

      By acquiring them thru natural selection

    • B. 

      By inheriting mutations that resulted in long necks from their parents

    • C. 

      By stretching during their lifetime and passing the trait to their offspring

    • D. 

      Because they were divinely created that way

    • E. 

      By homoplastic inheritance

  • 57. 
    • A. 

      Coevolution

    • B. 

      Convergent evolution

    • C. 

      Punctuated equilibrium

    • D. 

      Natural selection

    • E. 

      Gradualism

  • 58. 
    Numerous domestic dog varieties have been produced primarily by:
    • A. 

      Polyploidy

    • B. 

      Artificial selection

    • C. 

      Hormones

    • D. 

      Mutations

    • E. 

      Natural selection

  • 59. 
    • A. 

      Charles darwin

    • B. 

      Aristotle

    • C. 

      Lamarck

    • D. 

      Charles lyell

    • E. 

      E. darwin

  • 60. 
    Evolution is genetic change in a (an) _______ that occurs over time
    • A. 

      Individual

    • B. 

      Population

    • C. 

      Community

    • D. 

      Ecosystem

    • E. 

      Biosphere

  • 61. 
    _______ had a theory stating that populations have the capability to outgrow their food supply resulting in disease, famine, and competition
    • A. 

      E. darwin

    • B. 

      Aristotle

    • C. 

      Thomas malthus

    • D. 

      Lamarck

    • E. 

      Charles darwin

  • 62. 
    In what year was Darwin's book, On the Origin of Species, published
    • A. 

      1725

    • B. 

      1775

    • C. 

      1709

    • D. 

      1859

    • E. 

      1909

  • 63. 
    The islands where charles darwin observed organisms and compared them:
    • A. 

      Channel

    • B. 

      Falkland

    • C. 

      Galapagos

    • D. 

      Canary

    • E. 

      Virgin

  • 64. 
    On the galapagos islands, charles darwin questioned why
    • A. 

      The island species resembled those on other arid lands

    • B. 

      The island species resembled those from nearby islands

    • C. 

      The island should be inhabited at all since they were 600 mi from South America

    • D. 

      The island species resembled those from S.A.

    • E. 

      The islands species were not unique

  • 65. 
    Food supplies that sustain animal populations have the capacity to increase:
    • A. 

      Exponentially

    • B. 

      By accumulation and deduction

    • C. 

      Rhythmically

    • D. 

      Symmetrically

    • E. 

      Migration rates

  • 66. 
    Evolutionary modifications that improve the survival and reproductive success of an organism are called:
    • A. 

      Mutations

    • B. 

      Vestigial structures

    • C. 

      Homoplastic traits

    • D. 

      Artificial traits

    • E. 

      Adaptations

  • 67. 
    • A. 

      Alfred russel wallace

    • B. 

      Charles lyell

    • C. 

      Gregor mendel

    • D. 

      Thomas malthus

  • 68. 
    During the 1920s to 1940s, biologists combines Mendelian genetics with Darwin's theory to form a unified explanation of evolution, which is referred to as:
    • A. 

      Classical darwinism

    • B. 

      Evolutionary genetics

    • C. 

      Genetic evolution

    • D. 

      Neo-evolution

    • E. 

      The synthetic theory of evolution

  • 69. 
    Perhaps the most direct evidence for evolution comes from
    • A. 

      Biogeography

    • B. 

      Comparative anatomy

    • C. 

      Developmental biology

    • D. 

      The fossil record

    • E. 

      Sedimentary layers in rock

  • 70. 
    • A. 

      An animal with an exoskeleton

    • B. 

      An animal with an endoskeleton

    • C. 

      A marine organism

    • D. 

      An organism in the desert

    • E. 

      An organism living in the lake

  • 71. 
    Paleontologists have pieced together from fossils the evolution of the whale from
    • A. 

      Aquatic reptiles

    • B. 

      4 legged, land dwelling animals

    • C. 

      Sharks

    • D. 

      Porpoises

    • E. 

      Extinct aquatic birds

  • 72. 
    Bird wings and insect wings are considered
    • A. 

      Homologus structures

    • B. 

      Homogenous structures

    • C. 

      Vestigial structures

    • D. 

      Divergent structures

    • E. 

      Analogous structures

  • 73. 
    The front limbs of birds and bats, both wings, are considered to be
    • A. 

      Homologous structures

    • B. 

      Homozygous structures

    • C. 

      Divergent structures

    • D. 

      Vestigial structures

    • E. 

      Analogous structures

  • 74. 
    • A. 

      Biogeography

    • B. 

      Coeveolution

    • C. 

      Convergent evolution

    • D. 

      Homologous evolution

    • E. 

      Natural selection

  • 75. 
    Organs or parts of organs that are seemingly nonfunctional and degenerate, often undersized or lacking some essential part, are referred to as
    • A. 

      Fossilized organs

    • B. 

      Analogous organs

    • C. 

      Mutant organs

    • D. 

      Homologous organs

    • E. 

      Vestigial organs

  • 76. 
    If 2 species have homologous structures, they
    • A. 

      Have the same function

    • B. 

      Are identical in structure

    • C. 

      Are related by a common ancestry

    • D. 

      Have very different ancestors

    • E. 

      Have both the same structure and function

  • 77. 
    Australia has distinctive organisms, such as egg-laying mammals and pouch mammals because they have
    • A. 

      An unusual climate that has triggered natural selection

    • B. 

      Selective conditions that have been relaxed

    • C. 

      Been separated and isolated from other land masses for a long period of time

    • D. 

      Experienced a significantly slower rate of evolutionary change

    • E. 

      Fewer species of organisms than most continents

  • 78. 
    The indigenous plants and animals of the Galapagos islands and cape verde islands :
    • A. 

      Are the same species as those found on the nearby mainland

    • B. 

      Are the same species on the two islands but are different from those on the mainland

    • C. 

      Are the same species on the 2 islands and on the mainland

    • D. 

      Are similar to one another, but quite different from either adjacent mainland

    • E. 

      Resemble the nearest mainland species, but have evolved into new species

  • 79. 
    The study of past and present distributions of organisms on Earth is termed:
    • A. 

      Biodistributeogreophy

    • B. 

      Organismal geography

    • C. 

      Biogeography

    • D. 

      Geographical ecology

    • E. 

      Biological ecology

  • 80. 
    The model that maintains that populations diverge from one another by the slow accumulation of adaptive changes within each population is
    • A. 

      Punctuated equillibrium

    • B. 

      Paedomorphosis

    • C. 

      Hybridization

    • D. 

      Gradualism

  • 81. 
    Neandertals were first discovered near and named for
    • A. 

      The neander river in africa

    • B. 

      The neander valley in india

    • C. 

      The neander moutains in france

    • D. 

      The neander valley in germany

    • E. 

      The neander bay in canada

  • 82. 
    The immediate ancestors of the genus homo belonged to the genus:
    • A. 

      Australopithecus

    • B. 

      Pongo

    • C. 

      Pan

    • D. 

      Sahelanthropus

    • E. 

      Ardipithecus

  • 83. 
    The skeleton nicknamed Lucy is
    • A. 

      Homo habilis

    • B. 

      Australopithicus afarensis

    • C. 

      Australopithicus africanus

    • D. 

      Australopithicus ramidus

    • E. 

      Homo erectus

  • 84. 
    Australopithecines
    • A. 

      Were bipeadal

    • B. 

      Had brains equivalent to those of modern humans

    • C. 

      Had prehensile tails

    • D. 

      Knuckle walked

    • E. 

      Didnt exhibit sexual dimorphism

  • 85. 
    Homo erectus
    • A. 

      Was shorter than homo habilis

    • B. 

      Had a larger brain than homo habilis

    • C. 

      Had more pronounced sexual dimorphism than homo habilis

    • D. 

      Was the first member of the genus homo without pronounced suprarorbital ridges

    • E. 

      Didnt use tools

  • 86. 
    Acheulian tools, hand axes, choppers, borers, scrapers are associated with
    • A. 

      Homo sapiens

    • B. 

      A. africanus

    • C. 

      A. afarensis

    • D. 

      Homo erectus

    • E. 

      Homo habilis

  • 87. 
    You are studying a fossilized primate skull and notice that the foramen magnum is located at the center of the base of the skull.   you conclude that the skull belonged to
    • A. 

      A knuckle walker

    • B. 

      A quadruped

    • C. 

      A bipedal primate

    • D. 

      A brachiator

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 88. 
    • A. 

      Curvature of the spine

    • B. 

      Shorter pelvis

    • C. 

      Alignment of the big toes with the rest of the toes

    • D. 

      Decrease in the length of the legs relative to the arms

    • E. 

      Moving the foramen magnum to the base of the skull

  • 89. 
    The earliest hominids discovered to date belong to the genus:
    • A. 

      Australopithecus

    • B. 

      Homo

    • C. 

      Sapien

    • D. 

      Ardipithecus

    • E. 

      Aegyptopithecus

  • 90. 
    Scientists who study human evolution are called
    • A. 

      Anthropologsits

    • B. 

      Human ecologists

    • C. 

      Anthroecologists

    • D. 

      Paleoanthropologists

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 91. 
    Which of the following is not a characteristic of primates
    • A. 

      Stereoscopic vision

    • B. 

      Grasping hands

    • C. 

      Large brain size

    • D. 

      Freely rotating limbs

    • E. 

      Claws at the tips of digits

  • 92. 
    The key defining characteristic of hominids is:
    • A. 

      The use of tools

    • B. 

      Language

    • C. 

      Opposable thumbs

    • D. 

      Bipedal locomotion

    • E. 

      Loss of supraorbital ridges

  • 93. 
    DNA Sequence analysis indicate that the nearest living relatives to humans are
    • A. 

      Chimpanzees

    • B. 

      Gibbons

    • C. 

      Gorillas

    • D. 

      Lemurs

    • E. 

      Orangutans

  • 94. 
    The Anthropoidea includes
    • A. 

      Monkeys apes and humans

    • B. 

      Humans only

    • C. 

      Apes and monkeys only

    • D. 

      Lemurs galagos and lorises

    • E. 

      Monkeys and lemurs