3S251: Air Force Training Test! Hardest Trivia Quiz

100 Questions | Attempts: 141
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Air Force Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    As the base education and training expert, which is not a training program area where you provide advice and assistance?

    • A.

      Resolving a unit’s lack of training capability.

    • B.

      Resolving scheduling conflicts between units and training providers.

    • C.

      Clarifying and explaining unit training manager (UTM) problem areas.

    • D.

      Resolving career development course (CDC) problems by scheduling one-on-one study sessions with the trainee.

    Correct Answer
    D. Resolving career development course (CDC) problems by scheduling one-on-one study sessions with the trainee.
  • 2. 

    Which agency makes the final approval decision on a candidate’s application for retraining into Air Force specialty code 3S2X1?

    • A.

      Major command.

    • B.

      Base classification section.

    • C.

      Base education and training.

    • D.

      Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center.

    Correct Answer
    D. Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center.
  • 3. 

    Which document is considered a specialized publication?

    • A.

      Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

    • B.

      Standard publication.

    • C.

      Air Force pamphlet.

    • D.

      Periodical.

    Correct Answer
    A. Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
  • 4. 

    Which is an example of recurring publications?

    • A.

      Periodicals

    • B.

      Training materials.

    • C.

      Standard publications.

    • D.

      Specialized publications.

    Correct Answer
    A. Periodicals
  • 5. 

    The purpose of the coordination process of the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) is to make sure

    • A.

      Everyone agrees with what is listed.

    • B.

      All local requirements are identified.

    • C.

      Total user-command mission-related requirements are identified.

    • D.

      The Air Education Training Command (AETC) teaches specific major command (MAJCOM) requirements only.

    Correct Answer
    C. Total user-command mission-related requirements are identified.
  • 6. 

    Which training standard describes a particular duty position?

    • A.

      AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS.

    • B.

      Air Force Job Qualification Standard (AFJQS).

    • C.

      Specialty Training Standard (STS).

    • D.

      Course Training Standard (CTS).

    Correct Answer
    B. Air Force Job Qualification Standard (AFJQS).
  • 7. 

    When coordinating training documents, which type of edit do you perform to make sure the information in a publication is valid, accurate, and up-to-date?

    • A.

      Complete.

    • B.

      Technical.

    • C.

      Composition.

    • D.

      Instructional.

    Correct Answer
    B. Technical.
  • 8. 

    When coordinating training documents, which type of edit do you perform when you check for sentence structure and typographical errors?

    • A.

      Complete.

    • B.

      Technical.

    • C.

      Instructional

    • D.

      Composition.

    Correct Answer
    D. Composition.
  • 9. 

    Which source usually provides the best information for identifying work center tasks?

    • A.

      Interviews.

    • B.

      Questionnaires.

    • C.

      Several sources.

    • D.

      Existing documents.

    Correct Answer
    C. Several sources.
  • 10. 

    What forms the basis for all required unit training?

    • A.

      Core tasks.

    • B.

      Work center tasks.

    • C.

      Unit training requirements.

    • D.

      Major command required tasks.

    Correct Answer
    B. Work center tasks.
  • 11. 

    The specialty training standard (STS) is part of the

    • A.

      AF Form 623A, On-the-Job Training Record.

    • B.

      Air Force Job Qualification Standard (AFJQS).

    • C.

      Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

    • D.

      AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS.

    Correct Answer
    C. Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
  • 12. 

    What qualifications are needed for a person to be considered a subject matter expert (SME)?

    • A.

      Recent job experience and trainer skills.

    • B.

      Field expertise and recent job experience.

    • C.

      Time in grade and supervisory experience

    • D.

      Field expertise and familiarity with the training systems being used.

    Correct Answer
    B. Field expertise and recent job experience.
  • 13. 

    When preparing for a subject matter expert (SME) interview, your first step is to review the

    • A.

      Management engineering team surveys.

    • B.

      Applicable training standards.

    • C.

      Unit’s mission statements.

    • D.

      Unit’s training folders.

    Correct Answer
    C. Unit’s mission statements.
  • 14. 

    The publication that contains information about organizations and their mission is the

    • A.

      Air Force index (AFIND).

    • B.

      Air Force instruction (AFI).

    • C.

      Air Force manual (AFMAN).

    • D.

      Air Force mission directive (AFMD).

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Force mission directive (AFMD).
  • 15. 

    In researching for a subject matter expert (SME) interview, which form identifies civilian personnel duties?

    • A.

      AF Form 623, On-the-Job Training Record.

    • B.

      AF Form 1378, Civilian Personnel Position Description.

    • C.

      AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS.

    • D.

      AF Form 125, Application for Extended Active Duty with the United States Air Force.

    Correct Answer
    B. AF Form 1378, Civilian Personnel Position Description.
  • 16. 

    Questions developed for a subject matter expert (SME) interview should be

    • A.

      Only multiple choice.

    • B.

      Only yes and no answer-type.

    • C.

      Pertinent to the idea and random.

    • D.

      Specific and pertinent to the subject.

    Correct Answer
    D. Specific and pertinent to the subject.
  • 17. 

    When conducting a subject matter expert (SME) interview, you should communicate on a level which

    • A.

      Promotes mutual respect

    • B.

      Signifies the interviewee is inferior

    • C.

      Recognizes the interviewee as a superior.

    • D.

      Implies that the interviewer is superior to the interviewee.

    Correct Answer
    A. Promotes mutual respect
  • 18. 

    When asking questions during a subject matter expert interview (SME), speak

    • A.

      Clearly and forcibly.

    • B.

      Distinctly and clearly.

    • C.

      Forcibly and distinctly.

    • D.

      Distinctly and with the correct pitch.

    Correct Answer
    B. Distinctly and clearly.
  • 19. 

    After asking a question during a subject matter expert (SME) interview, what should you do to show you care about the response?

    • A.

      Listen to the reply.

    • B.

      Establish good eye contact.

    • C.

      Proceed directly to the next question

    • D.

      Mentally formulate another question.

    Correct Answer
    A. Listen to the reply.
  • 20. 

    Which factor concerning subject matter expert (SME) qualification is based on time in the career field and in a particular job?

    • A.

      Time in grade.

    • B.

      Field expertise.

    • C.

      Recent job experience.

    • D.

      Familiarity with the training systems being used.

    Correct Answer
    B. Field expertise.
  • 21. 

    What is the next step after writing the instructions for a questionnaire?

    • A.

      Proof read the instructions yourself.

    • B.

      Rewrite the instructions as necessary

    • C.

      Include the instructions in the questionnaire.

    • D.

      Have someone else read the instructions and provide input.

    Correct Answer
    D. Have someone else read the instructions and provide input.
  • 22. 

    On a research questionnaire replies to what type of question can provide additional information beyond the scope of your question?

    • A.

      Open-ended.

    • B.

      Closed-ended.

    • C.

      Multiple choice.

    • D.

      Fill-in the blank.

    Correct Answer
    A. Open-ended.
  • 23. 

    When developing a master task listing (MTL), to keep it useful, you should remember to

    • A.

      Keep it as simple as possible.

    • B.

      Place it in a computer system.

    • C.

      Use it to the advantage of the designer

    • D.

      Make it complex and technically accurate

    Correct Answer
    A. Keep it as simple as possible.
  • 24. 

    Which training document is prepared by Air Force career field managers (AFCFMs) and describes a particular duty position?

    • A.

      AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS.

    • B.

      AF Form 623a, On-the-Job Training Record–Continuation Sheet.

    • C.

      Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

    • D.

      Air Force Job Qualification Standard (AFJQS).

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Force Job Qualification Standard (AFJQS).
  • 25. 

    When completing a local training standard, what is an observable and measurable unit of work?

    • A.

      Duty.

    • B.

      Task.

    • C.

      Subtask.

    • D.

      Procedural skill.

    Correct Answer
    B. Task.
  • 26. 

    The task title is comprised of a verb and

    • A.

      An object.

    • B.

      A subject.

    • C.

      An adjective.

    • D.

      A preposition.

    Correct Answer
    A. An object.
  • 27. 

    When a question of training capability arises, what base-level tool is available to determine if there are any local personnel who hold the Air Force specialty code (AFSC)?

    • A.

      Training folders.

    • B.

      Personnel records.

    • C.

      Military Personnel data system (MILPDS).

    • D.

      Core automated maintenance system (CAMS).

    Correct Answer
    C. Military Personnel data system (MILPDS).
  • 28. 

    What training status code (TSC) is used when a training capability problem prevents a trainee from progressing in training?

    • A.

      M

    • B.

      P.

    • C.

      R.

    • D.

      S.

    Correct Answer
    B. P.
  • 29. 

    When conducting an initial evaluation on a recent technical school graduate, you should base the evaluation on the tasks listed in the

    • A.

      Report of Task Evaluations.

    • B.

      Air Force Job Qualification Standard (AFJQS).

    • C.

      Career field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

    • D.

      Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS.

    Correct Answer
    C. Career field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
  • 30. 

    After you complete an initial evaluation on a reassigned person, the required tasks the trainee cannot perform are

    • A.

      The individual training requirements

    • B.

      The work center training requirements

    • C.

      Identified on an AF Form 803, Report of Task Evaluations.

    • D.

      Identified on AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS only.

    Correct Answer
    A. The individual training requirements
  • 31. 

    Which document lists projected personnel gains and losses?

    • A.

      AF Form 898.

    • B.

      On-the-job training (OJT) roster.

    • C.

      Unit manning document (UMD).

    • D.

      Unit personnel management roster (UPMR).

    Correct Answer
    C. Unit manning document (UMD).
  • 32. 

    What on-line program allows unit training managers (UTMs) to check Career Development Course (CDC) enrollment data at the Air Force Career Development Academy (AFCDA)?

    • A.

      Air Force Training Record (AFTR).

    • B.

      Military Personnel Data System (MILPDS).

    • C.

      Advanced Distance Learning System (ADLS).

    • D.

      Course Development and Student Administration/Registrar (CDSAR) system.

    Correct Answer
    D. Course Development and Student Administration/Registrar (CDSAR) system.
  • 33. 

    When analyzing failure trends, where can Air Force wide statistics for career development courses (CDCs) be found?

    • A.

      Course Development and Student Administration/Registrar (CDSAR) system.

    • B.

      Air Force Career Development Academy (AFCDA) website

    • C.

      Advanced Distance Learning System (ADLS).

    • D.

      Military Personnel Data System (MILPDS).

    Correct Answer
    B. Air Force Career Development Academy (AFCDA) website
  • 34. 

    When writing an objective, the minimum requirement is that the objective has a

    • A.

      Condition, performance/behavior, and a standard.

    • B.

      Condition and standard

    • C.

      Performance/behavior.

    • D.

      Standard.

    Correct Answer
    A. Condition, performance/behavior, and a standard.
  • 35. 

    Test items are grouped into two types that are identified as

    • A.

      Matching or essay.

    • B.

      Selection or supply.

    • C.

      Selection or completion

    • D.

      Supply or multiple choice

    Correct Answer
    B. Selection or supply.
  • 36. 

    Which type of test questions can you use in the same way as multiple-choice type questions?

    • A.

      Completion.

    • B.

      True-false.

    • C.

      Matching.

    • D.

      Essay.

    Correct Answer
    C. Matching.
  • 37. 

    If a test distinguishes between poor, average, and outstanding trainees, it is called

    • A.

      Comprehensive.

    • B.

      Differentiating.

    • C.

      Reliable.

    • D.

      Valid.

    Correct Answer
    B. Differentiating.
  • 38. 

    A performance test is based directly on

    • A.

      Local requirements

    • B.

      Air Force requirements

    • C.

      MAJCOM requirements

    • D.

      What the trainee is required to perform

    Correct Answer
    D. What the trainee is required to perform
  • 39. 

    The references or materials used by the trainee during the performance test are those

    • A.

      The supervisor determines are needed.

    • B.

      The MAJCOM determines are required

    • C.

      Used by the trainee while learning the objective

    • D.

      The trainee determines are needed to accomplish the task.

    Correct Answer
    C. Used by the trainee while learning the objective
  • 40. 

    When you develop a checklist to use for scoring a performance test, you include those items

    • A.

      The trainee is to be denied

    • B.

      Required for complete performance.

    • C.

      Required by the major command (MAJCOM).

    • D.

      The trainee is allowed enough time to complete during the test.

    Correct Answer
    B. Required for complete performance.
  • 41. 

    A task breakdown indicates that a trainee must use a screwdriver to complete the task. Tool use is identified on the task breakdown as a

    • A.

      Task.

    • B.

      Subtask.

    • C.

      Procedural skill.

    • D.

      Supporting knowledge.

    Correct Answer
    C. Procedural skill.
  • 42. 

    Once you complete the task breakdown, who should review it next?

    • A.

      Newly assigned personnel

    • B.

      Other subject matter experts

    • C.

      Recent technical school graduates

    • D.

      A 5-skill level staff sergeant (SSgt).

    Correct Answer
    B. Other subject matter experts
  • 43. 

    When reviewing a task breakdown to make sure all the steps required to do a task are identified, you are reviewing it for

    • A.

      Accuracy.

    • B.

      Completeness.

    • C.

      Required equipment

    • D.

      Accuracy and completeness

    Correct Answer
    B. Completeness.
  • 44. 

    In a lesson plan, the summary is used to

    • A.

      Motivate the trainee to remember what was taught

    • B.

      Let the trainee know the lesson is finished

    • C.

      Teach new information.

    • D.

      Restate the objective.

    Correct Answer
    D. Restate the objective.
  • 45. 

    One of the more versatile teaching aids available is the

    • A.

      Filmstrip

    • B.

      Television

    • C.

      Chalkboard

    • D.

      Flat picture

    Correct Answer
    C. Chalkboard
  • 46. 

    Which type of training aid provides realism?

    • A.

      Actual equipment

    • B.

      Printed matter.

    • C.

      Filmstrips.

    • D.

      Mockups

    Correct Answer
    A. Actual equipment
  • 47. 

    What is the definition of distance learning (DL)?

    • A.

      Group paced instruction

    • B.

      Individualized instruction

    • C.

      Structured learning that takes place with the physical presence of the instructor.

    • D.

      Structured learning that takes place without the physical presence of the instructor.

    Correct Answer
    D. Structured learning that takes place without the physical presence of the instructor.
  • 48. 

    Which is not considered a form of distance learning (DL)?

    • A.

      Classroom stand-up instruction

    • B.

      Computer-based instruction

    • C.

      Correspondence courses

    • D.

      Satellite broadcasts.

    Correct Answer
    A. Classroom stand-up instruction
  • 49. 

    When you coordinate a training session schedule, the more you involve the supervisors in the process the more

    • A.

      They will accept it.

    • B.

      The program is used

    • C.

      “no-shows” you will have

    • D.

      Time it takes for coordination.

    Correct Answer
    A. They will accept it.
  • 50. 

    Which type of training validation is being conducted when the people who need the training are used in the validation process?

    • A.

      Formal.

    • B.

      Trainee.

    • C.

      Instructional

    • D.

      Subject matter expert (SME).

    Correct Answer
    B. Trainee.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2022
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 27, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Sara
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