3S251: Air Force Training Test! Hardest Trivia Quiz

100 Questions

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Air Force Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    As the base education and training expert, which is not a training program area where you provide advice and assistance?
    • A. 

      Resolving a unit’s lack of training capability.

    • B. 

      Resolving scheduling conflicts between units and training providers.

    • C. 

      Clarifying and explaining unit training manager (UTM) problem areas.

    • D. 

      Resolving career development course (CDC) problems by scheduling one-on-one study sessions with the trainee.

  • 2. 
    Which agency makes the final approval decision on a candidate’s application for retraining into Air Force specialty code 3S2X1?
    • A. 

      Major command.

    • B. 

      Base classification section.

    • C. 

      Base education and training.

    • D. 

      Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center.

  • 3. 
    Which document is considered a specialized publication?
    • A. 

      Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

    • B. 

      Standard publication.

    • C. 

      Air Force pamphlet.

    • D. 

      Periodical.

  • 4. 
    Which is an example of recurring publications?
    • A. 

      Periodicals

    • B. 

      Training materials.

    • C. 

      Standard publications.

    • D. 

      Specialized publications.

  • 5. 
    The purpose of the coordination process of the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) is to make sure
    • A. 

      Everyone agrees with what is listed.

    • B. 

      All local requirements are identified.

    • C. 

      Total user-command mission-related requirements are identified.

    • D. 

      The Air Education Training Command (AETC) teaches specific major command (MAJCOM) requirements only.

  • 6. 
    Which training standard describes a particular duty position?
    • A. 

      AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS.

    • B. 

      Air Force Job Qualification Standard (AFJQS).

    • C. 

      Specialty Training Standard (STS).

    • D. 

      Course Training Standard (CTS).

  • 7. 
    When coordinating training documents, which type of edit do you perform to make sure the information in a publication is valid, accurate, and up-to-date?
    • A. 

      Complete.

    • B. 

      Technical.

    • C. 

      Composition.

    • D. 

      Instructional.

  • 8. 
    When coordinating training documents, which type of edit do you perform when you check for sentence structure and typographical errors?
    • A. 

      Complete.

    • B. 

      Technical.

    • C. 

      Instructional

    • D. 

      Composition.

  • 9. 
    Which source usually provides the best information for identifying work center tasks?
    • A. 

      Interviews.

    • B. 

      Questionnaires.

    • C. 

      Several sources.

    • D. 

      Existing documents.

  • 10. 
    What forms the basis for all required unit training?
    • A. 

      Core tasks.

    • B. 

      Work center tasks.

    • C. 

      Unit training requirements.

    • D. 

      Major command required tasks.

  • 11. 
    The specialty training standard (STS) is part of the
    • A. 

      AF Form 623A, On-the-Job Training Record.

    • B. 

      Air Force Job Qualification Standard (AFJQS).

    • C. 

      Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

    • D. 

      AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS.

  • 12. 
    What qualifications are needed for a person to be considered a subject matter expert (SME)?
    • A. 

      Recent job experience and trainer skills.

    • B. 

      Field expertise and recent job experience.

    • C. 

      Time in grade and supervisory experience

    • D. 

      Field expertise and familiarity with the training systems being used.

  • 13. 
    When preparing for a subject matter expert (SME) interview, your first step is to review the
    • A. 

      Management engineering team surveys.

    • B. 

      Applicable training standards.

    • C. 

      Unit’s mission statements.

    • D. 

      Unit’s training folders.

  • 14. 
    The publication that contains information about organizations and their mission is the
    • A. 

      Air Force index (AFIND).

    • B. 

      Air Force instruction (AFI).

    • C. 

      Air Force manual (AFMAN).

    • D. 

      Air Force mission directive (AFMD).

  • 15. 
    In researching for a subject matter expert (SME) interview, which form identifies civilian personnel duties?
    • A. 

      AF Form 623, On-the-Job Training Record.

    • B. 

      AF Form 1378, Civilian Personnel Position Description.

    • C. 

      AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS.

    • D. 

      AF Form 125, Application for Extended Active Duty with the United States Air Force.

  • 16. 
    Questions developed for a subject matter expert (SME) interview should be
    • A. 

      Only multiple choice.

    • B. 

      Only yes and no answer-type.

    • C. 

      Pertinent to the idea and random.

    • D. 

      Specific and pertinent to the subject.

  • 17. 
    When conducting a subject matter expert (SME) interview, you should communicate on a level which
    • A. 

      Promotes mutual respect

    • B. 

      Signifies the interviewee is inferior

    • C. 

      Recognizes the interviewee as a superior.

    • D. 

      Implies that the interviewer is superior to the interviewee.

  • 18. 
    When asking questions during a subject matter expert interview (SME), speak
    • A. 

      Clearly and forcibly.

    • B. 

      Distinctly and clearly.

    • C. 

      Forcibly and distinctly.

    • D. 

      Distinctly and with the correct pitch.

  • 19. 
    After asking a question during a subject matter expert (SME) interview, what should you do to show you care about the response?
    • A. 

      Listen to the reply.

    • B. 

      Establish good eye contact.

    • C. 

      Proceed directly to the next question

    • D. 

      Mentally formulate another question.

  • 20. 
    Which factor concerning subject matter expert (SME) qualification is based on time in the career field and in a particular job?
    • A. 

      Time in grade.

    • B. 

      Field expertise.

    • C. 

      Recent job experience.

    • D. 

      Familiarity with the training systems being used.

  • 21. 
    What is the next step after writing the instructions for a questionnaire?
    • A. 

      Proof read the instructions yourself.

    • B. 

      Rewrite the instructions as necessary

    • C. 

      Include the instructions in the questionnaire.

    • D. 

      Have someone else read the instructions and provide input.

  • 22. 
    On a research questionnaire replies to what type of question can provide additional information beyond the scope of your question?
    • A. 

      Open-ended.

    • B. 

      Closed-ended.

    • C. 

      Multiple choice.

    • D. 

      Fill-in the blank.

  • 23. 
    When developing a master task listing (MTL), to keep it useful, you should remember to
    • A. 

      Keep it as simple as possible.

    • B. 

      Place it in a computer system.

    • C. 

      Use it to the advantage of the designer

    • D. 

      Make it complex and technically accurate

  • 24. 
    Which training document is prepared by Air Force career field managers (AFCFMs) and describes a particular duty position?
    • A. 

      AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS.

    • B. 

      AF Form 623a, On-the-Job Training Record–Continuation Sheet.

    • C. 

      Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

    • D. 

      Air Force Job Qualification Standard (AFJQS).

  • 25. 
    When completing a local training standard, what is an observable and measurable unit of work?
    • A. 

      Duty.

    • B. 

      Task.

    • C. 

      Subtask.

    • D. 

      Procedural skill.

  • 26. 
    The task title is comprised of a verb and
    • A. 

      An object.

    • B. 

      A subject.

    • C. 

      An adjective.

    • D. 

      A preposition.

  • 27. 
    When a question of training capability arises, what base-level tool is available to determine if there are any local personnel who hold the Air Force specialty code (AFSC)?
    • A. 

      Training folders.

    • B. 

      Personnel records.

    • C. 

      Military Personnel data system (MILPDS).

    • D. 

      Core automated maintenance system (CAMS).

  • 28. 
    What training status code (TSC) is used when a training capability problem prevents a trainee from progressing in training?
    • A. 

      M

    • B. 

      P.

    • C. 

      R.

    • D. 

      S.

  • 29. 
    When conducting an initial evaluation on a recent technical school graduate, you should base the evaluation on the tasks listed in the
    • A. 

      Report of Task Evaluations.

    • B. 

      Air Force Job Qualification Standard (AFJQS).

    • C. 

      Career field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

    • D. 

      Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS.

  • 30. 
    After you complete an initial evaluation on a reassigned person, the required tasks the trainee cannot perform are
    • A. 

      The individual training requirements

    • B. 

      The work center training requirements

    • C. 

      Identified on an AF Form 803, Report of Task Evaluations.

    • D. 

      Identified on AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS only.

  • 31. 
    Which document lists projected personnel gains and losses?
    • A. 

      AF Form 898.

    • B. 

      On-the-job training (OJT) roster.

    • C. 

      Unit manning document (UMD).

    • D. 

      Unit personnel management roster (UPMR).

  • 32. 
    What on-line program allows unit training managers (UTMs) to check Career Development Course (CDC) enrollment data at the Air Force Career Development Academy (AFCDA)?
    • A. 

      Air Force Training Record (AFTR).

    • B. 

      Military Personnel Data System (MILPDS).

    • C. 

      Advanced Distance Learning System (ADLS).

    • D. 

      Course Development and Student Administration/Registrar (CDSAR) system.

  • 33. 
    When analyzing failure trends, where can Air Force wide statistics for career development courses (CDCs) be found?
    • A. 

      Course Development and Student Administration/Registrar (CDSAR) system.

    • B. 

      Air Force Career Development Academy (AFCDA) website

    • C. 

      Advanced Distance Learning System (ADLS).

    • D. 

      Military Personnel Data System (MILPDS).

  • 34. 
    When writing an objective, the minimum requirement is that the objective has a
    • A. 

      Condition, performance/behavior, and a standard.

    • B. 

      Condition and standard

    • C. 

      Performance/behavior.

    • D. 

      Standard.

  • 35. 
    Test items are grouped into two types that are identified as
    • A. 

      Matching or essay.

    • B. 

      Selection or supply.

    • C. 

      Selection or completion

    • D. 

      Supply or multiple choice

  • 36. 
    Which type of test questions can you use in the same way as multiple-choice type questions?
    • A. 

      Completion.

    • B. 

      True-false.

    • C. 

      Matching.

    • D. 

      Essay.

  • 37. 
    If a test distinguishes between poor, average, and outstanding trainees, it is called
    • A. 

      Comprehensive.

    • B. 

      Differentiating.

    • C. 

      Reliable.

    • D. 

      Valid.

  • 38. 
    A performance test is based directly on
    • A. 

      Local requirements

    • B. 

      Air Force requirements

    • C. 

      MAJCOM requirements

    • D. 

      What the trainee is required to perform

  • 39. 
    The references or materials used by the trainee during the performance test are those
    • A. 

      The supervisor determines are needed.

    • B. 

      The MAJCOM determines are required

    • C. 

      Used by the trainee while learning the objective

    • D. 

      The trainee determines are needed to accomplish the task.

  • 40. 
    When you develop a checklist to use for scoring a performance test, you include those items
    • A. 

      The trainee is to be denied

    • B. 

      Required for complete performance.

    • C. 

      Required by the major command (MAJCOM).

    • D. 

      The trainee is allowed enough time to complete during the test.

  • 41. 
    A task breakdown indicates that a trainee must use a screwdriver to complete the task. Tool use is identified on the task breakdown as a
    • A. 

      Task.

    • B. 

      Subtask.

    • C. 

      Procedural skill.

    • D. 

      Supporting knowledge.

  • 42. 
    Once you complete the task breakdown, who should review it next?
    • A. 

      Newly assigned personnel

    • B. 

      Other subject matter experts

    • C. 

      Recent technical school graduates

    • D. 

      A 5-skill level staff sergeant (SSgt).

  • 43. 
    When reviewing a task breakdown to make sure all the steps required to do a task are identified, you are reviewing it for
    • A. 

      Accuracy.

    • B. 

      Completeness.

    • C. 

      Required equipment

    • D. 

      Accuracy and completeness

  • 44. 
    In a lesson plan, the summary is used to
    • A. 

      Motivate the trainee to remember what was taught

    • B. 

      Let the trainee know the lesson is finished

    • C. 

      Teach new information.

    • D. 

      Restate the objective.

  • 45. 
    One of the more versatile teaching aids available is the
    • A. 

      Filmstrip

    • B. 

      Television

    • C. 

      Chalkboard

    • D. 

      Flat picture

  • 46. 
    Which type of training aid provides realism?
    • A. 

      Actual equipment

    • B. 

      Printed matter.

    • C. 

      Filmstrips.

    • D. 

      Mockups

  • 47. 
    What is the definition of distance learning (DL)?
    • A. 

      Group paced instruction

    • B. 

      Individualized instruction

    • C. 

      Structured learning that takes place with the physical presence of the instructor.

    • D. 

      Structured learning that takes place without the physical presence of the instructor.

  • 48. 
    Which is not considered a form of distance learning (DL)?
    • A. 

      Classroom stand-up instruction

    • B. 

      Computer-based instruction

    • C. 

      Correspondence courses

    • D. 

      Satellite broadcasts.

  • 49. 
    When you coordinate a training session schedule, the more you involve the supervisors in the process the more
    • A. 

      They will accept it.

    • B. 

      The program is used

    • C. 

      “no-shows” you will have

    • D. 

      Time it takes for coordination.

  • 50. 
    Which type of training validation is being conducted when the people who need the training are used in the validation process?
    • A. 

      Formal.

    • B. 

      Trainee.

    • C. 

      Instructional

    • D. 

      Subject matter expert (SME).

  • 51. 
    The use of visits, task evaluation reports, and quality control reports allows the training manager to
    • A. 

      Track trainee progression

    • B. 

      Revise the training schedule

    • C. 

      Review the work center training program

    • D. 

      Inform the commander of training program status

  • 52. 
    When a unit training manager goes to the work center, talks with the people about potential training problems, and builds rapport, what type of visit is being conducted?
    • A. 

      Formal visit.

    • B. 

      Informal visit.

    • C. 

      Staff assistance visit

    • D. 

      Job performance evaluation

  • 53. 
    The purpose of reviewing unit statistics during pre-visit preparations for conducting a staff assistance visit (SAV) is to
    • A. 

      Determine which sections need to be visited.

    • B. 

      Get an overall view of the unit training program

    • C. 

      Determine which supervisors are doing their jobs.

    • D. 

      Determine where all the training deficiencies are located.

  • 54. 
    Compiling and reviewing unit statistics during pre-visit preparations for conducting a staff assistance visit (SAV) reveals all of the following except
    • A. 

      Rank/grade of personnel.

    • B. 

      Number of personnel in upgrade training (UGT).

    • C. 

      Percentage of personnel enrolled in career development courses (CDC).

    • D. 

      Percentage of personnel that have not finished the Air Force Training Course (AFTC).

  • 55. 
    When conducting a staff assistance visit (SAV), always begin the visit
    • A. 

      By interviewing the trainees

    • B. 

      With a supervisor’s interview.

    • C. 

      With a review of the task evaluations.

    • D. 

      By briefing the commander and other unit leaders.

  • 56. 
    After the staff assistance visit (SAV), you complete post-visit procedures, which consists of out-briefing appropriate officials, preparing the report, and
    • A. 

      Directing the required actions

    • B. 

      Completing the corrective actions

    • C. 

      Assisting with the corrective actions

    • D. 

      Assigning and suspensing the corrective actions

  • 57. 
    When you conduct an education and training meeting, make sure your training meeting is successful by
    • A. 

      Addressing training problems

    • B. 

      Having a purpose or objective

    • C. 

      Keeping personnel informed about training

    • D. 

      Communicating and keeping an open forum

  • 58. 
    When preparing the education and training meeting minutes, use the date the
    • A. 

      Meeting occurred

    • B. 

      Minutes are typed

    • C. 

      Minutes are signed

    • D. 

      Minutes are distributed

  • 59. 
    How often is the unit training manager (UTM) required to brief the status of training (SOT) to the commander?
    • A. 

      Weekly.

    • B. 

      Monthly

    • C. 

      Quarterly

    • D. 

      Annually

  • 60. 
    Before the status of training (SOT) briefing, the completed slides are sent to all pertinent personnel for
    • A. 

      Formatting

    • B. 

      Review for brevity

    • C. 

      Review for accuracy

    • D. 

      Distribution to the unit

  • 61. 
    The format for the quarterly wing status of training (SOT) visual aids is determined by the
    • A. 

      Wing commander

    • B. 

      Base training manager

    • C. 

      Maintenance training section (MTS).

    • D. 

      Maintenance group commander (MXG/CC).

  • 62. 
    Who in the maintenance complex is required to keep the maintenance group commander informed on the status of training (SOT)?
    • A. 

      Unit education and training manager

    • B. 

      Base education and training office

    • C. 

      Maintenance training section

    • D. 

      Maintenance supervisor

  • 63. 
    Who chairs the maintenance status of training (SOT) meeting?
    • A. 

      Maintenance group commander (MXG/CC)

    • B. 

      Maintenance training section (MTS) chief.

    • C. 

      Base training manager

    • D. 

      Wing commander

  • 64. 
    Unit training managers (UTM) manage the maintenance training program in accordance with what Air Force instructions (AFI)?
    • A. 

      AFI 36–2201 and AFI 36–2650

    • B. 

      AFI 36–2201 and AFI 10–248.

    • C. 

      AFI 36–2201 and AFI 21–101

    • D. 

      AFI 36–2650 and AFI 21–101.

  • 65. 
    What training provides individuals with mission-essential training needed to meet the requirements of an assignment to a long- or short-tour location?
    • A. 

      Contracted

    • B. 

      Enroute.

    • C. 

      Special

    • D. 

      Type 6

  • 66. 
    Enroute training is authorized only for tour lengths less than
    • A. 

      3 years

    • B. 

      12 months

    • C. 

      18 months

    • D. 

      4 years

  • 67. 
    Continuous evaluation throughout the instructional systems design (ISD) process guarantees
    • A. 

      Fewer student critiques

    • B. 

      Quality improvement

    • C. 

      Quality instruction.

    • D. 

      Continuity

  • 68. 
    On what date does the fiscal year begin?
    • A. 

      1 January

    • B. 

      1 September

    • C. 

      30 September

    • D. 

      1 October.

  • 69. 
    What documents should be reviewed prior to submitting a training budget?
    • A. 

      Mission statements, historical data, and AFI 36–2201

    • B. 

      Mission statements, previous budgets, and AFI 36–2201

    • C. 

      Historical data, previous budgets, and applicable publication

    • D. 

      Historical data, mission statements, and applicable publication

  • 70. 
    Who is responsible for using procured funds for training personnel to meet mission needs effectively?
    • A. 

      Wing commander

    • B. 

      Unit commander

    • C. 

      Resource advisor (RA).

    • D. 

      Unit training manager (UTM).

  • 71. 
    Who is responsible for using procured funds for training personnel to meet mission needs effectively?
    • A. 

      Wing commander

    • B. 

      Unit commander

    • C. 

      Resource advisor (RA).

    • D. 

      Unit training manager (UTM).

  • 72. 
    What document, obtained from MilPDS, is used to provide an overall picture of training progress in your unit?
    • A. 

      On-the-job training (OJT) roster.

    • B. 

      Career development course (CDC) report

    • C. 

      AF Form 623, On-the-Job Training Record.

    • D. 

      AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation /Command JQS.

  • 73. 
    Once you identify personnel are demonstrating unsatisfactory progress in upgrade training, what do you look at to determine the deficiency?
    • A. 

      Symptoms that led to the problem.

    • B. 

      What happened?

    • C. 

      Who is at fault?

    • D. 

      Root cause

  • 74. 
    How can a supervisor help a trainee overcome a lack of motivation toward training?
    • A. 

      Promise the trainee a specific job.

    • B. 

      Display a sincere interest in the training.

    • C. 

      Offer rewards and incentives to motivate the trainees.

    • D. 

      Give the trainee a letter of counseling for the lack of motivation

  • 75. 
    Which form do you use to submit an out-of-cycle training request?
    • A. 

      AF Form 403, Request for Special Technical Training

    • B. 

      AF Form 1098, Special Task Certification and Recurring Training.

    • C. 

      AF Form 2096, Classification/On-the-Job Training Action

    • D. 

      AF Form 3933, MAJCOM Mission Training Request

  • 76. 
    Special training, or Type 1 (contract) training, is generally provided to
    • A. 

      Meet unique, one-time requirements that cannot be satisfied by regular training programs.

    • B. 

      Personnel who cannot attend regular training due to scheduling conflicts.

    • C. 

      Give trainees additional classroom instruction

    • D. 

      Colonels and above for one-on-one training.

  • 77. 
    The Customer Service Information process (CSIP) is a method the field can use to identity whether training problems exist. A training problem CSIP can help identify is if the graduate
    • A. 

      Meets the required proficiency levels listed on the specialty training standard (STS).

    • B. 

      Does not meet some proficiency levels for tasks listed on the STS.

    • C. 

      Cannot meet performance requirements on local assigned tasks.

    • D. 

      Recommends deleting training course standards of conduct.

  • 78. 
    How can you determine and verify that your unit has a lack of training capability problem?
    • A. 

      Ask base training to inspect your unit.

    • B. 

      Make sure the technical school curriculum is current.

    • C. 

      Find out if the necessary training can be provided in your unit.

    • D. 

      Find out if the career development course (CDC) and list of training references are current.

  • 79. 
    You have identified and verified a lack of training capability or lack of training capacity in your unit and the problem cannot be solved within your unit. What should you do next?
    • A. 

      Brief the military personnel flight commander

    • B. 

      Ask base education and training for assistance

    • C. 

      Contact the major command functional manager.

    • D. 

      Assemble a tiger team to review the problem and discover solutions

  • 80. 
    Which alternate training resources course usually occurs with the purchase of new equipment by the Air Force?
    • A. 

      Locally developed courses

    • B. 

      Civilian contracted courses

    • C. 

      Formal technical training courses

    • D. 

      Department of Defense (DOD) extension courses

  • 81. 
    Which organizational level is responsible for implementing and carrying out the education services program?
    • A. 

      HQ USAF

    • B. 

      Installation.

    • C. 

      Major command (MAJCOM).

    • D. 

      Department of Defense (DOD).

  • 82. 
    A properly marked catalog of a proprietary school may be displayed in the Education Services Center, provided the school is
    • A. 

      Approved by a State Board of Education

    • B. 

      Certified by a local educational institution

    • C. 

      Nondiscriminating in its treatment of students

    • D. 

      Approved for Veterans Administration (VA) educational benefits

  • 83. 
    What form is used by nonautomated education service centers (ESC) to report academic progress to the Military Personnel Flight (MPF) for Military Personnel Data System (MILPDS) input?
    • A. 

      AF Form 118

    • B. 

      AF Form 186

    • C. 

      AF Form 616

    • D. 

      AF Form 898

  • 84. 
    In the Air Force Automated Education Management System (AFAEMS), the student record (AF Form 186, Individual RecordEducation Services Program) stores the participant’s
    • A. 

      Workplace history.

    • B. 

      Upcoming course schedule.

    • C. 

      Tuition assistance payments

    • D. 

      Education level and progress.

  • 85. 
    Which statement is not a condition for providing tuition assistance (TA) to active duty Airmen?
    • A. 

      Individuals must be provided advisement by an authorized representative

    • B. 

      Individuals must establish eligibility based on service retainability criteria.

    • C. 

      Course must be applicable to the individuals’ planned educational or training goal.

    • D. 

      School offering the course must be a member of the Serviceman’s Opportunity Colleges (SOC) program.

  • 86. 
    Which office approves tuition assistance (TA) for institutions not recognized by a national or regional accrediting body?
    • A. 

      USAF/DPPE.

    • B. 

      MAJCOM TM

    • C. 

      Base training office

    • D. 

      Education service center

  • 87. 
    All active duty officers who receive tuition assistance (TA) incur an Active Duty Service Commitment (ADSC) of how many years from the time of course completion?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 88. 
    Students who receive tuition assistance (TA) to obtain course credit by examination and then fail to take the examination are required to
    • A. 

      Reimburse the TA in all cases

    • B. 

      Reimburse up to 75 percent of the amount of the TA.

    • C. 

      Take the same course in-residence at their own expense

    • D. 

      Reimburse the TA unless waived by the education services officer (ESO).

  • 89. 
    Applications for a fellowship, scholarship, or grant must include a copy of the offer or award (if available), transcripts of previous academic work, a narrative outline of work to be undertaken, and
    • A. 

      A financial statement

    • B. 

      Proof of US citizenship

    • C. 

      A one-page essay of career goals

    • D. 

      Proof of available temporary duty (TDY) funds

  • 90. 
    What is the only federally chartered military institution in the United States that awards college degrees solely to USAF enlisted personnel?
    • A. 

      Air University (AU).

    • B. 

      Community College of the Air Force (CCAF).

    • C. 

      Service members Opportunity Colleges (SOC).

    • D. 

      Air Force Career Development Academy (AFCDA).

  • 91. 
    The mission of the Community College of the Air Force (CCAF) is to offer
    • A. 

      On-duty educational programs needed for career development

    • B. 

      Off-duty educational programs needed for career development

    • C. 

      Nonresident educational programs needed for career development.

    • D. 

      Mission-related academic programs that enhance Air Force readiness skills of enlisted personnel

  • 92. 
    Which is not a goal of the Community College of the Air Force (CCAF)?
    • A. 

      Awareness - Increase recognition of the value of the college.

    • B. 

      Excellence - Conduct the mission of the college by educating and training personnel to high standards

    • C. 

      Resources - Secure adequate staffing, funding, facilities, equipment, systems, and training to administer programs

    • D. 

      Programs - Provide quality credentialing programs responsive to the needs of the Air Force and its enlisted personnel

  • 93. 
    Who has the authority and is responsible for achieving the mission of Community College of the Air Force (CCAF)?
    • A. 

      President of CCAF

    • B. 

      CCAF Policy Council

    • C. 

      CCAF Board of Visitors

    • D. 

      Education Services Officer

  • 94. 
    What is the minimum number of semester hours required for any Community College of the Air Force (CCAF) degree program?
    • A. 

      60

    • B. 

      64

    • C. 

      68

    • D. 

      72

  • 95. 
    • A. 

      Requiring ACT or SAT examinations for admission.

    • B. 

      Recognize the GED high school equivalency certificate/diploma

    • C. 

      Establish competency by nationally-recognized means, such as standardized tests

    • D. 

      Recognize learning gained from specialized training and experience in the Military Services or elsewhere.

  • 96. 
    The purpose of an educational deferment is to prevent
    • A. 

      A delay in assignment

    • B. 

      Extension of the obligated period for degree completion

    • C. 

      Duty requirements for a student during the temporary duty (TDY) period

    • D. 

      Departure of a student on a permanent change of station (PCS) assignment before completing a specific educational program.

  • 97. 
    Which individual would qualify for an educational deferment?
    • A. 

      A person with an established assignment selection date

    • B. 

      A first-term Airman with a total service commitment of 4 years

    • C. 

      A person requesting a deferment to complete a thesis or research paper

    • D. 

      A person completing a second baccalaureate degree that directly applies to the Air Force specialty code (AFSC).

  • 98. 
    The total career Air Force Institute of Technology (AFIT) education for an individual may not exceed
    • A. 

      36 months

    • B. 

      42 months

    • C. 

      48 months.

    • D. 

      54 months

  • 99. 
    Which program is first in the three-tier professional military education (PME) program for officers?
    • A. 

      Air War College (AWC).

    • B. 

      Air Command and Staff (ACSC).

    • C. 

      Squadron Officer School (SOS).

    • D. 

      National Security Management (NSM).

  • 100. 
    Which program is at the top-level in the three-tier professional military education (PME) program for officers?
    • A. 

      Air War College

    • B. 

      Squadron Officer School

    • C. 

      Air Command and Staff College

    • D. 

      National Security Management