2a651d Volume 3

110 Questions

Settings
Please wait...
2a651d Volume 3

Volume 3all units


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    (405) When classified as to structure, which of the following is not a type of an oil pump?
    • A. 

      Gear.

    • B. 

      Gerotor.

    • C. 

      Rotogear.

    • D. 

      Sliding vane.

  • 2. 
    (405) Which type of oil pump consists of a gear and rotor within a housing?
    • A. 

      Gear.

    • B. 

      Gerotor.

    • C. 

      Rotogear.

    • D. 

      Sliding vane.

  • 3. 
    (405) One micron is a metric linear measurement that is equal to
    • A. 

      1/25 inch.

    • B. 

      1/250 inch.

    • C. 

      1/2,500 inch.

    • D. 

      1/25,000 inch.

  • 4. 
    (405) Chip detectors have an electrical connection for making which type of check?
    • A. 

      AC high-voltage.

    • B. 

      DC high-voltage.

    • C. 

      Continuity.

    • D. 

      Polarity.

  • 5. 
    (405) Which type of valve permits oil flow in only one direction?
    • A. 

      Check.

    • B. 

      Relief.

    • C. 

      Bypass.

    • D. 

      Pressurizing.

  • 6. 
    (405) Which type of oil cooler operates on the same principle as a radiator in an automobile?
    • A. 

      Air/oil.

    • B. 

      Fuel.

    • C. 

      Hydraulic.

    • D. 

      Pneumatic.

  • 7. 
    (405) The purpose of an oil-temperature control valve used with air/oil coolers is to
    • A. 

      Control the oil poppet valve.

    • B. 

      Direct oil around the fuel filter.

    • C. 

      Control oil exiting from the cooler.

    • D. 

      Direct oil around or through the cooler.

  • 8. 
    (405) What type of oil seal has soft metal as its basic composition and allows a small amount of airflow to prevent oil seepage?
    • A. 

      Silicone.

    • B. 

      Carbon.

    • C. 

      Synthetic.

    • D. 

      Labyrinth.

  • 9. 
    (405) Use extreme care when working with labyrinth seals because of their
    • A. 

      Soft metal construction; these seals can be damaged easily.

    • B. 

      Soft metal construction; they are sharp and can cut your hand.

    • C. 

      Hard metal construction; they are sharp and can cut your hand.

    • D. 

      Hard metal construction; these seals can damage the bearing races.

  • 10. 
    (405) When an engine is not operating, static preload for a carbon oil seal is provided by
    • A. 

      Air pressure.

    • B. 

      Oil pressure.

    • C. 

      Hydraulic pressure.

    • D. 

      Spring pressure.

  • 11. 
    (405) Carbon seals should be cleaned by soaking them in clean, warm
    • A. 

      JP–4 for 60 minutes.

    • B. 

      PD–680 for 30 minutes.

    • C. 

      Kerosene for 60 minutes.

    • D. 

      Engine lubricating oil for 30 minutes.

  • 12. 
    (406) The F100-PW–100 engine oil pressure varies with N2, engine inlet oil temperature, and
    • A. 

      Oil jet pressure.

    • B. 

      Fan turbine speed.

    • C. 

      Oil nozzle condition.

    • D. 

      Number of oil jets used.

  • 13. 
    (406) What term is used to indicate that air is being mixed with the oil in the oil pump to create pockets of air?
    • A. 

      Aeration.

    • B. 

      Induction.

    • C. 

      Convection.

    • D. 

      Compression.

  • 14. 
    (406) The number1, 4, and 5 bearing compartments are capped on the F100-PW–100 engine oil system. Which oil subsystem (or subsystems) do these compartments breathe through?
    • A. 

      Scavenge only.

    • B. 

      Breather only.

    • C. 

      Scavenge and pressure.

    • D. 

      Scavenge and breather.

  • 15. 
    (406) Which type of oil system stores the oil in a tank fitted to the side of the engine?
    • A. 

      Dry sump.

    • B. 

      Wet sump.

    • C. 

      Cold tank.

    • D. 

      Hot tank.

  • 16. 
    (406) Which type of oil system design places the oil cooler in the pressure subsystem?
    • A. 

      Cold tank.

    • B. 

      Wet tank.

    • C. 

      Dry tank.

    • D. 

      Hot tank.

  • 17. 
    (406) Which type of oil tank design do most fighter aircraft engines incorporate to help with weight savings?
    • A. 

      Wet tank.

    • B. 

      Dry tank.

    • C. 

      Hot tank.

    • D. 

      Cold tank.

  • 18. 
    (407) On an F100 engine, the breather pressurizing valve is internally mounted in the
    • A. 

      Oil tank.

    • B. 

      Gearbox.

    • C. 

      Oil filter.

    • D. 

      Oil pump.

  • 19. 
    (407) If the red button on an F100-PW–220 engine oil filter pops out and remains extended, the
    • A. 

      Button is defective.

    • B. 

      Scheduled oil change is due.

    • C. 

      Design ambient pressure has been exceeded.

    • D. 

      Design pressure differential has been exceeded.

  • 20. 
    (407) On an F100-PW–220 engine, the air/oil coolers are mounted on the fan duct and use
    • A. 

      Secondary fan airflow as a coolant.

    • B. 

      Secondary fan airflow as an oil heater.

    • C. 

      Primary core engine airflow as a coolant.

    • D. 

      Primary core engine airflow as an oil heater.

  • 21. 
    (407) On an F100-PW–220 engine, what component permits oil to bypass the oil filter during cold weather starts?
    • A. 

      Oil relief valve.

    • B. 

      Filter poppet valve.

    • C. 

      Oil pressure transmitter tap.

    • D. 

      Filter assembly bypass valve.

  • 22. 
    (407) On an F100-PW–220 engine, which bearing compartments drain into the gearbox by the tower shaft cavity?
    • A. 

      1 and 2

    • B. 

      1 and 3

    • C. 

      2 and 3

    • D. 

      2 and 4

  • 23. 
    (408) How does the AFTLA obtain oil samples for analysis?
    • A. 

      Upon request from the depot.

    • B. 

      Automatically from the depot.

    • C. 

      Upon request from the manufacturer.

    • D. 

      Automatically from the manufacturer.

  • 24. 
    (408) The hazardous property of modern jet engine oil the journeyman must be aware of is
    • A. 

      Toxicity.

    • B. 

      Viscosity.

    • C. 

      Alkalinity.

    • D. 

      Corrosiveness.

  • 25. 
    (408) Which action concerning open oil containers is correct?
    • A. 

      Dispose of any portion not immediately used.

    • B. 

      Store remaining portion immediately after use.

    • C. 

      Dispose of any portion not used within 60 days.

    • D. 

      Store remaining portion in clearly marked containers.

  • 26. 
    (409) Through the use of spectrometric oil analysis, aircraft will have a higher in-commission rate because there will be
    • A. 

      More oil sampling.

    • B. 

      More engine removals.

    • C. 

      Less unnecessary maintenance.

    • D. 

      Less wear metal found in the oil.

  • 27. 
    (409) For bases that do not have an OAP laboratory, who designates the facility to which oil samples are sent?
    • A. 

      Base commander.

    • B. 

      Unit commander.

    • C. 

      Program manager.

    • D. 

      Unit safety officer.

  • 28. 
    (409) Who is responsible for ensuring that the OAP operates properly?
    • A. 

      Project monitor.

    • B. 

      Logistics commander.

    • C. 

      Propulsion flight chief.

    • D. 

      Laboratory supervisor.

  • 29. 
    (409) What are microscopic metallic particles in the oil system called?
    • A. 

      Wear metals.

    • B. 

      Friction metals.

    • C. 

      Precious metals.

    • D. 

      Transformation metals.

  • 30. 
    (409) Increased friction between moving parts in the oil system
    • A. 

      Accelerates the rate of wear, decreasing the production of wear metal particles.

    • B. 

      Accelerates the rate of wear, increasing the production of wear metal particles.

    • C. 

      Slows the rate of wear, decreasing the production of wear metal particles.

    • D. 

      Slows the rate of wear, increasing the production of wear metal particles.

  • 31. 
    (409) During an OAP sample collection, using your mouth to draw oil up into the plastic tube could result in
    • A. 

      Insufficient oil collection.

    • B. 

      Contaminated samples.

    • C. 

      A minor stomach ache.

    • D. 

      Paralysis or death.

  • 32. 
    (409) Before taking an oil sample from a drain, drain enough fluid into a container in order to
    • A. 

      Check for large particles.

    • B. 

      Check the drain operation.

    • C. 

      Drain off uncirculated oil.

    • D. 

      Drain off water and sludge.

  • 33. 
    (409) Oil sampling intervals should not vary by more than
    • A. 

      5%

    • B. 

      10%

    • C. 

      15%

    • D. 

      20%

  • 34. 
    (409) The SEM/EDX analysis process differs from conventional oil analysis in that the SEM/EDX
    • A. 

      Samples must be sent off-site for analysis.

    • B. 

      Particles must be oil free for analysis to take place.

    • C. 

      Samples can only be obtained in an intermediate maintenance shop.

    • D. 

      Provides results only concerning equipment and components condition.

  • 35. 
    (410) What is the term for the process of producing voltage in a conductor when it passes through a magnetic field?
    • A. 

      Static.

    • B. 

      Electronics.

    • C. 

      Mutual induction.

    • D. 

      Electromagnetic induction.

  • 36. 
    (410) The difference between DC and AC is that DC
    • A. 

      Has a constant polarity; AC changes direction at regular intervals.

    • B. 

      Fluctuates from negative to positive values; AC stays at a constant positive value.

    • C. 

      Differs from AC only in the way current is used; otherwise there is no real difference.

    • D. 

      Is produced directly from a generator; AC is produced by an alternator after the generator.

  • 37. 
    (410) On a simple AC generator, which item takes the current from the slip rings to operate the electrical device?
    • A. 

      Brushes.

    • B. 

      Commutator.

    • C. 

      Rotating loop.

    • D. 

      Permanent magnet.

  • 38. 
    (410) Which part of a generator acts as an automatic switching device, changing alternating current to direct current?
    • A. 

      Brushes.

    • B. 

      Slip rings.

    • C. 

      Commutator.

    • D. 

      Permanent magnet.

  • 39. 
    (411) One function of the CSD governor system is to
    • A. 

      Sense the engine drive RPM required to control the CSD.

    • B. 

      Disconnect the generator from the engine in event of a failure.

    • C. 

      Equalize the load between generators operating in parallel.

    • D. 

      Maintain a constant 400-volt output.

  • 40. 
    (411) Which component ensures the CSD output speed is always at the desired RPM to adjust and maintain the desired 400 Hz?
    • A. 

      Wobbler control.

    • B. 

      Pump and motor unit.

    • C. 

      Variable pump wobbler.

    • D. 

      Frequency and load controller.

  • 41. 
    (411) What provides the PTO shaft that is used to drive the CSD?
    • A. 

      Engine fittings.

    • B. 

      Engine adapter.

    • C. 

      Aircraft fittings.

    • D. 

      Aircraft adapter.

  • 42. 
    (412) How are the thermocouples connected in an averaging type of EGT circuit?
    • A. 

      Series.

    • B. 

      Lateral.

    • C. 

      Parallel.

    • D. 

      Series-parallel.

  • 43. 
    (412) The slide-type resistor in the EGT circuit is used to
    • A. 

      Adjust the thermocouples.

    • B. 

      Calibrate the EGT indicator in the flight station.

    • C. 

      Compensate for minor voltage buildups in the circuit.

    • D. 

      Compensate for differences in temperatures at altitude.

  • 44. 
    (412) What is the primary input power to the main ignition system?
    • A. 

      28 VAC.

    • B. 

      28 VDC.

    • C. 

      120 VAC.

    • D. 

      120 VDC.

  • 45. 
    (413) How many sets of imbedded magnets does the rotor contain?
    • A. 

      One.

    • B. 

      Two.

    • C. 

      Three.

    • D. 

      Four.

  • 46. 
    (413) What does the EGT/T5.6 thermocouple consist of?
    • A. 

      Alumel.

    • B. 

      Chromel.

    • C. 

      Both alumel and chromel.

    • D. 

      None of these.

  • 47. 
    (414) Which unit of an AC ignition system develops 20,000 volts?
    • A. 

      Inverter.

    • B. 

      Capacitor.

    • C. 

      Generator.

    • D. 

      Transformer.

  • 48. 
    (414) A simple DC ignition system consists of vibrator,
    • A. 

      AC to DC converter, transformer, and igniter plugs.

    • B. 

      Igniter plugs, and AC to DC converter.

    • C. 

      AC to DC converter, and transformer.

    • D. 

      Igniter plugs, and transformer.

  • 49. 
    (415) How many independent circuits are within an F100-PW–100 engine ignition system?
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Three

    • D. 

      Five

  • 50. 
    (415) An F100-PW–100 engine augmentor igniter plug ionizes at a minimum rate of how many sparks per second?
    • A. 

      25

    • B. 

      30

    • C. 

      45

    • D. 

      90

  • 51. 
    (416) Which statement best describes the air turbine (impingement) starter?
    • A. 

      Requires high-pressure, low-volume air-flow to produce torque necessary for engine start.

    • B. 

      Has the advantages of less weight and fewer moving parts than other starters.

    • C. 

      Uses a starter-clutch assembly to disengage the starter from the engine.

    • D. 

      Is mounted on the engine accessory drive.

  • 52. 
    (416) The two air source requirements for a pneumatic starter to operate properly are sufficient
    • A. 

      Volume and velocity.

    • B. 

      Volume and pressure.

    • C. 

      Temperature and velocity.

    • D. 

      Temperature and pressure.

  • 53. 
    (417) The JFS is basically a
    • A. 

      Piston-type starter.

    • B. 

      Pneumatic-type starter.

    • C. 

      Small gas turbine engine.

    • D. 

      Cartridge-pneumatic starter.

  • 54. 
    (417) Which item initially rotates the JFS?
    • A. 

      ESS PTO.

    • B. 

      Electric motor mounted on the aircraft.

    • C. 

      Hydraulic motor.

    • D. 

      Engine PTO.

  • 55. 
    (417) Which type of combustion chamber does the JFS use?
    • A. 

      Can.

    • B. 

      Annular.

    • C. 

      Can-annular.

    • D. 

      Restricted flow.

  • 56. 
    (417) What engine section houses the JFS combustion section?
    • A. 

      Geartrain.

    • B. 

      Turbine plenum.

    • C. 

      Generator control unit.

    • D. 

      Gas generator and accessory drive assembly.

  • 57. 
    (417) Which item on the JFS provides pads for mounting the fuel atomizer assembly?
    • A. 

      Stator ring.

    • B. 

      Turbine plenum.

    • C. 

      Exhaust housing.

    • D. 

      Generator assembly.

  • 58. 
    (418) The F-15 secondary power system does not include the
    • A. 

      JFS.

    • B. 

      CGB.

    • C. 

      CSD.

    • D. 

      AMAD.

  • 59. 
    (418) Which component provides an electrical safety cutoff for the JFS if the power turbine accelerates to a 110 percent overspeed condition?
    • A. 

      Overspeed clutch.

    • B. 

      Overrunning clutch.

    • C. 

      Three-speed switch.

    • D. 

      Power turbine overspeed switch.

  • 60. 
    (418) On the F-15 secondary power system CGB, how are the isolation decouplers extended?
    • A. 

      Manually.

    • B. 

      Electrically.

    • C. 

      Hydraulically.

    • D. 

      By spring pressure.

  • 61. 
    (418) Oil is supplied to the F-15 JFS through the
    • A. 

      Oil tank.

    • B. 

      Aircraft filter.

    • C. 

      JFS oil system.

    • D. 

      CGB oil system.

  • 62. 
    (418) On an F-15, the power to start the engines begins with the JFS and continues through the CGB to the
    • A. 

      PTO.

    • B. 

      ADG.

    • C. 

      PMG.

    • D. 

      AMAD.

  • 63. 
    (418) On the F-15 secondary power system, what is used to stop the JFS starting cycle when the aircraft engine has accelerated to starter cutout speed?
    • A. 

      Four-speed cutout switch.

    • B. 

      Manual decoupler.

    • C. 

      Hydraulic decoupler.

    • D. 

      50-percent engine cutout switch assembly.

  • 64. 
    (419) Discharge air used for aircraft engine anti-icing to heat-critical areas is taken from which engine area?
    • A. 

      Compressor.

    • B. 

      Combustion.

    • C. 

      Augmentor.

    • D. 

      Turbine.

  • 65. 
    (419) What is one of the first indications of ice formation at aircraft engine inlets?
    • A. 

      Compressor stall.

    • B. 

      Variable nozzle closes.

    • C. 

      Decrease in exhaust gas temperature.

    • D. 

      Increase in RPM.

  • 66. 
    (420) On an F110-GE–129 engine, the anti-icing system prevents detrimental formation and accumulation of ice on front frame struts, forward centerbody, and
    • A. 

      Ring cowl.

    • B. 

      Fan inlet guide vane flaps.

    • C. 

      Variable exhaust nozzle flaps.

    • D. 

      C-D duct.

  • 67. 
    (420) On an F110-GE–129 engine, compressor bleed air is used for anti-icing, customer bleed, and
    • A. 

      VSV actuator control.

    • B. 

      IGV actuator control.

    • C. 

      Low-pressure turbine cooling functions.

    • D. 

      Main engine fuel pump operation.

  • 68. 
    (421) What law does the C-D supersonic inlet use to slow down the airflow?
    • A. 

      Ohm’s law.

    • B. 

      Bernoulli’s law.

    • C. 

      Newton’s first law.

    • D. 

      Newton’s third law.

  • 69. 
    (421) The bleed air system is different from the variable vane system in that it
    • A. 

      Allows airflow in only one direction.

    • B. 

      Bleeds off air before it enters the engine.

    • C. 

      Prevents airflow from entering the engine.

    • D. 

      Bleeds off air after it has entered the engine.

  • 70. 
    (421) The compressor bleed system reduces the probability of compressor stall in a dual-rotor engine by
    • A. 

      Reducing the amount of air available to the N2 compressor.

    • B. 

      Reducing the amount of air available to the N1 compressor.

    • C. 

      Increasing the amount of air delivered to the N2 compressor.

    • D. 

      Increasing the amount of air delivered by the N1 compressor.

  • 71. 
    (422) The cooling air for turbine nozzle vanes comes from
    • A. 

      All stages of the compressor.

    • B. 

      Just the middle of the compressor.

    • C. 

      The last few stages of the compressor.

    • D. 

      The first few stages of the compressor.

  • 72. 
    (422) Once the cooling airflow has done its job of cooling the turbine section, where does it go?
    • A. 

      Through a heat exchanger.

    • B. 

      Out the turbine case bleed holes.

    • C. 

      Into the gas stream to exit the engine.

    • D. 

      Back to the compressor to be used again.

  • 73. 
    (423) The F110-GE–129 engine controls airflow through the engine with the
    • A. 

      VSV only.

    • B. 

      VSVs and variable bleed valves.

    • C. 

      IGV only.

    • D. 

      IGVs and VSVs.

  • 74. 
    (423) Below what percentage of core engine speed are the VSV fully closed (cambered) on an F110-GE–129 engine?
    • A. 

      45%

    • B. 

      50%

    • C. 

      55%

    • D. 

      60%

  • 75. 
    (423) On an F110-GE–129 engine, the MEC schedules the variable vane positions by the
    • A. 

      Sea-level temperature and actual engine RPM.

    • B. 

      Turbine discharge pressure and compressor inlet temperature.

    • C. 

      Fan discharge temperature and core engine speed.

    • D. 

      Compressor inlet pressure and turbine speed.

  • 76. 
    (423) What is the function of the flexible feedback cable on the F110-GE–129 engine variable vane system?
    • A. 

      Position the bleed valves in response to differential pressure through the fuel gear motor.

    • B. 

      Position the bleed valves during acceleration and low RPM.

    • C. 

      Transmit a mechanical feedback signal to the variable nozzle control.

    • D. 

      Transmit a mechanical feedback signal to the main engine control.

  • 77. 
    (424) What component in the F100 monitoring system provides the operator information concerning how much (in percentage) the augmentor nozzle is opened or closed?
    • A. 

      Oil pressure transmitter.

    • B. 

      Engine Diagnostic Unit.

    • C. 

      Fan turbine Inlet Temperature.

    • D. 

      Augmentor Nozzle positioning indicator.

  • 78. 
    (424) Where is the fuel flow transmitter located in the F-15?
    • A. 

      In the engine bay.

    • B. 

      Left front side of gearbox.

    • C. 

      Right front side of gearbox.

    • D. 

      Attached to the fuel control.

  • 79. 
    (425) What component in the F110 monitoring system performs diagnostics and fault isolates to line replaceable units?
    • A. 

      Full Authority Digital Electronic Control.

    • B. 

      Engine Monitoring System Computer.

    • C. 

      Central Air Data Computer.

    • D. 

      Ground Station Unit.

  • 80. 
    (426) What component or components make up the engine monitoring system on the F119 engine itself?
    • A. 

      DEC.

    • B. 

      CEDU.

    • C. 

      FADEC.

    • D. 

      CEDU and FADEC.

  • 81. 
    (426) What component in the F119 engine monitoring system processes and stores vibration signals, oil debris signals, oil level signals, condition monitoring and fault information data in resident memory?
    • A. 

      CEDU.

    • B. 

      FADEC.

    • C. 

      Main engine control.

    • D. 

      Main Fuel Throttle Valve.

  • 82. 
    (427) What is the basic function of an augmentor (afterburner) when it is not operating?
    • A. 

      Act as the basic engine tailpipe.

    • B. 

      Control engine discharge pressure.

    • C. 

      Aid in control of engine oil pressure.

    • D. 

      Help to control pressure and N2 speed.

  • 83. 
    (427) What is used to open and close flap-type and iris-type variable-exhaust nozzle systems?
    • A. 

      Oil pressure for both types.

    • B. 

      Air pressure for both types.

    • C. 

      Oil pressure for the flap-type and fuel pressure for the iris-type.

    • D. 

      Fuel pressure for the flap-type and air pressure for the iris-type.

  • 84. 
    (427) The most important advantage of using a C-D nozzle system is the
    • A. 

      Need for bleed valves is eliminated.

    • B. 

      Need for inlet guide vanes is eliminated.

    • C. 

      Life expectancies of the engine and augmentor are increased.

    • D. 

      Pilot has more control of engine thrust throughout all operational ranges.

  • 85. 
    (427) What component heats augmentor fuel to provide better vaporization and combustion?
    • A. 

      Fuel control.

    • B. 

      Fuel spraybars.

    • C. 

      Fuel manifolds.

    • D. 

      Fuel/oil cooler.

  • 86. 
    (427) Which system employs a small combustion chamber to ignite the fuel in the augmentor (afterburner) duct?
    • A. 

      Hot streak.

    • B. 

      Torch igniter.

    • C. 

      Fuel injection.

    • D. 

      Pilot burner ring.

  • 87. 
    (427) What are the two main types of augmentor (afterburner) ignition systems?
    • A. 

      Torch igniter and hot streak.

    • B. 

      Hot streak and fuel injection.

    • C. 

      Pilot burner ring and hot streak.

    • D. 

      Torch igniter and pilot burner ring.

  • 88. 
    (428) On the F100 engine augmentor, the divergent and convergent nozzle segments complete a four-bar linkage arrangement that controls the
    • A. 

      Convergent exhaust nozzle control.

    • B. 

      Aj.

    • C. 

      Afterburner fuel control.

    • D. 

      Unified fuel control.

  • 89. 
    (428) The F100 engine augmentor’s primary nozzle actuator is driven by cables from the
    • A. 

      T5 amplifier.

    • B. 

      Unified control.

    • C. 

      Afterburner fuel control.

    • D. 

      CENC.

  • 90. 
    (428) The F100 engine augmentor’s exhaust nozzle is variable to control engine
    • A. 

      N2 compressor rotor speed.

    • B. 

      Thrust and fan stall margin.

    • C. 

      Fan stall margin only.

    • D. 

      Thrust only.

  • 91. 
    (429) What component in the electronic/mechanical controls is a fuel cooled digital computer that provides signals to the MFC for control of the front compressor speed (N1), rear compressor speed (N2), engine airflow, combustion chamber pressure (Pb4) and FTIT.
    • A. 

      MFC.

    • B. 

      DEEC.

    • C. 

      Stator generator.

    • D. 

      Throttle quadrant.

  • 92. 
    (401)What is the composition of JP-8 Fuel?
    • A. 

      Gasoline and diesel fuel

    • B. 

      Gasoline and kerosene

    • C. 

      Diesel fuel and kerosene

    • D. 

      Diesel fuel and aviation gasoline

  • 93. 
    (401) At room temperature, how many times longer will it take water to settle out of JP–8 than out of gasoline?
    • A. 

      Two

    • B. 

      Three

    • C. 

      Four

    • D. 

      Five

  • 94. 
    (401) Jet aircraft operating at moderately high altitudes increase the fuel system’s susceptibility to an icing condition, further aggravated by the
    • A. 

      Lower viscosity of jet fuels.

    • B. 

      Lower viscosity of free water.

    • C. 

      Higher viscosity of jet fuels.

    • D. 

      Higher viscosity of free water.

  • 95. 
    (402) The main fuel control allows the jet engine to safely accelerate, reducing the possibility of
    • A. 

      Flameout.

    • B. 

      Turbine seizure.

    • C. 

      Compressor shift.

    • D. 

      Overtemperature.

  • 96. 
    (402) During a visual inspection, how can you tell when a fuel filter is clogged?
    • A. 

      A green flag pops out of the filter.

    • B. 

      Fuel pressure from the fuel pump is low.

    • C. 

      A differential pressure indicator is actuated.

    • D. 

      There is no way to tell without disassembling the filter.

  • 97. 
    (403) On a dual-spool, axial-flow engine, what controls thrust production of the engine?
    • A. 

      Regulating engine RPM.

    • B. 

      Regulating compressor discharge pressure.

    • C. 

      Controlling turbine exhaust pressure.

    • D. 

      Controlling turbine inlet temperature.

  • 98. 
    (403) During jet engine deceleration, a hydromechanical fuel control schedules fuel flow as a function of
    • A. 

      RPM

    • B. 

      Inlet temperature

    • C. 

      Inlet pressure

    • D. 

      Burner pressure

  • 99. 
    (403) What type of fuel control uses items such as thermocouples, relays, amplifiers, and solenoids to help control a jet engine?
    • A. 

      Electrohydromechanical.

    • B. 

      Hydromechanical.

    • C. 

      Fuel injection.

    • D. 

      Pneumatic.

  • 100. 
    (403) Which term describes a jet engine fuel metering device that is really two fuel controls in one component?
    • A. 

      Unified.

    • B. 

      Combined.

    • C. 

      Bimechanical.

    • D. 

      Electrosecondary.

  • 101. 
    (403) The F100 UFC senses certain variables from the engine through the use of
    • A. 

      A closed loop design.

    • B. 

      An open circuit design.

    • C. 

      The feedback control unit.

    • D. 

      A direct mechanical connection to all engine sensors.

  • 102. 
    (403) If the safety seals on a fuel system component are broken or removed, and you suspect the factory adjustment was altered, you should
    • A. 

      Continue to keep the component in service if it is documented as a red diagonal on Form 781A, Hydromechanical Fuel Control.

    • B. 

      Forward the component to the authorized depot for reflow and resealing.

    • C. 

      Keep the component in service to meet the mission.

    • D. 

      Adjust and reseal the component.

  • 103. 
    (403) Calibration and/or adjustment screws that require setting during an engine trim procedure must be
    • A. 

      Treated with a thread locking compound.

    • B. 

      Safety sealed and/or lockwired.

    • C. 

      Die marked.

    • D. 

      Replaced.

  • 104. 
    (404) When in the primary mode, what controls the operation of the F100-PW–220 engine?
    • A. 

      PMG

    • B. 

      MEC

    • C. 

      DEEC

    • D. 

      TSFC

  • 105. 
    (404) On an F100-PW–220 engine, the DEEC is cooled by
    • A. 

      Oil

    • B. 

      Fuel

    • C. 

      Ram air

    • D. 

      Hydraulic fluid

  • 106. 
    (404) For actuation of the variable vane systems on an F100-PW–220 engine, the MFC provides both the CIVV and
    • A. 

      Variable exhaust nozzle actuators with pneumatic pressure.

    • B. 

      Variable exhaust nozzle actuators with fuel pressure.

    • C. 

      Rear compressor variable vane actuators with pneumatic (air) pressure.

    • D. 

      Rear compressor variable vane actuators with fuel pressure.

  • 107. 
    (404) Which F100-PW–220 engine fuel system component controls pressurization of the core engine fuel system?
    • A. 

      Fuel nozzle.

    • B. 

      P&D valve.

    • C. 

      N2 sensor.

    • D. 

      Tt 2.5 sensor.

  • 108. 
    (404) Which stage of compressor air drives the augmenter fuel pump on an F100-PW–220 engine?
    • A. 

      7th.

    • B. 

      10th.

    • C. 

      13th.

    • D. 

      14th.

  • 109. 
    (404) On the F100-PW–220 engine, which component controls the augmentor fuel control?
    • A. 

      Fuel pump.

    • B. 

      Fuel pump controller.

    • C. 

      Signature elimination probe.

    • D. 

      DEEC.

  • 110. 
    (404) Core engine fuel flow sequence on an F100-PW–220 engine starts at the main fuel pump and then goes through the
    • A. 

      Fuel/oil cooler, P&D, MFC, and fuel nozzles.

    • B. 

      AFC, AFP, fuel/oil cooler, P&D, and fuel nozzles.

    • C. 

      MFC, fuel/oil cooler, P&D, and fuel nozzles.

    • D. 

      AFP, AFC, fuel/oil cooler, P&D, and fuel nozzles.