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44 Questions | Total Attempts: 35

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Medical Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    CNS depression would lead to a problem with:
    • A. 

      perfusion

    • B. 

      Oxygenation

    • C. 

      Diffusion

    • D. 

      Ventilation

  • 2. 
    While you are gathering a history of an asthma patient she tells you, "they had to intubate me last time this happened" this information is:
    • A. 

      An accurate indicator of severe pulmonary disease

    • B. 

      Not related to future ventilation needs

    • C. 

      Pertinent to theis event; you should intubate this patient immediately

    • D. 

      Important to the hospital staff but not important in the prehospital environment

  • 3. 
    The term "blue bloater" is used to describe which of the following conditions:
    • A. 

      Asthma

    • B. 

      Emphysema

    • C. 

      Chronic bronchitis

    • D. 

      Pneumonia

  • 4. 
    Drugs like albuterol help asthma patients by:
    • A. 

      Increasing mucus production

    • B. 

      Preventing atelectasis

    • C. 

      Increasing surfactant production

    • D. 

      Dilating the bronchi

  • 5. 
    While treating a patient with COPD, she advises you not to adminsiter oxygen because she breathes on the basis of her "hypoxic drive". Her pulse oximety reading is 85%. You should:
    • A. 

      Administer oxygen via a simple mask at 4 to 6 L per minute

    • B. 

      Administer oxygen via a nasal cannula at 2 L per minute

    • C. 

      Adminsiter high-flow oxygen and be prepared to ventilate if neccessary

    • D. 

      Withhold oxygen therapy

  • 6. 
    Which adventitious lung sounds are most commonly associated with asthma?
    • A. 

      Rales (crackles)

    • B. 

      Rhonchi

    • C. 

      Stridor

    • D. 

      Wheezes

  • 7. 
    One factor that may help differentiate pneumonia from COPD is the presence of:
    • A. 

      Productive cough

    • B. 

      Fever

    • C. 

      Rhonchi

    • D. 

      Rales

  • 8. 
    PEEP is used to:
    • A. 

      Keep alveoli open

    • B. 

      Ventilate patients with pneumothorax

    • C. 

      Overcome upper airway obstruction

    • D. 

      Open constricted bronchi

  • 9. 
    Air entering the pleural space that is not related to trauma is known as:
    • A. 

      Tension pneumothorax

    • B. 

      Medical pneumothorax

    • C. 

      Simple pneumothorax

    • D. 

      Spontaneous pneumothorax

  • 10. 
    Blood supply to the brain is supplied by the:
    • A. 

      Facial arteries

    • B. 

      Subclavian atreries

    • C. 

      External carotid arteries

    • D. 

      Internal carotid arteries

  • 11. 
    Cerebral perfusion pressure is determined by:
    • A. 

      Mean arterial pressure and intracranial pressure

    • B. 

      Diastolic blood pressure and intracranial pressure

    • C. 

      Intracranial pressure and cerebral blood flow

    • D. 

      Cerebral blood flow and systolic blood pressure

  • 12. 
    If a patient is hyperventilating, you would expect blood flow to the brain to:
    • A. 

      Not be affected

    • B. 

      Moderately increase

    • C. 

      Decrease

    • D. 

      Not be affected

  • 13. 
    A suspected stroke patient is exhibiting decorticate posturing and sluggish pupil reaction time. Ventilation for this patient should be:
    • A. 

      Aimed at maintaining a PCO2 of 30mm Hg

    • B. 

      Withheld, allowing the carbon dioxide levels to return to normal

    • C. 

      Increased until the patient stops posturing

    • D. 

      Continued at a rate of more than 40 breaths per minute

  • 14. 
    Cushings triad consists of:
    • A. 

      Decreased blood pressure, pulse, and respiratory rate

    • B. 

      Elevated blood pressure, decreased pulse and respiratory rate

    • C. 

      Decreased blood pressure, increased pulse and respiratory rate

    • D. 

      Elevated blood pressure, pulse and respiratory rate

  • 15. 
    The single best indicator of a serious neurological condition is:
    • A. 

      Retrograde amnesia

    • B. 

      Increased intracranial pressure

    • C. 

      Hypoxia

    • D. 

      Rapidly worsening level of consciousness

  • 16. 
    Which of the following carries the worst prognosis?
    • A. 

      Spastic rigidity

    • B. 

      Flaccidity

    • C. 

      Decerebrate posturing

    • D. 

      Decorticate posturing

  • 17. 
    Which of the floowing assessment tools is most helpful when trying to differentiate metabolic causes from structural causes of coma?
    • A. 

      Motor response

    • B. 

      Cranial nerve evaluation

    • C. 

      Level of consciousness

    • D. 

      Pupillary response

  • 18. 
    Why would a comatose patient regain consciousness after the administration of naloxone?
    • A. 

      I competes with narcotics at the receptor sites

    • B. 

      It stimulates the brain stem

    • C. 

      It depresses seizure activity

    • D. 

      It stimulates teh sympathetic nervous system

  • 19. 
    Naloxone is effective in reversing teh effects of:
    • A. 

      Injectable drugs

    • B. 

      Barbituates and narcotics

    • C. 

      Opiates

    • D. 

      Sedatives and narcotics

  • 20. 
    The two major events that occur to cause a stroke are:
    • A. 

      Hemorrhage and sepsis

    • B. 

      Occlusion and hemorrhage

    • C. 

      Occlusion and neoplasm

    • D. 

      Neoplasm and sepsis

  • 21. 
    Your patient complains of the abrubt onset of the worst headache she has ever felt in her life. this is indicative of:
    • A. 

      Hemorrhagic stroke

    • B. 

      Transient ischemic attack

    • C. 

      Cerebral embolism

    • D. 

      Cerebral thrombosis

  • 22. 
    A TIA differs from a stroke in that:
    • A. 

      The only mechanism of a TIA is occlusive injury

    • B. 

      Patients undergoing a TIA exhibit only weakness and paralysis

    • C. 

      Patients undergoing a TIA have no real risk for having a stroke

    • D. 

      The signs and symptoms of a TIA resolve within 24 hours

  • 23. 
    The arm drift in the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale is abnormal if:
    • A. 

      Gripping an object in the hands causes the arms to drift

    • B. 

      One arm drifts down compared to the other

    • C. 

      The patient cannot hold his or her arms in front of the body for 3 minutes

    • D. 

      Pressure applied against outstretched arms causes them to drift

  • 24. 
    The most important action a paramedic can take in the treatment of a stroke patient is to:
    • A. 

      Rapidly transport the patient to an appropriate facility

    • B. 

      Determine whether the stroke is hemorrhagic or occlusive

    • C. 

      Administer glucose

    • D. 

      Control seizure activity

  • 25. 
    Epilepsy is a seizure disorder
    • A. 

      Caused by metabolic abnormalities

    • B. 

      Secondary to infection

    • C. 

      That occurs primarily in febrile children

    • D. 

      With no known correctable or avoidable causes