Radtech Simulation Exam 5
.
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Examples of synovial pivot articulations include the:
- atlantoaxial joint
- radioulnar joint
- temporomandibular joint
- A.
1 and 2 only
- B.
2 and 3 only
- C.
1 only
- D.
1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer
A. 1 and 2 onlyExplanation
The correct answer is 1 and 2 only. This means that the examples of synovial pivot articulations include the atlantoaxial joint and the radioulnar joint. The temporomandibular joint is not an example of a synovial pivot articulation.Rate this question:
- 2.
The lumbar transverse process is represented by what part of the "Scotty dog" seen in a correctly positioned lumbar spine?
- A.
Eye
- B.
Nose
- C.
Body
- D.
Ear
Correct Answer
B. NoseExplanation
In a correctly positioned lumbar spine, the lumbar transverse process is represented by the "nose" of the "Scotty dog" image. The "Scotty dog" is a radiographic representation of the lumbar vertebrae, with the transverse process resembling the dog's nose. This image is commonly used to identify specific structures in the lumbar spine, and the nose represents the lumbar transverse process.Rate this question:
-
- 3.
Which of the following positions will separate the radial head, neck and tuberosity from superimposition on the ulna?
- A.
AP
- B.
Lateral
- C.
Medial oblique
- D.
Lateral oblique
Correct Answer
D. Lateral obliqueExplanation
The lateral oblique position will separate the radial head, neck, and tuberosity from superimposition on the ulna. This position is specifically designed to visualize the radial head and neck without overlap from the ulna. By angling the x-ray beam and positioning the patient's arm in a specific manner, the structures of interest can be visualized clearly and without interference from other bones.Rate this question:
-
- 4.
In which of the following positions can the sesamoid bones of the foot be demonstrated to be free of superimpostion with the metatarsals or phalanges?
- A.
Dorsoplantar metatarsals/toes
- B.
Tangential metatarsals/toes
- C.
30-degree medial oblique foot
- D.
30-degree lateral oblique foot
Correct Answer
B. Tangential metatarsals/toesExplanation
The correct answer is Tangential metatarsals/toes. In a tangential projection, the X-ray beam is directed at a right angle to the long axis of the foot, resulting in a clear visualization of the sesamoid bones without any superimposition with the metatarsals or phalanges. In other positions such as dorsoplantar or oblique, there may be overlapping of the bones, making it difficult to clearly see the sesamoid bones.Rate this question:
-
- 5.
With the patient in the PA position and the OML and CR perpendicular to the IR, the resulting radiograph will demonstrate the petrous pyramids?
- A.
Below the orbits
- B.
In the lower third of the orbits
- C.
Completely within the orbits
- D.
Above the orbits
Correct Answer
C. Completely within the orbitsExplanation
The correct answer is "completely within the orbits." When the patient is positioned in the PA (posteroanterior) position and the OML (orbitomeatal line) and CR (central ray) are perpendicular to the IR (image receptor), the resulting radiograph will show the petrous pyramids completely within the orbits. This means that the petrous pyramids, which are bony structures located in the skull, will be fully visible within the eye sockets on the radiograph.Rate this question:
-
- 6.
Which of the following is (are) part of the bony thorax?
- Manubrium
- Clavicles
- 24 ribs
- A.
1 only
- B.
1 and 2 only
- C.
1 and 3 only
- D.
1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer
C. 1 and 3 onlyExplanation
The manubrium is part of the bony thorax because it is the uppermost segment of the sternum, which is a bone that connects to the ribs. The 24 ribs are also part of the bony thorax because they attach to the spine at the back and connect to the sternum at the front, forming a protective cage around the organs in the chest. The clavicles, however, are not part of the bony thorax as they are collarbones that are located above the thorax and do not directly contribute to its structure.Rate this question:
- 7.
During atrial systole, blood flows into the:
- right ventricle via the mitral valve.
- left ventricle via the bicuspid valve.
- right ventricle via the tricuspid valve.
- A.
1 only
- B.
1 and 2 only
- C.
2 and 3 only
- D.
1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer
C. 2 and 3 only - 8.
The PA chest radiograph should demonstrate:
- rotation
- scapulae removed from lung fields
- adequate inspiration
- A.
1 only
- B.
1 and 3 only
- C.
2 and 3 only
- D.
1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer
D. 1, 2 and 3Explanation
The PA chest radiograph should demonstrate rotation, meaning that the patient is properly positioned and aligned for the image. The scapulae should be removed from the lung fields to ensure clear visualization of the lungs. Adequate inspiration is important to ensure that the lungs are fully expanded and visible on the radiograph. Therefore, all three options (1, 2, and 3) should be demonstrated on a correct PA chest radiograph.Rate this question:
- 9.
In a PA chest radiograph which ribs will be demonstrated on the right upper side of the film?
- A.
Left anterior ribs
- B.
Right posterior ribs
- C.
Left posterior ribs
- D.
Right anterior ribs
Correct Answer
A. Left anterior ribsExplanation
In a PA chest radiograph, the left anterior ribs will be demonstrated on the right upper side of the film. This is because the x-ray beam passes through the patient from back to front, so the structures on the left side of the patient will be projected onto the right side of the film. The anterior ribs refer to the front side of the chest, and since they are on the left side of the patient, they will appear on the right upper side of the film.Rate this question:
-
- 10.
With the patient seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow flexed 80 degrees, and the CR directed 45 degrees laterally from the shoulder to the elbow joint, which of the following structures will be demonstrated best?
- A.
Radial head
- B.
Ulnar head
- C.
Coronoid process
- D.
Olecranon process
Correct Answer
C. Coronoid processExplanation
The coronoid process will be demonstrated best in this position because the patient is seated at the end of the x-ray table with the elbow flexed at 80 degrees. The CR (central ray) is directed 45 degrees laterally from the shoulder to the elbow joint. This positioning allows for optimal visualization of the coronoid process, which is a projection of the ulna bone located in the anterior aspect of the elbow joint. The radial head and ulnar head may also be visible in this position, but the coronoid process will be the structure that is best demonstrated.Rate this question:
-
- 11.
The threat of hypothermia is greatest when radiographing a (an):
- A.
Elderly patient
- B.
Hypertensive patient
- C.
Premature infant
- D.
Diabetic patient
Correct Answer
C. Premature infantExplanation
Premature infants have underdeveloped body systems, including their ability to regulate body temperature. This makes them more susceptible to hypothermia, which is a condition where the body loses heat faster than it can produce it. When radiographing premature infants, special precautions need to be taken to ensure their body temperature is maintained, such as using warmers or blankets. Therefore, the threat of hypothermia is greatest when radiographing a premature infant.Rate this question:
-
- 12.
The CR will parallel the intervertebral foramina in which of the following projections?
- lateral cervical spine
- lateral thoracic spine
- lateral lumbar spine
- A.
1 only
- B.
1 and 2 only
- C.
2 and 3 only
- D.
1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer
C. 2 and 3 onlyExplanation
In the lateral thoracic and lumbar spine projections, the central ray (CR) will parallel the intervertebral foramina. This means that the CR will be directed perpendicular to the intervertebral foramina, allowing for optimal visualization of the neural foramina and nerve roots in these areas. In the lateral cervical spine projection, the CR will be angled slightly cephalad to better demonstrate the intervertebral foramina. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 and 3 only.Rate this question:
- 13.
What structure can be located midway between the anterosuperior iliac spine (ASIS) and pubic symphysis?
- A.
Dome of the acetabulum
- B.
Femoral neck
- C.
Greater trochanter
- D.
Iliac crest
Correct Answer
A. Dome of the acetabulumExplanation
The dome of the acetabulum is the correct answer because it is located midway between the anterosuperior iliac spine (ASIS) and the pubic symphysis. The acetabulum is the socket of the hip joint, and its dome-shaped portion is positioned in this specific location. The femoral neck is located closer to the hip joint, the greater trochanter is a bony prominence on the femur, and the iliac crest is located higher up on the hip bone.Rate this question:
-
- 14.
Which of the following would best evaluate the maxillary sinus?
- A.
PA axial projection (Caldwell method)
- B.
Parietoacanthal projection (Waters method)
- C.
Lateral projection
- D.
Submentovertical projection (SMV)
Correct Answer
B. Parietoacanthal projection (Waters method)Explanation
The parietoacanthal projection (Waters method) is the best option for evaluating the maxillary sinus. This projection is performed by placing the patient's forehead and nose against the image receptor, with the chin elevated. This allows for a superior-inferior view of the maxillary sinuses, which are located above the hard palate. The Waters method provides a clear visualization of the maxillary sinuses, allowing for assessment of any abnormalities or pathologies within the sinuses.Rate this question:
-
- 15.
During chest radiography, the act of inspiration:
- elevates the diaphragm
- raises the ribs
- depresses the abdominal viscera
- A.
1 only
- B.
1 and 2 only
- C.
2 and 3 only
- D.
1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer
C. 2 and 3 onlyExplanation
During chest radiography, the act of inspiration raises the ribs and depresses the abdominal viscera. This is because during inspiration, the diaphragm contracts and moves downwards, causing the ribs to elevate and expand the chest cavity. At the same time, the contraction of the diaphragm also pushes the abdominal viscera downwards, causing them to be depressed. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 and 3 only.Rate this question:
- 16.
Which foot view would best demonstrate the articulation between the (calcaneus and cuboid) & (the talus and navicular)?
- A.
Medial oblique
- B.
Lateral oblique
- C.
AP
- D.
Lateral
Correct Answer
A. Medial obliqueExplanation
The medial oblique foot view would best demonstrate the articulation between the calcaneus and cuboid, as well as the talus and navicular. This view allows for a clear visualization of the bones and their articulations from a medial perspective, providing a comprehensive understanding of their relationship and alignment.Rate this question:
-
- 17.
A lateral projection of the lumbar spine will demonstrate the: 1. intervertebral spaces 2. intervertebral foramina 3. articular facets
- A.
1 only
- B.
1 and 2 only
- C.
2 and 3 only
- D.
1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer
B. 1 and 2 onlyExplanation
A lateral projection of the lumbar spine will demonstrate the intervertebral spaces and intervertebral foramina. The intervertebral spaces are the gaps between adjacent vertebrae where the intervertebral discs are located. The intervertebral foramina are the openings on the sides of the vertebrae through which the spinal nerves exit the spinal cord. The articular facets, on the other hand, are the joints between the vertebrae and are not visible on a lateral projection. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 and 2 only.Rate this question:
-
- 18.
The patient's chin should be elevated during chest radiography to:
- A.
Permit the diaphragm to move to its lowest position
- B.
Avoid superimpostion on the apices
- C.
Assist in maintaining an upright position
- D.
Keep the MSP parallel
Correct Answer
B. Avoid superimpostion on the apicesExplanation
Elevating the patient's chin during chest radiography helps to avoid superimposition on the apices. This is important because the apices are the highest points of the lungs and can be easily obscured by other structures if not properly positioned. By elevating the chin, the radiographer ensures that the apices are visible and can be accurately assessed for any abnormalities or pathology.Rate this question:
-
- 19.
The secondary center of ossification in long bones is the:
- A.
Diaphysis
- B.
Epiphysis
- C.
Metaphysis
- D.
Apophysis
Correct Answer
B. EpiphysisExplanation
The secondary center of ossification in long bones is the epiphysis. The epiphysis is the rounded end of a long bone, separated from the shaft (diaphysis) by the growth plate (metaphysis). It is responsible for the growth of the bone in length and contains the secondary ossification center, where new bone tissue is formed. The epiphysis also plays a role in joint movement and articulation.Rate this question:
-
- 20.
The lumbar lamina is represented by what part of the "Scotty dog" seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine view?
- A.
Eye
- B.
Nose
- C.
Body
- D.
Neck
Correct Answer
C. BodyExplanation
In the "Scotty dog" seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine view, the lumbar lamina is represented by the body of the dog. The body is the central part of the "Scotty dog" and corresponds to the lamina in the lumbar spine. The eye, nose, and neck represent other structures in the lumbar spine, but the body specifically corresponds to the lumbar lamina.Rate this question:
-
- 21.
Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the tarsal navicular free of superimposition?
- A.
AP oblique, medial rotation
- B.
AP oblique, lateral rotation
- C.
Mediolateral
- D.
Lateral weight-bearing
Correct Answer
A. AP oblique, medial rotationExplanation
AP oblique, medial rotation is the best projection to demonstrate the tarsal navicular free of superimposition because it allows for better visualization of the medial aspect of the foot. By rotating the foot medially, the tarsal navicular bone is pulled away from the other bones of the foot, reducing superimposition and providing a clearer image of the navicular bone. This projection is commonly used to assess for fractures or other abnormalities involving the navicular bone.Rate this question:
-
- 22.
To evaluate the interphalangeal joints in the oblique and lateral positions, the fingers:
- A.
Rest on the cassette for immobilization
- B.
Must be supported paralled to the IR
- C.
Are radiographed in natural flexion
- D.
Are radiographed in palmar flexion
Correct Answer
B. Must be supported paralled to the IRExplanation
The correct answer is that the fingers must be supported parallel to the IR. This is because when evaluating the interphalangeal joints in the oblique and lateral positions, it is important to have proper alignment and positioning of the fingers. Supporting the fingers parallel to the IR helps to ensure that the joints are properly visualized and that there is minimal distortion in the resulting radiograph. This positioning also helps to immobilize the fingers and reduce any movement during the imaging process.Rate this question:
-
- 23.
In a lateral projection of the normal knee, the:
- fibular head should be somewhat superimposed on the proximal tibia
- patellofemoral joint should be visualized
- femoral condyles should be superimposed
- A.
1 only
- B.
2 only
- C.
1 and 3 only
- D.
1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer
D. 1, 2 and 3Explanation
In a lateral projection of the normal knee, the fibular head should be somewhat superimposed on the proximal tibia. This is because the fibular head is located slightly posterior to the tibia, causing it to overlap with the tibia in a lateral view. The patellofemoral joint should be visualized in a lateral knee projection as it helps to assess the alignment and position of the patella in relation to the femur. The femoral condyles should be superimposed in a lateral knee projection, indicating proper alignment and positioning of the femur in relation to the tibia.Rate this question:
- 24.
The junction of the sagittal and coronal sutures is the:
- A.
Diploe
- B.
Lambda
- C.
Bregma
- D.
Pterion
Correct Answer
C. BregmaExplanation
The junction of the sagittal and coronal sutures is known as the bregma. This anatomical landmark is located on the top of the skull and is formed by the meeting point of the frontal and parietal bones. The bregma is important in medical and anthropological studies as it helps to determine the position and orientation of the skull.Rate this question:
-
- 25.
The term used to describe expectoration of blood from the bronchi is:
- A.
Hemoptysis
- B.
Hematemesis
- C.
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
- D.
Bronchitis
Correct Answer
A. HemoptysisExplanation
Hemoptysis is the term used to describe the expectoration of blood from the bronchi. It is often a symptom of various respiratory conditions, such as bronchitis or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Hematemesis, on the other hand, refers to the vomiting of blood, which is different from coughing up blood. Therefore, the correct answer is hemoptysis.Rate this question:
-
- 26.
The sternoclavicular joints are best demonstrated with the patient in PA and:
- A.
In a slight oblique position, affected side adjacent to the IR
- B.
In a slight oblique position, affected side away from the IR
- C.
Erect and weight-bearing
- D.
Erect with and without weights
Correct Answer
A. In a slight oblique position, affected side adjacent to the IRExplanation
The sternoclavicular joints are best demonstrated with the patient in a slight oblique position, affected side adjacent to the IR. This positioning allows for optimal visualization of the sternoclavicular joints, as it helps to separate the clavicle from the superimposed structures. By positioning the affected side adjacent to the IR, the joint is better visualized without overlap from other structures.Rate this question:
-
- 27.
With patient lying prone, knee flexed @ 45 degrees (support under ankle), CR 45 degrees caudad, what will be demonstrated?
- A.
Patella
- B.
Patellofemoral articulation
- C.
Intercondyloid fossa
- D.
Tibial tuberosity
Correct Answer
C. Intercondyloid fossaExplanation
In this position and with the given CR angle, the intercondyloid fossa will be demonstrated. The intercondyloid fossa is a depression located between the condyles of the femur, specifically the medial and lateral condyles. By positioning the patient lying prone with the knee flexed at 45 degrees and angling the CR 45 degrees caudad, the X-ray will capture a clear image of the intercondyloid fossa.Rate this question:
-
- 28.
Which of the following articulations may be described as diarthrotic?
- knee
- intervertebral joints
- temporomandibular joint (TMJ)
- A.
1 only
- B.
2 only
- C.
1 and 3 only
- D.
1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer
C. 1 and 3 onlyExplanation
The knee joint and the temporomandibular joint (TMJ) can both be described as diarthrotic. Diarthrotic joints are freely movable joints that allow for a wide range of motion. The knee joint is a hinge joint that allows for flexion and extension of the leg, while the TMJ is a modified hinge joint that allows for the opening and closing of the mouth. The intervertebral joints, on the other hand, are amphiarthrotic joints that allow for limited movement and are not considered diarthrotic.Rate this question:
- 29.
For an AP projection of the knee on a patient whose measurement from ASIS to tabletop is 21 cm, which CR direction will best demonstrate the knee joint?
- A.
5 degrees caudad
- B.
10 degrees caudad
- C.
5 degrees cephalad
- D.
0 degrees (perpendicular)
Correct Answer
D. 0 degrees (perpendicular)Explanation
When performing an AP projection of the knee, the CR (central ray) should be directed perpendicular to the image receptor. This means that the CR should be aimed straight at a right angle to the tabletop. This position will best demonstrate the knee joint without any angulation, providing a true representation of the anatomy. Angling the CR in any direction (caudad or cephalad) may result in distortion or misalignment of the knee joint. Therefore, the correct answer is 0 degrees (perpendicular).Rate this question:
-
- 30.
Structures comprising the neutral or vertebral arch include:
- pedicles
- laminae
- body
- A.
1 only
- B.
1 and 2 only
- C.
2 and 3 only
- D.
1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer
B. 1 and 2 onlyExplanation
The structures comprising the neutral or vertebral arch are the pedicles and laminae. The pedicles are short, thick processes that connect the body of the vertebra to the laminae, which are thin, flattened plates that extend from the pedicles to form the posterior part of the arch. The body of the vertebra is not part of the neutral or vertebral arch. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 and 2 only.Rate this question:
- 31.
The intervertebral foramina of the thoracic spine are demonstrated with the:
- A.
Coronal plane 90 degrees to the IR
- B.
Midsagittal plane 90 degrees to the IR
- C.
Coronal plane 70 degrees to the IR
- D.
Midsagittal plane 70 degrees to the IR
Correct Answer
A. Coronal plane 90 degrees to the IRExplanation
The intervertebral foramina are the spaces between adjacent vertebrae through which spinal nerves pass. To demonstrate these foramina, a coronal plane is used. The coronal plane is a vertical plane that divides the body into front and back halves. By positioning the coronal plane at a 90-degree angle to the IR (image receptor), it allows for a clear visualization of the intervertebral foramina and the spinal nerves passing through them. The midsagittal plane, on the other hand, is a vertical plane that divides the body into left and right halves and would not be suitable for demonstrating the intervertebral foramina in this case.Rate this question:
-
- 32.
Which of the following may be used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint?
- scapular Y projection
- Inferosuperior axial
- transthoracic lateral
- A.
1 only
- B.
1 and 2 only
- C.
2 and 3 only
- D.
1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer
D. 1, 2 and 3Explanation
The glenohumeral joint is the joint where the humerus (upper arm bone) connects to the scapula (shoulder blade). To evaluate this joint, all three options can be used. The scapular Y projection provides a clear view of the glenohumeral joint by positioning the patient in a way that optimizes visualization. The inferosuperior axial view is another useful technique to evaluate the joint, as it allows for a different perspective and can help identify any abnormalities. Lastly, the transthoracic lateral view provides yet another angle to assess the glenohumeral joint, ensuring a comprehensive evaluation.Rate this question:
- 33.
The innominate bone is located in the:
- A.
Middle cranial fossa
- B.
Posterior cranial fossa
- C.
Foot
- D.
Pelvis
Correct Answer
D. PelvisExplanation
The innominate bone, also known as the hip bone, is located in the pelvis. It is a large, irregularly shaped bone that forms part of the pelvic girdle, along with the sacrum and coccyx. The innominate bone consists of three fused bones: the ilium, ischium, and pubis. Together, these bones provide support and stability to the pelvis and serve as attachment points for various muscles involved in movement and posture.Rate this question:
-
- 34.
The body habitus characterized by a long and narrow thoracic cavity and low midline stomach and gallbladder is the:
- A.
Asthenic
- B.
Hyposthenic
- C.
Sthenic
- D.
Hypersthenic
Correct Answer
A. AsthenicExplanation
The correct answer is asthenic. Asthenic body habitus is characterized by a long and narrow thoracic cavity, as well as a low midline stomach and gallbladder. This body type typically has a slender frame and a delicate appearance.Rate this question:
-
- 35.
Which of the following fracture classifications describes a small bony fragment pulled from a bony process?
- A.
Avulsion fracture
- B.
Torus fracture
- C.
Comminuted fracture
- D.
Compound fracture
Correct Answer
A. Avulsion fractureExplanation
An avulsion fracture occurs when a small piece of bone is pulled away from its normal position due to the forceful contraction of a tendon or ligament. This type of fracture is commonly seen in sports injuries, where the sudden and powerful pull of a muscle causes a fragment of bone to break off. Unlike other types of fractures, avulsion fractures typically involve a small bony fragment and are often characterized by the presence of a tendon or ligament attached to the fragment.Rate this question:
-
- 36.
Which of the following is proximal to the carpal bones?
- A.
Distal interphalangeal joints
- B.
Proximal interphalangeal joints
- C.
Metacarpals
- D.
Radial styloid process
Correct Answer
D. Radial styloid processExplanation
The radial styloid process is located at the distal end of the radius bone in the forearm, which is closer to the carpal bones compared to the other options. The distal interphalangeal joints and proximal interphalangeal joints are located in the fingers, while the metacarpals are the long bones in the hand. Therefore, the radial styloid process is the correct answer as it is the structure closest to the carpal bones.Rate this question:
-
- 37.
Which of the following statements regarding the scapular Y projection of the shoulder is (are) true?
- The midsagittal plane should be about 60 degrees to the IR.
- The scapular borders should be superimposed on the humeral shaft.
- An oblique projection of the shoulder is obtained.
- A.
1 only
- B.
1 and 2 only
- C.
2 and 3 only
- D.
1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer
C. 2 and 3 onlyExplanation
The scapular Y projection of the shoulder is an oblique projection that is obtained to visualize the scapular borders and the humeral shaft. In this projection, the midsagittal plane should be about 60 degrees to the IR, which means that it should be angled obliquely. The scapular borders should be superimposed on the humeral shaft, which helps to ensure proper positioning and alignment of the shoulder joint. Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are true, indicating that the correct answer is 2 and 3 only.Rate this question:
- 38.
Which of the following projections require(s) that the humeral epicondyles be perpendicular to the IR?
- AP humerus
- Lateral forearm
- Internal rotation shoulder
- A.
1 only
- B.
1 and 2 only
- C.
2 and 3 only
- D.
1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer
C. 2 and 3 onlyExplanation
The humeral epicondyles need to be perpendicular to the IR in the lateral forearm projection because this position allows for better visualization of the radius and ulna. In the internal rotation shoulder projection, the humeral epicondyles need to be perpendicular to the IR to ensure that the greater tubercle of the humerus is in profile and the lesser tubercle is seen in full anterior position. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 and 3 only.Rate this question:
- 39.
Which of the following positions is most likely to place the right kidney parallel to the IR?
- A.
AP
- B.
PA
- C.
RPO
- D.
LPO
Correct Answer
D. LPOExplanation
The LPO (Left Posterior Oblique) position is most likely to place the right kidney parallel to the IR (Image Receptor). In this position, the patient is lying on their left side with the right kidney closer to the IR. This allows for a better visualization of the right kidney as it is positioned parallel to the IR, resulting in a clearer image.Rate this question:
-
- 40.
With the patient's head in a PA position and the CR directed 20 degrees cephalad, which part of the mandible will be best visualized?
- A.
Symphysis
- B.
Rami
- C.
Body
- D.
Angle
Correct Answer
B. RamiExplanation
In a PA position with the CR directed 20 degrees cephalad, the rami of the mandible will be best visualized. The rami are the vertical portions of the mandible that extend upwards from the body of the mandible towards the condyles. By angling the CR cephalad, the rami will be projected away from the body of the mandible, resulting in a better visualization of this specific part.Rate this question:
-
- 41.
The plane that passes vertically through the body, dividing it into anterior and posterior halves is termed the:
- A.
Median sagittal plane (MSP)
- B.
Midcoronal plane
- C.
Sagittal plane
- D.
Transverse plane
Correct Answer
B. Midcoronal planeExplanation
The plane that passes vertically through the body, dividing it into anterior and posterior halves is termed the midcoronal plane. This plane is also known as the frontal plane or coronal plane. It is perpendicular to the sagittal plane and divides the body into front (anterior) and back (posterior) portions. The midcoronal plane is commonly used in medical imaging and anatomical studies to visualize structures and organs from a frontal perspective.Rate this question:
-
- 42.
To demonstrate a profile view of the glenoid fossa, the patient is AP recumbent and obliqued 45 degrees:
- A.
Toward the affected side
- B.
Away from the affected side
- C.
With the arm at the side in the anatomic position
- D.
With the arm in external rotation
Correct Answer
A. Toward the affected sideExplanation
To demonstrate a profile view of the glenoid fossa, the patient is positioned obliquely 45 degrees toward the affected side. This positioning helps to align the shoulder joint and provide a clear view of the glenoid fossa from a side angle. By angling the patient toward the affected side, the structures of the glenoid fossa can be better visualized and assessed for any abnormalities or injuries.Rate this question:
-
- 43.
Which of the following is recommended to better demonstrate the tarsometatarsal joints in a dorsoplantar projection of the foot?
- A.
Invert the foot
- B.
Evert the foot
- C.
Angle the CR 10 degrees posteriorly
- D.
Angle the CR 10 degrees anteriorly
Correct Answer
C. Angle the CR 10 degrees posteriorlyExplanation
Angling the central ray (CR) 10 degrees posteriorly is recommended to better demonstrate the tarsometatarsal joints in a dorsoplantar projection of the foot. This angulation helps to align the CR with the joint spaces, allowing for better visualization of the tarsometatarsal joints. Inverting or everting the foot would not specifically target the tarsometatarsal joints, and angling the CR 10 degrees anteriorly would result in a less optimal projection.Rate this question:
-
- 44.
The tissue that occupies the central cavity within the shaft of a long bone in an adult is:
- A.
Red marrow
- B.
Yellow marrow
- C.
Cortical tissue
- D.
Cancellous tissue
Correct Answer
B. Yellow marrowExplanation
Yellow marrow is the correct answer because it occupies the central cavity within the shaft of a long bone in an adult. Yellow marrow is composed primarily of fat cells and is responsible for storing fat. It replaces red marrow as a person ages and is less active in blood cell production. Yellow marrow is found in the medullary cavity of long bones such as the femur and tibia.Rate this question:
-
- 45.
Which of the following positions will provide an AP projection of the L5-S1 interspace?
- A.
Patient AP w/30 to 35 degree angle cephalad
- B.
Patient AP w/30 to 35 degree angle caudad
- C.
Patient AP w/ 0 degree angle
- D.
Patient lateral, coned to L5
Correct Answer
A. Patient AP w/30 to 35 degree angle cephaladExplanation
Positioning the patient in an AP projection with a 30 to 35 degree angle cephalad will provide an AP projection of the L5-S1 interspace. This angulation helps to separate the L5 and S1 vertebrae, allowing for better visualization of the interspace. The cephalad angle also helps to minimize superimposition of the pelvic structures, which can obstruct the view of the L5-S1 interspace.Rate this question:
-
- 46.
Which of the following bony landmarks is in the same transverse plane as the symphysis pubis?
- A.
Ischial tuberosity
- B.
Prominence of the greater trochanter
- C.
Anterosuperior iliac spine
- D.
Anteroinferior iliac spine
Correct Answer
B. Prominence of the greater trochanterExplanation
The prominence of the greater trochanter is in the same transverse plane as the symphysis pubis. The symphysis pubis is a joint located in the midline of the pelvis, while the greater trochanter is a bony prominence on the femur. Both structures are at the same level and can be found in the same horizontal plane when looking at the pelvis from the front or back.Rate this question:
-
- 47.
Movement of a part toward the midline of the body is termed?
- A.
Eversion
- B.
Inversion
- C.
Abduction
- D.
Adduction
Correct Answer
D. AdductionExplanation
Adduction refers to the movement of a body part towards the midline of the body. This means that the part is being brought closer to the center of the body. In contrast, abduction refers to the movement of a body part away from the midline of the body. Eversion refers to the turning outward of a body part, while inversion refers to the turning inward of a body part. Therefore, adduction is the correct answer in this case.Rate this question:
-
- 48.
A kyphotic curve is formed by which of the following?
- sacral vertebrae
- thoracic vertebrae
- lumbar vertebrae
- A.
1 only
- B.
1 and 2 only
- C.
3 only
- D.
1 and 3 only
Correct Answer
B. 1 and 2 onlyExplanation
A kyphotic curve is formed by the thoracic vertebrae and the sacral vertebrae. The thoracic vertebrae are located in the upper and middle back, and their natural curve contributes to the kyphotic curve. The sacral vertebrae are located at the bottom of the spine and also contribute to the kyphotic curve. The lumbar vertebrae, located in the lower back, do not contribute to the kyphotic curve. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 and 2 only.Rate this question:
- 49.
Which of the following is (are) required for a lateral projection of the skull?
- The IOML is parallel to the IR
- The MSP is parallel to the IR
- The CR enters 3/4 inch superior and anterior to the EAM
- A.
1 only
- B.
1 and 2 only
- C.
2 and 3 only
- D.
1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer
B. 1 and 2 onlyExplanation
For a lateral projection of the skull, it is necessary for both the IOML (infraorbital-meatal line) and the MSP (mid-sagittal plane) to be parallel to the IR (image receptor). This ensures that the skull is properly aligned and positioned for an accurate lateral view. The CR (central ray) entering 3/4 inch superior and anterior to the EAM (external auditory meatus) is not required for a lateral projection of the skull.Rate this question:
- 50.
With which of the following does the trapezium articulate?
- A.
Fifth metacarpal
- B.
First metacarpal
- C.
Distal radius
- D.
Distal ulna
Correct Answer
B. First metacarpalExplanation
The trapezium articulates with the first metacarpal.Rate this question:
-
- Computed Tomography Quizzes
- EEG Quizzes
- First Aid Quizzes
- GCP Quizzes
- Healing Quizzes
- Mammography Quizzes
- Medical Coding Quizzes
- Medical Term Quizzes
- Medical Terminology Quizzes
- Medical Training Quizzes
- Medical Vocabulary Quizzes
- MRI Quizzes
- Nuclear Medicine Quizzes
- Obstetrics And Gynecology Quizzes
- Pathology Quizzes
- Pathophysiology Quizzes
- Phlebotomy Quizzes
- Pulmonary Quizzes
- Radiology Quizzes
- Syndrome Quizzes
- Ultrasound Quizzes
- Vital Signs Quizzes
- Xray Quizzes
Back to top