3D152 CDC Ure Vol 3

100 Questions | Total Attempts: 28

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3D152 Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    One disadvantage of microwave wavelengths is that the frequencies are susceptible to
    • A. 

      A. line noise.

    • B. 

      B. weather effects.

    • C. 

      C. frequency distortion.

    • D. 

      D. electromagnetic interference.

  • 2. 
    What is not a factor in determining the refractive index of air?
    • A. 

      Atmospheric pressure.

    • B. 

      Propagation medium.

    • C. 

      Temperature.

    • D. 

      Moisture.

  • 3. 
    The determining factor in calculating the correct size of a waveguide is
    • A. 

      Frequency.

    • B. 

      Power output.

    • C. 

      Bandwidth of the transmission medium.

    • D. 

      Distance between equipment and transmitter.

  • 4. 
    How many miles above the earth are satellites placed in orbit?
    • A. 

      2,230.

    • B. 

      2,320.

    • C. 

      22,300.

    • D. 

      23,200.

  • 5. 
    Which satellite communications system is used to transmit space operations?
    • A. 

      Milstar Communication System

    • B. 

      Defense Satellite Communications System (DSCS).

    • C. 

      Air Force Satellite Communications (AFSATCOM).

    • D. 

      Ground Mobile Forces Satellite Communications (GMFSC).

  • 6. 
    To transmit an audio signal over radio frequency (RF), it first has to be
    • A. 

      Phase shifted.

    • B. 

      Transmitted.

    • C. 

      Modulated.

    • D. 

      Encoded.

  • 7. 
    What is one path high frequency (HF) transmissions follow from the antenna to the distant end?
    • A. 

      Lightwave.

    • B. 

      Microwave.

    • C. 

      Soundwave.

    • D. 

      Groundwave.

  • 8. 
    Which is not a disadvantage of laser light transmission?
    • A. 

      No need for careful alignment of transmitter and receiver.

    • B. 

      Cannot penetrate even very thin curtains or paper.

    • C. 

      Sensitive to atmospheric interference.

    • D. 

      Strictly line-of-sight (LOS) transmission.

  • 9. 
    Broadband refers to a technology that can transmit
    • A. 

      A relatively wide range of frequencies.

    • B. 

      Only high frequency information.

    • C. 

      A relatively wide range of amplitudes.

    • D. 

      Only high amplitude information.

  • 10. 
    Broadband technology uses all of these transmission mediums except?
    • A. 

      Telephone lines.

    • B. 

      Television cable lines.

    • C. 

      Satellite systems.

    • D. 

      Laser light.

  • 11. 
    The Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) configuration normally used to connectswitches together is the
    • A. 

      Basic rate interface (BRI).

    • B. 

      Primary rate interface (PRI).

    • C. 

      Trunk rate interface (TRI).

    • D. 

      Switch rate interface (SRI).

  • 12. 
    How many B and D channels does the standard configuration in North American Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) primary rate interface (PRI) application use?
    • A. 

      2, 1.

    • B. 

      30, 2.

    • C. 

      1, 24.

    • D. 

      23, 1.

  • 13. 
    What was the primary driving factor behind the invention of the telephone exchangesystem?
    • A. 

      Point-to-point telephone access caused cabling issues.

    • B. 

      The invention of the multi-line telephone.

    • C. 

      Military communication requirements.

    • D. 

      Radio communication requirements.

  • 14. 
    When a telephone network is circuit switched, each call
    • A. 

      Is broadcast over multiple paths between switches.

    • B. 

      Is packetized and transmitted in circuitous bursts.

    • C. 

      Has a dedicated circuit created by the switch.

    • D. 

      Requires a dedicated switch to make the connection.

  • 15. 
    The three cornerstones of voice network system security are availability,
    • A. 

      Circumvention, and confidentiality.

    • B. 

      Circumvention, and disclosure.

    • C. 

      Confidentiality, and integrity.

    • D. 

      Disclosure, and integrity.

  • 16. 
    What is the most serious threat to voice network system integrity?
    • A. 

      Subversion.

    • B. 

      Unauthorized monitoring.

    • C. 

      Inexperienced switch technicians.

    • D. 

      Inadequate maintenance practices.

  • 17. 
    What role does the Private Branch Exchange (PBX) play in the telephony industry?
    • A. 

      A medium scale switch that handles traffic for a small city.

    • B. 

      A very small scale switch that is also known as a key system

    • C. 

      A large scale switch that handles the traffic for a metropolitan area.

    • D. 

      A small scale switch that handles internal calls for an organization.

  • 18. 
    How many serial data interface ports does the Meridian Option 11C Small SystemController have?
    • A. 

      32

    • B. 

      12

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      1

  • 19. 
    Which models of the digital multiplex system (DMS) family are commonly used at AirForce bases to provide base telephone services?
    • A. 

      DMS–100 and Meridian System Logic (MSL)–100.

    • B. 

      DMS–100/200 and MSL–100.

    • C. 

      DMS–100/200 and DMS–200.

    • D. 

      DMS–200 and MSL–100.

  • 20. 
    What is the maximum number of ports that a digital multiplex system–100 (DMS–100)supports?
    • A. 

      10,000

    • B. 

      30,000

    • C. 

      100,000

    • D. 

      300,000

  • 21. 
    Which elements make up the control component of the SuperNode central control?
    • A. 

      Computing mode (CM) and message switches (MS)

    • B. 

      CM and system load module (SLM).

    • C. 

      Central processing unit (CPU) and control monitor unit (CMU).

    • D. 

      CPU, digital signal (DS), and peripheral module (PM).

  • 22. 
    What link is used to connect the digital multiplex system (DMS)-core to the DMS-bus?
    • A. 

      DS–1.

    • B. 

      DS–30.

    • C. 

      DS–30A.

    • D. 

      DS–512.

  • 23. 
    Which major component of the NorTel digital switching system (DSS) interfaces line andtrunk subscribers?
    • A. 

      Central control.

    • B. 

      Input/output (I/O).

    • C. 

      Peripheral module (PM).

    • D. 

      Peripheral subsystem (PS).

  • 24. 
    What components are directly connected to the input/output controller (IOC)?
    • A. 

      Printers, visual display unit (VDU), and tape drives.

    • B. 

      A pair of SuperNode message controllers and the device controllers.

    • C. 

      A maintenance and administration position (MAP).

    • D. 

      The central processing unit (CPU) and keyboard.

  • 25. 
    Base cables normally enter the central office (CO) facility through a
    • A. 

      Cable manhole.

    • B. 

      Telecommunications cable closet.

    • C. 

      Building cable raceway.

    • D. 

      Cable vault.

  • 26. 
    The primary reason you should measure the voltage across terminal or distribution frame protectors before removing and replacing them is to
    • A. 

      Verify the circuit is not in use.

    • B. 

      Prevent interruptions to critical circuits.

    • C. 

      Ensure dangerous voltages are not present on the line.

    • D. 

      Avoid activating alarm circuits.

  • 27. 
    Where do incoming unswitched circuits from a peripheral module (PM) enter the NT9X35A cross-point card matrix?
    • A. 

      Vertical bus.

    • B. 

      Horizontal bus.

    • C. 

      Clock/message card.

    • D. 

      Enhanced network (ENET) processor.

  • 28. 
    Because the enhanced network (ENET) is a matrix, any input channel has access to anyavailable
    • A. 

      Computing mode channel.

    • B. 

      Peripheral channel.

    • C. 

      H-bus channel.

    • D. 

      Output channel.

  • 29. 
    Which digital multiplex system (DMS)–100 database facility is responsible for creating and maintaining tables of data in a controlled manner?
    • A. 

      Journal file.

    • B. 

      Table control.

    • C. 

      Dump/restore.

    • D. 

      Pending order file.

  • 30. 
    Which digital multiplex system (DMS)–100 database facility provides facilities for storingdata modifications orders (DMO) and for retrieving them at a specified time for execution?
    • A. 

      Journal file.

    • B. 

      Table control.

    • C. 

      Dump/restore.

    • D. 

      Pending order file.

  • 31. 
    Which digital multiplex system (DMS)–100 database facility provides facilities forpreserving data modifications orders (DMO) on tape or disk so that data tables can be restored if the system should fail?
    • A. 

      Journal file.

    • B. 

      Table control.

    • C. 

      Dump/restore

    • D. 

      Pending order file.

  • 32. 
    What voice mail interface has the capability to support the temporary absence greeting(TAG) feature?
    • A. 

      Administration and maintenance interface.

    • B. 

      Voice Messaging User Interface Forum.

    • C. 

      Meridian mail user interface.

    • D. 

      Message service interface.

  • 33. 
    What voice mail interface allows a user’s mailbox to be partitioned into a main mailbox and up to eight submailboxes?
    • A. 

      Administration and maintenance interface.

    • B. 

      Voice Messaging User Interface Forum.

    • C. 

      Meridian mail user interface.

    • D. 

      Message service interface.

  • 34. 
    Why are the R–Y and B–Y signals shifted 33° counterclockwise?
    • A. 

      To align R–Y and B–Y with their respective primary colors.

    • B. 

      To align R–Y and B–Y with their respective complementary colors.

    • C. 

      R–Y was shifted to minimum and B–Y was shifted to maximum color acuity, respectively for human vision.

    • D. 

      R–Y was shifted to maximum and B–Y was shifted to minimum color acuity, respectively for human vision.

  • 35. 
    The red, green, and blue (RGB) outputs from the camera go to the
    • A. 

      Encoder.

    • B. 

      Decoder.

    • C. 

      Multiplexer.

    • D. 

      Demultiplexer.

  • 36. 
    What modulation technique is used by the Advanced Television Systems Committee(ATSC) system?
    • A. 

      4-quardraplex sideband (4-QSB).

    • B. 

      8-vestigial sideband (8-VSB).

    • C. 

      4-vestigial modulation (4-VM).

    • D. 

      8-quadrature modulation (8-QM).

  • 37. 
    What modulation technique is used for Digital Video Broadcasting - Cable transmission?
    • A. 

      Motion Picture Experts Group (MPEG)–1.

    • B. 

      MPEG–2.

    • C. 

      MPEG–3.

    • D. 

      MPEG–4.

  • 38. 
    How many lines of video are discarded in high-definition 1080 line video encoded with1920x1088 pixel frames prior to display?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      8

  • 39. 
    How is information recorded or stored on the videotape?
    • A. 

      Series of magnetic patterns.

    • B. 

      Series of edited electrical patterns.

    • C. 

      Transferred current indents.

    • D. 

      Transferred voltage indents.

  • 40. 
    You can compare a video tape recorder (VTR) head to a/an
    • A. 

      Magnet.

    • B. 

      Conductor.

    • C. 

      Electromagnet.

    • D. 

      Charged capacitor.

  • 41. 
    What function in a video tape recorder (VTR) is accomplished by transporting the videotape across the head gap at the same speed at which it was recorded?
    • A. 

      Fast Forward.

    • B. 

      Playback.

    • C. 

      Erasure.

    • D. 

      Rewind.

  • 42. 
    An important concept to understand is that digital video is merely an alternate means for
    • A. 

      Minimizing video loss.

    • B. 

      Carrying a video waveform.

    • C. 

      Minimized signal dropout.

    • D. 

      Transmitting an analog waveform.

  • 43. 
    What is a major advantage of digital recording over analog recording?
    • A. 

      Material can be edited generation after generation without noticeable degradation in quality.

    • B. 

      Material can be regenerated when the signal is converted to a different digital domain.

    • C. 

      The material recorded can be cloned with noticeable loss of quality.

    • D. 

      The recorded material can be converted to a different digital domain.

  • 44. 
    Which digital video tape format uses a 4:2:2 standard, with an 8 bit sampling rate, 19mmwide tape, and has a 94 minute recording time?
    • A. 

      D1

    • B. 

      D2

    • C. 

      D3

    • D. 

      D4

  • 45. 
    What is the means of measuring the amount of time that has been played or recorded on a video tape recorder (VTR)?
    • A. 

      Tape meter.

    • B. 

      Tracker.

    • C. 

      Counter.

    • D. 

      Display clock.

  • 46. 
    What part of the video switcher allows titles or other video scenes to be inserted into a full screen background?
    • A. 

      Effects keyer.

    • B. 

      Effects preview multiplier.

    • C. 

      Effects program multiplier.

    • D. 

      Transition pattern generator.

  • 47. 
    The GVG–110 video switcher effects key fills with
    • A. 

      Linear signal and chroma signal from the effects keyer.

    • B. 

      Key bus video or an internally-generated color matte signal.

    • C. 

      Key bus keying signal or an internally-generated color matte signal.

    • D. 

      Luminance signal and chroma key signal from the effects keyer.

  • 48. 
    The purpose of the GVG–110 general purpose contact-closure editor interface (GPI) is toallow
    • A. 

      Remote control of switcher transitions.

    • B. 

      Remote programming of all switcher functions.

    • C. 

      Parallel interface with the switcher effects memory.

    • D. 

      Serial interface programming with the switcher effects memory.

  • 49. 
    The GVG–110 video switcher serial interface allows
    • A. 

      Remote control of switcher transitions.

    • B. 

      Remote programming of all switcher functions.

    • C. 

      Serial interface programming with the switcher effects memory.

    • D. 

      Remote control of the switcher by a personal computer or digital picture manipulator.

  • 50. 
    What are the frequencies at which the two common mode nulling adjustments are set in the video distribution amplifier?
    • A. 

      60 Hz and 15,750 Hz.

    • B. 

      60 Hz and 5.5 MHz.

    • C. 

      15,750 Hz and 4.5 MHz.

    • D. 

      15,750 Hz and 5.5 MHz.

  • 51. 
    What is the beginning of a cable system called?
    • A. 

      Head-end.

    • B. 

      Trunk line.

    • C. 

      Receiver.

    • D. 

      Decoder.

  • 52. 
    What device is used to combine TV channels into a single line?
    • A. 

      Multiplexer.

    • B. 

      Demodulator.

    • C. 

      Modulator.

    • D. 

      Decoder.

  • 53. 
    What component carries the signal to individual subscribers? 
    • A. 

      Head-end.

    • B. 

      Trunk line.

    • C. 

      Receiver.

    • D. 

      Coax RJ–6.

  • 54. 
    What must a line of detection detect?
    • A. 

      Walking, running, rolling, crawling, or jumping through the line of detection.

    • B. 

      Walking, running, rolling, crawling, or jumping outside the line of detection.

    • C. 

      Potential for intruder to bypass the system.

    • D. 

      Possibility of equipment failures.

  • 55. 
    What is the main purpose of a boundary fence?
    • A. 

      Provide security forces (SF) personnel a safe place to work.

    • B. 

      Keep wildlife out of the perimeter detection zone.

    • C. 

      Facilitate the detection of intruders.

    • D. 

      To present a physical and psychological deterrent to unauthorized entry.

  • 56. 
    The security lighting inside the restricted area is used to
    • A. 

      Provide security forces personnel a safe working environment during night time hours.

    • B. 

      Identify wildlife inside the perimeter detection zone.

    • C. 

      Facilitate the detection and tracking of intruders.

    • D. 

      Present a means of deterring unauthorized entry.

  • 57. 
    The basic configuration of the entry control facility (ECF) includes a
    • A. 

      Gatehouse, vehicle parking area, and personnel entry gate.

    • B. 

      Gatehouse, personnel entry gate, inspection equipment, and vehicle entrapment area.

    • C. 

      Personnel entry gate, inspection equipment, backup generator, and gatehouse.

    • D. 

      Location for security personnel to perform shift change and receive their weapon.

  • 58. 
    What interior intrusion detection system (IIDS) is designed to detect intruders attempting to enter a shelter, storage igloo, or building?
    • A. 

      AN/GSS–42.

    • B. 

      AN/GSS–41.

    • C. 

      AN/GSS–29.

    • D. 

      AN/GSS–39.

  • 59. 
    What annunciator is used with the Advisor VIII control unit?
    • A. 

      Small annunciator system (SMAS).

    • B. 

      Standard annunciator system (STAS).

    • C. 

      Small permanent communications and display segment (SPCDS).

    • D. 

      Security monitoring and reporting terminal (SMART).

  • 60. 
    What does the AN/GSS–39 system use to monitor the integrity of all sensor wiring to thecontrol panel?
    • A. 

      End-of-line (EOL) resistor.

    • B. 

      Line termination unit.

    • C. 

      EOL module.

    • D. 

      Tamper interface unit.

  • 61. 
    Which sensor uses heat radiation to detect intruders?
    • A. 

      Ultrasonic.

    • B. 

      Microwave.

    • C. 

      Passive infrared.

    • D. 

      Dual-phenomenology.

  • 62. 
    What is the range of the alternate current (AC) presence time delay relay in the AN/GSS–39 system before a power loss is reported?
    • A. 

      1.5 to 10 seconds.

    • B. 

      1.5 to 15 seconds.

    • C. 

      3 to 10 seconds.

    • D. 

      5 to 15 seconds.

  • 63. 
    Between what ranges can you adjust the SDI–76 microwave sensor?
    • A. 

      15–50 feet.

    • B. 

      15–75 feet.

    • C. 

      25–75 feet.

    • D. 

      30–90 feet.

  • 64. 
    What type signal is sent to the fence protection system (FPS) signal processor when analarm is detected?
    • A. 

      Alternate current (AC).

    • B. 

      Direct current (DC).

    • C. 

      Digital.

    • D. 

      Analog.

  • 65. 
    A standard Air Force E-Flex II monitors how many meters?
    • A. 

      100

    • B. 

      150

    • C. 

      200

    • D. 

      300

  • 66. 
    Which is not a selectable option of the E-Flex II system?
    • A. 

      Alarm duration.

    • B. 

      Number of cuts.

    • C. 

      Cable sensitivity.

    • D. 

      Sector reporting priority.

  • 67. 
    What is the maximum length of the vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS)?
    • A. 

      150 feet.

    • B. 

      200 feet.

    • C. 

      328 feet.

    • D. 

      425 feet.

  • 68. 
    What is the maximum length of the Y taut-wire sensor (YTWS)?
    • A. 

      150 feet.

    • B. 

      200 feet.

    • C. 

      328 feet.

    • D. 

      425 feet.

  • 69. 
    What type alarm occurs if the sensor post cover in vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) isremoved?
    • A. 

      None.

    • B. 

      Tamper.

    • C. 

      Intruder.

    • D. 

      Equipment fault.

  • 70. 
    In the event of a power failure, how many hours can the vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS)remain operational? 
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      8

    • D. 

      10

  • 71. 
    How many inches is the beam width at the widest portion of the infrared perimeter detection sensor?
    • A. 

      0.5

    • B. 

      1

    • C. 

      2

    • D. 

      4

  • 72. 
    At what distance does the detection pattern of the infrared perimeter detection sensor(IPDS) transmitters change, and to what pattern does it change? 
    • A. 

      100 feet; signal transmitted to one receiver.

    • B. 

      150 feet; signal transmitted to one receiver.

    • C. 

      100 feet; signal transmitted to two receivers.

    • D. 

      150 feet; signal transmitted to two receivers.

  • 73. 
    What is the operating frequency of the synchronizing oscillator in the “A” sensor post of the infrared pulsed intrusion detection system (IPIDS)? 
    • A. 

      100 hertz (Hz).

    • B. 

      800 Hz.

    • C. 

      1000 Hz.

    • D. 

      1200 Hz.

  • 74. 
    What is the primary mode of detection for the microwave fence sensor?
    • A. 

      Beam break.

    • B. 

      Signal fade margin.

    • C. 

      Multipath deflection.

    • D. 

      Dual-phenomena reflection.

  • 75. 
    When aligning a microwave fence sensor, what reading do you look for from the automatic gain control (AGC) using a multimeter?
    • A. 

      Lowest possible.

    • B. 

      Highest possible.

    • C. 

      Equal to the phase lock loop (PLL).

    • D. 

      Midpoint.

  • 76. 
    How does the T-Bus relate to the function of the Promina?
    • A. 

      The processor communicates with the other cards in the module via the T-Bus.

    • B. 

      The T-Bus connects the Promina to other modules in the TDC suite.

    • C. 

      The front card communicates with the rear card through the T-Bus.

    • D. 

      The information that is multiplexed/demultiplexed travels over the T-Bus.

  • 77. 
    Asymmetric trunk operation provides more efficient use of bandwidth by
    • A. 

      Using two trunk cards in one Promina.

    • B. 

      Configuring a bundle consisting of 24 DS0s.

    • C. 

      Not utilizing the bandwidth in the opposite direction of a one-way call.

    • D. 

      Consuming bandwidth equally in both directions while preserving one-way communication.

  • 78. 
    Which module provides encryption/decryption of traffic into and out of the theaterdeployable communications/integrated communications access package (TDC/ICAP) network?
    • A. 

      Crypto Interface.

    • B. 

      Basic Access.

    • C. 

      Red Data.

    • D. 

      Crypto.

  • 79. 
    If all deployed and fixed locations use global positioning system (GPS) referenced clocks, we can eliminate crypto-sync loss due to
    • A. 

      Synchronization.

    • B. 

      Buffer overflow.

    • C. 

      Timing slips.

    • D. 

      Data speeds.

  • 80. 
    What is the maximum number of channels of voice and/or data traffic that the FCC–100 canhandle?
    • A. 

      12

    • B. 

      16

    • C. 

      24

    • D. 

      32

  • 81. 
    How many card slots does the FCC–100 have, and how many of them are available for user configuration?
    • A. 

      16, 8.

    • B. 

      12, 10.

    • C. 

      13, 8.

    • D. 

      13, 10.

  • 82. 
    For either secure or nonsecure data network in theater deployable communications (TDC), the Crypto Interface Module’s router normally acts as the
    • A. 

      Management console.

    • B. 

      Internal firewall.

    • C. 

      External router.

    • D. 

      Internal router.

  • 83. 
    For a theater deployable communications (TDC) network design that has the cryptointerface module (CIM) and the Promina Multiplexer (P-MUX) in separate locations, which piece of equipment is necessary? 
    • A. 

      KIV 19.

    • B. 

      KIV–7HS/B.

    • C. 

      CV–2048/8448-D.

    • D. 

      Cisco 3745 router.

  • 84. 
    The Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) Gateway Exchange (IGX) switch allowsfor stacks of up to 8 IGX switches, while the Avaya Prologix switch can operate in a stack of
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      6

    • C. 

      8

    • D. 

      2

  • 85. 
    The tactical interface gateway (TIG) uses what protocol to allow backwards compatibilitybetween the Avaya Prologix and legacy Triservice Tactical Communications (TRI-TAC)equipment?
    • A. 

      Transmission Control.

    • B. 

      User Datagram.

    • C. 

      File Transfer.

    • D. 

      Internet.

  • 86. 
    What configuration does the Red Data Module normally operate in?
    • A. 

      Stand alone.

    • B. 

      Client only.

    • C. 

      Gateway only.

    • D. 

      Gateway/client.

  • 87. 
    The next generation receive terminal (NGRT) accepts feeds from which two satellite bands?
    • A. 

      Ku, Ka

    • B. 

      C, X.

    • C. 

      Ku, X.

    • D. 

      Ka, C.

  • 88. 
    What receive broadcast manager (RBM) processes military specific and classifiedinformation? 
    • A. 

      Military.

    • B. 

      Type one.

    • C. 

      Managed.

    • D. 

      Classified.

  • 89. 
    Which piece of the receive broadcast manager (RBM) functions as a common television settop converter box?
    • A. 

      Managed Ethernet switch (MES).

    • B. 

      Display and keyboard.

    • C. 

      Video converter.

    • D. 

      RBM server.

  • 90. 
    A status acquisition message (SAM) is sent from
    • A. 

      Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).

    • B. 

      Defense Informaiton Technology Contracting Office (DITCO).

    • C. 

      The systems control facility (SCF).

    • D. 

      The end user.

  • 91. 
    Circuits that fail to meet all parameters specified in the appropriate technical schedule when test and acceptance (T&A) is done may not be accepted for service without the express approval of
    • A. 

      The user

    • B. 

      Circuit control office (CCO).

    • C. 

      Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).

    • D. 

      The Telecommunications Service Order (TSO) issuing authority.

  • 92. 
    Within how many normal duty hours of completion action on the TelecommunicationsService Order (TSO) must the circuit control office (CCO) submit an in-effect report? 
    • A. 

      72

    • B. 

      48

    • C. 

      24

    • D. 

      12

  • 93. 
    What report must be sent if the circuit does not meet all required parameters and theTelecommunications Service Order (TSO) issuing authority advises that the circuit is accepted for service?
    • A. 

      In-effect.

    • B. 

      Exception.

    • C. 

      Acceptance.

    • D. 

      Delayed service.

  • 94. 
    Trend Analysis is a program that trends all of these outage data except
    • A. 

      Outage times.

    • B. 

      Reason for outage.

    • C. 

      Number of outages.

    • D. 

      Preempted outages.

  • 95. 
    Trend Analysis is a program that ensures circuits meet management thresholds (MT) onwhat basis?
    • A. 

      Daily.

    • B. 

      Weekly.

    • C. 

      Monthly.

    • D. 

      Annual.

  • 96. 
    If a circuit fails its management threshold (MT), what test might be performed?
    • A. 

      Quality control (QC).

    • B. 

      Test and acceptance (T&A).

    • C. 

      Operations and maintenance (O&M).

    • D. 

      Operational acceptance.

  • 97. 
    The first position of a trunk identifier indicates the
    • A. 

      Responsible operations and maintenance (O&M) agency.

    • B. 

      “from” (sending) station.

    • C. 

      “to” (receiving) station.

    • D. 

      Type of trunk.

  • 98. 
    Which Defense Information Systems Agency Circular(s) (DISAC) contain informationneeded to assign a temporary command communications service designator (CCSD)? 
    • A. 

      310–55–1 only.

    • B. 

      300–175–9 only.

    • C. 

      310–70–1 and 310–55–1.

    • D. 

      310–70–1 and 300–175–9.

  • 99. 
    Which office or system confirms a restoration priority?
    • A. 

      Circuit control office (CCO).

    • B. 

      National Communications System (NCS).

    • C. 

      Systems control facility (SCF).

    • D. 

      Defense Communications System (DCS).

  • 100. 
    What are the two parts/priorities to the Telecommunications Service Priority (TSP)?
    • A. 

      Provisioning and restoration.

    • B. 

      Provisioning and recovery.

    • C. 

      Procurement and restoration.

    • D. 

      Procurement and recovery priority.