1s0x1 Volume 1

75 Questions | Total Attempts: 50

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Volume Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
     The overall goal of risk management (RM) is to
    • A. 

      A. identify potential risks and to adjust or compensate appropriately

    • B. 

      B. make risk decisions at a level of responsibility that corresponds to the degree of risk.

    • C. 

      C. reduce the hazards and risk to personnel to an acceptable level while continuing to execute the required missions successfully.

    • D. 

      D. identify risks using the same disciplined, organized, and logical thought processes that govern all other aspects of military endeavors.

  • 2. 
     The goals of risk management (RM) include all of the following except
    • A. 

      A. enhancing mission effectiveness

    • B. 

      B. identifying opportunities to increase Air Force war fighting effectiveness.

    • C. 

      C. accepting risks at the appropriate level to preserve mission accomplishment.

    • D. 

      D. creating an Air Force cultural mindset in which every employee is trained and motivated to manage risk in all their activities.

  • 3. 
     Which level of risk management (RM) is helpful in choosing an appropriate course of action when an unplanned event occurs during execution of a planned operation?
    • A. 

      A. Tactical

    • B. 

      B. Strategic

    • C. 

      C. Real-time.

    • D. 

      D. Deliberate

  • 4. 
     Who is the advisor in the risk management (RM) process?
    • A. 

      A. Functional manager.

    • B. 

      B. Commander

    • C. 

      C. Supervisor

    • D. 

      D. Safety staff.

  • 5. 
     What risk management (RM) term describes the expected consequences of an event in terms of mission impact, injury, and property damage?
    • A. 

      A. Assessment.

    • B. 

      B. Probability

    • C. 

      C. Exposure.

    • D. 

      D. Severity

  • 6. 
     Which risk management (RM) hazard identification tool requires little or no training because thousands of people are already familiar with it and know how to apply it in detecting risk?
    • A. 

      A. What if.

    • B. 

      B. Fishbone

    • C. 

      C. Cause and effect.

    • D. 

      D. Operations analysis.

  • 7. 
     In risk management (RM) the "appropriate level of management" means the
    • A. 

      A. level that can take disciplinary actions against safety violators

    • B. 

      B. commanders make all the decisions in regard to hazard abatement

    • C. 

      C. functional manager ensures that all hazard abatement is cost effective.

    • D. 

      D. level that can allocate the resources to reduce the risk or eliminate the hazard.

  • 8. 
    Which basic principle of risk management (RM) helps maximize unit capabilities by weighing risks against opportunities?
    • A. 

      A. Accept no unnecessary risk.

    • B. 

      B. Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.

    • C. 

      C. Accept risks when the benefits outweigh the cost.

    • D. 

      D. Integrate RM into Air Force doctrine and planning.

  • 9. 
    Which step of the risk management (RM) process describes risks as being more easily assessed and managed in the planning stages of an operation?
    • A. 

      A. Accept no unnecessary risk.

    • B. 

      B. Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.

    • C. 

      C. Accept risks when the benefits outweigh the cost.

    • D. 

      D. Integrate RM into Air Force doctrine and planning.

  • 10. 
    How many steps are in the risk management (RM) process?
    • A. 

      A. 4.

    • B. 

      B. 5.

    • C. 

      C. 8.

    • D. 

      D. 10.

  • 11. 
    Which step of the risk management (RM) process describes a strategy to identify who, what, when, where, and costs associated with the control measures?
    • A. 

      A. Assess hazards

    • B. 

      B. Identify hazards.

    • C. 

      C. Implement controls

    • D. 

      D. Develop controls and make decisions

  • 12. 
    Which step of the risk management (RM) process includes compiling a list of causes associated with each hazard?
    • A. 

      A. Develop controls and make decisions.

    • B. 

      B. Implement controls

    • C. 

      C. Identify hazards

    • D. 

      D. Assess hazards

  • 13. 
    Canceling a mission altogether is employing which risk control option?
    • A. 

      A. Spreading

    • B. 

      B. Reduction

    • C. 

      C. Avoidance

    • D. 

      D. Transference

  • 14. 
    Opting to send an unmanned drone instead of a manned aircraft into a hostile fire environment is employing which risk control option?
    • A. 

      A. Spreading

    • B. 

      B. Reduction

    • C. 

      C. Avoidance.

    • D. 

      D. Transference.

  • 15. 
    Conducting a job safety analysis (JSA) includes all of the following except
    • A. 

      A. recommending safe task procedures

    • B. 

      B. identifying potential mishap causes or hazards.

    • C. 

      C. breaking the task down into a basic sequence of steps.

    • D. 

      D. mitigating the risks involved with completing the task.

  • 16. 
    An analysis of the detailed procedures of an operation and how a deviation from these procedures could lead to a hazard is the definition of
    • A. 

      A. change analysis

    • B. 

      B. job safety analysis (JSA).

    • C. 

      C. operational hazard analysis (OHA).

    • D. 

      D. preliminary hazard analysis

  • 17. 
    Who has the primary responsibility for identifying work place hazards that place workers at risk?
    • A. 

      A. Supervisor

    • B. 

      B. Individual

    • C. 

      C. Commander

    • D. 

      D. Functional manager

  • 18. 
    The office of primary responsibility (OPR) for a hazard report (HR) must return the report to the safety office with action annotated within how many work days?
    • A. 

      A. 5.

    • B. 

      B. 10

    • C. 

      C. 20

    • D. 

      D. 30.

  • 19. 
    Who monitors the hazard report (HR) until the hazard is eliminated?
    • A. 

      A. Supervisor

    • B. 

      B. Commander.

    • C. 

      C. Safety office.

    • D. 

      D. Functional manager

  • 20. 
    Which hazard abatement measure recommends using protective equipment as a last resort?
    • A. 

      A. Personnel actions.

    • B. 

      B. Procedural actions

    • C. 

      C. Planning and engineering.

    • D. 

      D. Operation hazard analysis

  • 21. 
    Which hazard abatement measure involves the supervisor’s responsibility to effectively train and motivate workers?
    • A. 

      A. Personnel actions

    • B. 

      B. Procedural actions.

    • C. 

      C. Planning and engineering

    • D. 

      D. Operation hazard analysis (OHA).

  • 22. 
    Temporary measures taken to reduce the degree of risk associated with an occupational hazard or deficiency pending completion of an abatement program are called
    • A. 

      A. abatement priority measures

    • B. 

      B. imminent danger controls.

    • C. 

      C. interim control measures.

    • D. 

      D. risk assessment

  • 23. 
    If you encounter an imminent danger situation you should immediately notify
    • A. 

      A. your supervisor.

    • B. 

      B. the chief of safety (COS).

    • C. 

      C. the functional manager

    • D. 

      D. the ground safety manager.

  • 24. 
    Which forms may be used to post notices of hazards in a workplace?
    • A. 

      A. AF Form 979, Danger Tag, and AF Form 1118, Notice of Hazard.

    • B. 

      B. AF Form 979, Danger Tag, and AF Form 457, USAF Hazard Report

    • C. 

      C. AF Form 1118, Notice of Hazard, and AF Form 457, USAF Hazard Report.

    • D. 

      D. AF Form 1118, Notice of Hazard, AF Form 979, Danger Tag, and 457, USAF Hazard Report.

  • 25. 
    What are the two criteria used in determining the priority for abating a hazard?
    • A. 

      A. Severity and probability

    • B. 

      B. Severity and cost-effectiveness.

    • C. 

      C. Probability and mission requirements

    • D. 

      D. Mission requirements and cost-effectiveness.

  • 26. 
    An assessment of the likelihood that a hazard or deficiency will result in a mishap is called
    • A. 

      A. hazard abatement

    • B. 

      B. end analysis

    • C. 

      C. probability

    • D. 

      D. severity

  • 27. 
    How many risk assessment code (RAC) descriptions are used in the RAC matrix process?
    • A. 

      A. 2.

    • B. 

      B. 3.

    • C. 

      C. 4.

    • D. 

      D. 5.

  • 28. 
    The abatement priority number (APN) is a code consisting of the risk assessment code (RAC) and the
    • A. 

      A. probability

    • B. 

      B. personnel exposure

    • C. 

      C. cost effectiveness index

    • D. 

      D. severity and probability multiplier.

  • 29. 
    The safety office submits an end-of-fiscal-year Annual Hazard Abatement Survey report to the
    • A. 

      A. major command (MAJCOM).

    • B. 

      B. Air Force Safety Center (AFSEC).

    • C. 

      C. base civil engineer

    • D. 

      D. wing commander

  • 30. 
    What action is key to the success of your contingency plan?
    • A. 

      A. Updating the plan

    • B. 

      B. Practicing the plan.

    • C. 

      C. Training personnel

    • D. 

      D. Identifying dangers.

  • 31. 
    Operational plans are most often written at
    • A. 

      A. Air Force and major command (MAJCOM) levels

    • B. 

      B. MAJCOM, wing, and base levels

    • C. 

      C. wing, base, and squadron levels

    • D. 

      D. flight level

  • 32. 
    Peacetime deployments test
    • A. 

      A. aircraft weapons delivery

    • B. 

      B. effectiveness of wartime plans.

    • C. 

      C. airlift of material and personnel

    • D. 

      D. how well personnel perform under adverse conditions.

  • 33. 
    As the safety representative your primary duties during the deployment phase of an operation of your unit are
    • A. 

      A. reporting mishaps and attending aircrew briefings

    • B. 

      B. monitoring your unit’s flight-line activities and reporting mishaps

    • C. 

      C. attending aircrew briefings and reporting any problems to management

    • D. 

      D. monitoring your unit and support unit activities and reporting any problems to management

  • 34. 
    Site planning is based on the recommendation of the Facility Utilization Board (FUB) and approved by the
    • A. 

      A. wing commander.

    • B. 

      B. base civil engineer.

    • C. 

      C. contracting officer (CO).

    • D. 

      D. squadron commander receiving the building.

  • 35. 
    At which points in the design process are predesign reviews accomplished?
    • A. 

      A. 35, 65, 95, and 100 percent

    • B. 

      B. 35, 50, 75, and 100 percent.

    • C. 

      C. 25, 50, 75, and 100 percent

    • D. 

      D. 25, 65, 95, and 100 percent.

  • 36. 
    Which document can you use to get started when dealing with a specific contract?
    • A. 

      A. Statement of Need.

    • B. 

      B. Preaward Survey.

    • C. 

      C. Statement of Work

    • D. 

      D. Preaward Contract.

  • 37. 
    What type of contract is used to modify existing facilities?
    • A. 

      A. Service.

    • B. 

      B. Renovation

    • C. 

      C. Construction

    • D. 

      D. Local purchase

  • 38. 
    Which agency or office performs the preaward survey?
    • A. 

      A. Major command (MAJCOM) Contracting Office (CO).

    • B. 

      B. Air Force Contract Management Agency.

    • C. 

      C. Defense Contract Management Agency (DCMA).

    • D. 

      D. Base CO

  • 39. 
    How often are support agreements reviewed for "other than budgetary considerations"?
    • A. 

      A. Every 3 years (triennially).

    • B. 

      B. Every 2 years (biennially).

    • C. 

      C. Twice a year

    • D. 

      D. Annually

  • 40. 
    A supplier may not end or reduce support without giving the receiver written notice within
    • A. 

      A. 60 calendar days

    • B. 

      B. 90 calendar days.

    • C. 

      C. 120 calendar days.

    • D. 

      D. 180 calendar days

  • 41. 
    A financial blueprint for a specific period of time is called a
    • A. 

      A. budget

    • B. 

      B. financial plan.

    • C. 

      C. budget statement

    • D. 

      D. financial statement of work

  • 42. 
    Which section of the Air Force Manpower Standard (AFMS) 106A describes a wing safety office’s duties during normal peacetime operations?
    • A. 

      A. Responsibilities

    • B. 

      B. Core composition

    • C. 

      C. Mission statement

    • D. 

      D. Process oriented description

  • 43. 
    Geographically separated units safety programs are assessed at intervals not to exceed
    • A. 

      A. 2 years

    • B. 

      B. 3 years.

    • C. 

      C. 4 years.

    • D. 

      D. 5 years

  • 44. 
    The safety inspection system is based on what three types of inspections?
    • A. 

      A. Annual, spot, and staff assistance.

    • B. 

      B. Annual, spot, and high interest area.

    • C. 

      C. Spot, staff assistance, and evaluation

    • D. 

      D. Spot, high interest area, and staff assistance

  • 45. 
    Which inspection is conducted to check the day-to-day safety and health of an organization?
    • A. 

      A. Spot

    • B. 

      B. Annual.

    • C. 

      C. High interest

    • D. 

      D. Staff assistance

  • 46. 
    Which activity is conducted to specifically help a unit come up with solutions to problems?
    • A. 

      A. Assessment

    • B. 

      B. Evaluation

    • C. 

      C. Safety review

    • D. 

      D. Staff assistance visit (SAV).

  • 47. 
    What information is contained in a standard Air Force checklist?
    • A. 

      A. Only Air Force Instruction (AFI) standards and Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) standards

    • B. 

      B. Identification of activity, checklist items, and notation of reference material.

    • C. 

      C. Only checklist items, AFI references, and OSHA references

    • D. 

      D. Only the activity being inspected and checklist items.

  • 48. 
    What are two types of commonly used inspection checklists?
    • A. 

      A. Air Force standard and work card.

    • B. 

      B. Preprinted and Air Force standard.

    • C. 

      C. Preprinted and personally made.

    • D. 

      D. Technical order and Air Force standard.

  • 49. 
    The purpose of an outbriefing after an inspection is to discuss
    • A. 

      A. potential write ups.

    • B. 

      B. all superior performers

    • C. 

      C. your findings and recommendations

    • D. 

      D. the commander’s utilization of assigned manpower

  • 50. 
    In addition to the unit commander, send a copy of a tenant unit’s annual inspection report to the
    • A. 

      A. major command (MAJCOM) safety office

    • B. 

      B. unit safety representative

    • C. 

      C. unit’s parent safety office

    • D. 

      D. Air Force safety center (AFSEC).

  • 51. 
    Action taken to make certain that reported discrepancies have been or are being corrected is called
    • A. 

      A. priority action

    • B. 

      B. follow-up action

    • C. 

      C. an inspection survey.

    • D. 

      D. an inspection analysis

  • 52. 
    A Single Investigation Officer (SIO) investigates what types of mishaps?
    • A. 

      A. Class A, B, and C.

    • B. 

      B. Class B, C, and D.

    • C. 

      C. Class C, D, and E

    • D. 

      D. Class D, E, and high accident reports (HAP).

  • 53. 
    When a board is appointed to investigate a Class A on-duty mishap, the president must be at least a
    • A. 

      A. colonel or GS–13.

    • B. 

      B. colonel or GS–15.

    • C. 

      C. lieutenant colonel or GS–13.

    • D. 

      D. lieutenant colonel or GM–15.

  • 54. 
    When multiple major commands (MAJCOM) have assets involved in a mishap and cannot reach an agreement as to who is accountable which agency determines accountability?
    • A. 

      A. HQ USAF/SE

    • B. 

      B. HQ USAF/JA

    • C. 

      C. HQ AFSEC/SE.

    • D. 

      D. HQ AFSEC/JA.

  • 55. 
    Information that is exempt from release outside the Air Force community by statute or case law is known as
    • A. 

      A. secret

    • B. 

      B. top secret

    • C. 

      C. privileged

    • D. 

      D. confidential.

  • 56. 
    Hiding the relationship between the identity of a mishap and the findings, causes, and recommendations is called
    • A. 

      A. washing the report

    • B. 

      B. sanitizing the report

    • C. 

      C. scrubbing the report.

    • D. 

      D. disassociating the report.

  • 57. 
    The purpose of giving a witness a promise of confidentiality during a mishap investigation is to
    • A. 

      A. protect the identity of a witness

    • B. 

      B. ensure that the witness will not be prosecuted.

    • C. 

      C. ensure that the witness tells the truth under oath

    • D. 

      D. encourage open and frank communication with the witnesses

  • 58. 
    The main reason safety responds to all major accidents and disaster sites is to
    • A. 

      A. identify witnesses

    • B. 

      B. ensure the evidence is not disturbed

    • C. 

      C. observe conditions as they were at the time of the mishap

    • D. 

      D. provide technical support and consultation to commanders.

  • 59. 
    How long after a Class A mishap occurs must the status message be sent?
    • A. 

      A. 24 hours.

    • B. 

      B. 3 days.

    • C. 

      C. 7 days

    • D. 

      D. 10 days.

  • 60. 
    Which investigative technique is used to look for too many parts or evidence of foreign object damage (FOD)?
    • A. 

      A. Operational analysis

    • B. 

      B. Fire pattern analysis

    • C. 

      C. Maintenance analysis

    • D. 

      D. System and subsystem analysis

  • 61. 
    Space mishaps are divided into how many subcategories?
    • A. 

      A. 3.

    • B. 

      B. 4.

    • C. 

      C. 5.

    • D. 

      D. 6.

  • 62. 
    Vehicle mishaps are divided into how many subcategories?
    • A. 

      A. 2.

    • B. 

      B. 3.

    • C. 

      C. 4.

    • D. 

      D. 5.

  • 63. 
    Mishaps involving injuries that occur during participation in some form of duty-related athletic or recreational sport activity is categorized as
    • A. 

      A. on-duty—sports and recreation.

    • B. 

      B. off-duty—sports and recreation

    • C. 

      C. ground and industrial—sports and recreation

    • D. 

      D. ground and industrial—physical conditioning.

  • 64. 
    How many parts does a privileged formal safety report contain?
    • A. 

      A. 2.

    • B. 

      B. 3.

    • C. 

      C. 4.

    • D. 

      D. 5.

  • 65. 
    What are mishap findings based on?
    • A. 

      A. Investigator’s best judgment

    • B. 

      B. Professional knowledge

    • C. 

      C. Weight of the evidence

    • D. 

      D. All of the above

  • 66. 
    Mishap report recommendations should be both
    • A. 

      A. feasible and effective

    • B. 

      B. sensible and effective.

    • C. 

      C. obtainable and sensible

    • D. 

      D. obtainable and feasible

  • 67. 
    The purpose of a recommendation in a mishap investigation report is to
    • A. 

      A. highlight weak areas.

    • B. 

      B. communicate lessons learned

    • C. 

      C. prevent or mitigate future mishaps.

    • D. 

      D. implement new strategies in injury prevention

  • 68. 
    A thorough mishap investigation is absolutely necessary not only to determine the events causal to a mishap but also to
    • A. 

      A. recommend corrective actions to prevent recurrence.

    • B. 

      B. determine blame for failure to follow written standards

    • C. 

      C. determine cost of mishap to support disciplinary actions.

    • D. 

      D. recommend appropriate emergency response for mishaps.

  • 69. 
    The Air Force Safety Center (AFSEC) is the approval authority for closure of primary recommendations for what classes of mishaps?
    • A. 

      A. Only A & B on-duty

    • B. 

      B. Only A & B off-duty

    • C. 

      C. Only C, D & E with office of primary responsibility (OPR) at major command (MAJCOM).

    • D. 

      D. Only C, D & E with OPR at wing, group or squadron.

  • 70. 
    Follow up actions for mishap reports begin after
    • A. 

      A. release of the final message

    • B. 

      B. the recommendations are implemented

    • C. 

      C. the recommended corrective actions are implemented

    • D. 

      D. the investigator receives confirmation that corrective actions have been implemented

  • 71. 
    What agency prepares of the memorandum of final evaluation for on-duty Class A and B formal ground mishap reports?
    • A. 

      A. Occupational Health and Safety Administration (OSHA).

    • B. 

      B. The major command (MAJCOM).

    • C. 

      C. Air Force Safety Center (AFSEC).

    • D. 

      D. The reporting unit.

  • 72. 
    The end result of an analysis is useless unless the recommended action is
    • A. 

      A. reviewed by the installation commander

    • B. 

      B. widely distributed throughout the base

    • C. 

      C. addressed to an action agency.

    • D. 

      D. all of the above

  • 73. 
    The desired result of recommendations stemming from any analysis program is to
    • A. 

      A. select a unit for a safety award

    • B. 

      B. obtain lasting corrective action

    • C. 

      C. determine who is at fault in a mishap

    • D. 

      D. assign mishap rates to the applicable unit.

  • 74. 
    What investigation tool provides a multidimensional approach to error analysis?
    • A. 

      A. Human factors

    • B. 

      B. Hazard reporting

    • C. 

      C. Risk management (RM).

    • D. 

      D. Mishap prevention

  • 75. 
    The cross-feed of human error data using a common human error categorization system that involves human factors taxonomy describes the
    • A. 

      A. Human Factors Analysis and Classification System (HFACS).

    • B. 

      B. Mishap Reporting System and Classification System.

    • C. 

      C. Human Factors Analysis and Characterization System.

    • D. 

      D. Mishap Reporting System and Characterization System