1s0x1 Volume 1

75 Questions | Total Attempts: 53

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Volume Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
     The overall goal of risk management (RM) is to
    • A. 

      A. identify potential risks and to adjust or compensate appropriately

    • B. 

      B. make risk decisions at a level of responsibility that corresponds to the degree of risk.

    • C. 

      C. reduce the hazards and risk to personnel to an acceptable level while continuing to execute the required missions successfully.

    • D. 

      D. identify risks using the same disciplined, organized, and logical thought processes that govern all other aspects of military endeavors.

  • 2. 
     The goals of risk management (RM) include all of the following except
    • A. 

      A. enhancing mission effectiveness

    • B. 

      B. identifying opportunities to increase Air Force war fighting effectiveness.

    • C. 

      C. accepting risks at the appropriate level to preserve mission accomplishment.

    • D. 

      D. creating an Air Force cultural mindset in which every employee is trained and motivated to manage risk in all their activities.

  • 3. 
     Which level of risk management (RM) is helpful in choosing an appropriate course of action when an unplanned event occurs during execution of a planned operation?
    • A. 

      A. Tactical

    • B. 

      B. Strategic

    • C. 

      C. Real-time.

    • D. 

      D. Deliberate

  • 4. 
     Who is the advisor in the risk management (RM) process?
    • A. 

      A. Functional manager.

    • B. 

      B. Commander

    • C. 

      C. Supervisor

    • D. 

      D. Safety staff.

  • 5. 
     What risk management (RM) term describes the expected consequences of an event in terms of mission impact, injury, and property damage?
    • A. 

      A. Assessment.

    • B. 

      B. Probability

    • C. 

      C. Exposure.

    • D. 

      D. Severity

  • 6. 
     Which risk management (RM) hazard identification tool requires little or no training because thousands of people are already familiar with it and know how to apply it in detecting risk?
    • A. 

      A. What if.

    • B. 

      B. Fishbone

    • C. 

      C. Cause and effect.

    • D. 

      D. Operations analysis.

  • 7. 
     In risk management (RM) the "appropriate level of management" means the
    • A. 

      A. level that can take disciplinary actions against safety violators

    • B. 

      B. commanders make all the decisions in regard to hazard abatement

    • C. 

      C. functional manager ensures that all hazard abatement is cost effective.

    • D. 

      D. level that can allocate the resources to reduce the risk or eliminate the hazard.

  • 8. 
    Which basic principle of risk management (RM) helps maximize unit capabilities by weighing risks against opportunities?
    • A. 

      A. Accept no unnecessary risk.

    • B. 

      B. Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.

    • C. 

      C. Accept risks when the benefits outweigh the cost.

    • D. 

      D. Integrate RM into Air Force doctrine and planning.

  • 9. 
    Which step of the risk management (RM) process describes risks as being more easily assessed and managed in the planning stages of an operation?
    • A. 

      A. Accept no unnecessary risk.

    • B. 

      B. Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.

    • C. 

      C. Accept risks when the benefits outweigh the cost.

    • D. 

      D. Integrate RM into Air Force doctrine and planning.

  • 10. 
    How many steps are in the risk management (RM) process?
    • A. 

      A. 4.

    • B. 

      B. 5.

    • C. 

      C. 8.

    • D. 

      D. 10.

  • 11. 
    Which step of the risk management (RM) process describes a strategy to identify who, what, when, where, and costs associated with the control measures?
    • A. 

      A. Assess hazards

    • B. 

      B. Identify hazards.

    • C. 

      C. Implement controls

    • D. 

      D. Develop controls and make decisions

  • 12. 
    Which step of the risk management (RM) process includes compiling a list of causes associated with each hazard?
    • A. 

      A. Develop controls and make decisions.

    • B. 

      B. Implement controls

    • C. 

      C. Identify hazards

    • D. 

      D. Assess hazards

  • 13. 
    Canceling a mission altogether is employing which risk control option?
    • A. 

      A. Spreading

    • B. 

      B. Reduction

    • C. 

      C. Avoidance

    • D. 

      D. Transference

  • 14. 
    Opting to send an unmanned drone instead of a manned aircraft into a hostile fire environment is employing which risk control option?
    • A. 

      A. Spreading

    • B. 

      B. Reduction

    • C. 

      C. Avoidance.

    • D. 

      D. Transference.

  • 15. 
    Conducting a job safety analysis (JSA) includes all of the following except
    • A. 

      A. recommending safe task procedures

    • B. 

      B. identifying potential mishap causes or hazards.

    • C. 

      C. breaking the task down into a basic sequence of steps.

    • D. 

      D. mitigating the risks involved with completing the task.

  • 16. 
    An analysis of the detailed procedures of an operation and how a deviation from these procedures could lead to a hazard is the definition of
    • A. 

      A. change analysis

    • B. 

      B. job safety analysis (JSA).

    • C. 

      C. operational hazard analysis (OHA).

    • D. 

      D. preliminary hazard analysis

  • 17. 
    Who has the primary responsibility for identifying work place hazards that place workers at risk?
    • A. 

      A. Supervisor

    • B. 

      B. Individual

    • C. 

      C. Commander

    • D. 

      D. Functional manager

  • 18. 
    The office of primary responsibility (OPR) for a hazard report (HR) must return the report to the safety office with action annotated within how many work days?
    • A. 

      A. 5.

    • B. 

      B. 10

    • C. 

      C. 20

    • D. 

      D. 30.

  • 19. 
    Who monitors the hazard report (HR) until the hazard is eliminated?
    • A. 

      A. Supervisor

    • B. 

      B. Commander.

    • C. 

      C. Safety office.

    • D. 

      D. Functional manager

  • 20. 
    Which hazard abatement measure recommends using protective equipment as a last resort?
    • A. 

      A. Personnel actions.

    • B. 

      B. Procedural actions

    • C. 

      C. Planning and engineering.

    • D. 

      D. Operation hazard analysis

  • 21. 
    Which hazard abatement measure involves the supervisor’s responsibility to effectively train and motivate workers?
    • A. 

      A. Personnel actions

    • B. 

      B. Procedural actions.

    • C. 

      C. Planning and engineering

    • D. 

      D. Operation hazard analysis (OHA).

  • 22. 
    Temporary measures taken to reduce the degree of risk associated with an occupational hazard or deficiency pending completion of an abatement program are called
    • A. 

      A. abatement priority measures

    • B. 

      B. imminent danger controls.

    • C. 

      C. interim control measures.

    • D. 

      D. risk assessment

  • 23. 
    If you encounter an imminent danger situation you should immediately notify
    • A. 

      A. your supervisor.

    • B. 

      B. the chief of safety (COS).

    • C. 

      C. the functional manager

    • D. 

      D. the ground safety manager.

  • 24. 
    Which forms may be used to post notices of hazards in a workplace?
    • A. 

      A. AF Form 979, Danger Tag, and AF Form 1118, Notice of Hazard.

    • B. 

      B. AF Form 979, Danger Tag, and AF Form 457, USAF Hazard Report

    • C. 

      C. AF Form 1118, Notice of Hazard, and AF Form 457, USAF Hazard Report.

    • D. 

      D. AF Form 1118, Notice of Hazard, AF Form 979, Danger Tag, and 457, USAF Hazard Report.

  • 25. 
    What are the two criteria used in determining the priority for abating a hazard?
    • A. 

      A. Severity and probability

    • B. 

      B. Severity and cost-effectiveness.

    • C. 

      C. Probability and mission requirements

    • D. 

      D. Mission requirements and cost-effectiveness.