1s0x1 Volume 1
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- 1.The overall goal of risk management (RM) is to
- A.
A. identify potential risks and to adjust or compensate appropriately
- B.
B. make risk decisions at a level of responsibility that corresponds to the degree of risk.
- C.
C. reduce the hazards and risk to personnel to an acceptable level while continuing to execute the required missions successfully.
- D.
D. identify risks using the same disciplined, organized, and logical thought processes that govern all other aspects of military endeavors.
- 2.The goals of risk management (RM) include all of the following except
- A.
A. enhancing mission effectiveness
- B.
B. identifying opportunities to increase Air Force war fighting effectiveness.
- C.
C. accepting risks at the appropriate level to preserve mission accomplishment.
- D.
D. creating an Air Force cultural mindset in which every employee is trained and motivated to manage risk in all their activities.
- 3.Which level of risk management (RM) is helpful in choosing an appropriate course of action when an unplanned event occurs during execution of a planned operation?
- A.
A. Tactical
- B.
B. Strategic
- C.
C. Real-time.
- D.
D. Deliberate
- 4.Who is the advisor in the risk management (RM) process?
- A.
A. Functional manager.
- B.
B. Commander
- C.
C. Supervisor
- D.
D. Safety staff.
- 5.What risk management (RM) term describes the expected consequences of an event in terms of mission impact, injury, and property damage?
- A.
A. Assessment.
- B.
B. Probability
- C.
C. Exposure.
- D.
D. Severity
- 6.Which risk management (RM) hazard identification tool requires little or no training because thousands of people are already familiar with it and know how to apply it in detecting risk?
- A.
A. What if.
- B.
B. Fishbone
- C.
C. Cause and effect.
- D.
D. Operations analysis.
- 7.In risk management (RM) the "appropriate level of management" means the
- A.
A. level that can take disciplinary actions against safety violators
- B.
B. commanders make all the decisions in regard to hazard abatement
- C.
C. functional manager ensures that all hazard abatement is cost effective.
- D.
D. level that can allocate the resources to reduce the risk or eliminate the hazard.
- 8.Which basic principle of risk management (RM) helps maximize unit capabilities by weighing risks against opportunities?
- A.
A. Accept no unnecessary risk.
- B.
B. Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.
- C.
C. Accept risks when the benefits outweigh the cost.
- D.
D. Integrate RM into Air Force doctrine and planning.
- 9.Which step of the risk management (RM) process describes risks as being more easily assessed and managed in the planning stages of an operation?
- A.
A. Accept no unnecessary risk.
- B.
B. Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.
- C.
C. Accept risks when the benefits outweigh the cost.
- D.
D. Integrate RM into Air Force doctrine and planning.
- 10.How many steps are in the risk management (RM) process?
- A.
A. 4.
- B.
B. 5.
- C.
C. 8.
- D.
D. 10.
- 11.Which step of the risk management (RM) process describes a strategy to identify who, what, when, where, and costs associated with the control measures?
- A.
A. Assess hazards
- B.
B. Identify hazards.
- C.
C. Implement controls
- D.
D. Develop controls and make decisions
- 12.Which step of the risk management (RM) process includes compiling a list of causes associated with each hazard?
- A.
A. Develop controls and make decisions.
- B.
B. Implement controls
- C.
C. Identify hazards
- D.
D. Assess hazards
- 13.Canceling a mission altogether is employing which risk control option?
- A.
A. Spreading
- B.
B. Reduction
- C.
C. Avoidance
- D.
D. Transference
- 14.Opting to send an unmanned drone instead of a manned aircraft into a hostile fire environment is employing which risk control option?
- A.
A. Spreading
- B.
B. Reduction
- C.
C. Avoidance.
- D.
D. Transference.
- 15.Conducting a job safety analysis (JSA) includes all of the following except
- A.
A. recommending safe task procedures
- B.
B. identifying potential mishap causes or hazards.
- C.
C. breaking the task down into a basic sequence of steps.
- D.
D. mitigating the risks involved with completing the task.
- 16.An analysis of the detailed procedures of an operation and how a deviation from these procedures could lead to a hazard is the definition of
- A.
A. change analysis
- B.
B. job safety analysis (JSA).
- C.
C. operational hazard analysis (OHA).
- D.
D. preliminary hazard analysis
- 17.Who has the primary responsibility for identifying work place hazards that place workers at risk?
- A.
A. Supervisor
- B.
B. Individual
- C.
C. Commander
- D.
D. Functional manager
- 18.The office of primary responsibility (OPR) for a hazard report (HR) must return the report to the safety office with action annotated within how many work days?
- A.
A. 5.
- B.
B. 10
- C.
C. 20
- D.
D. 30.
- 19.Who monitors the hazard report (HR) until the hazard is eliminated?
- A.
A. Supervisor
- B.
B. Commander.
- C.
C. Safety office.
- D.
D. Functional manager
- 20.Which hazard abatement measure recommends using protective equipment as a last resort?
- A.
A. Personnel actions.
- B.
B. Procedural actions
- C.
C. Planning and engineering.
- D.
D. Operation hazard analysis
- 21.Which hazard abatement measure involves the supervisor’s responsibility to effectively train and motivate workers?
- A.
A. Personnel actions
- B.
B. Procedural actions.
- C.
C. Planning and engineering
- D.
D. Operation hazard analysis (OHA).
- 22.Temporary measures taken to reduce the degree of risk associated with an occupational hazard or deficiency pending completion of an abatement program are called
- A.
A. abatement priority measures
- B.
B. imminent danger controls.
- C.
C. interim control measures.
- D.
D. risk assessment
- 23.If you encounter an imminent danger situation you should immediately notify
- A.
A. your supervisor.
- B.
B. the chief of safety (COS).
- C.
C. the functional manager
- D.
D. the ground safety manager.
- 24.Which forms may be used to post notices of hazards in a workplace?
- A.
A. AF Form 979, Danger Tag, and AF Form 1118, Notice of Hazard.
- B.
B. AF Form 979, Danger Tag, and AF Form 457, USAF Hazard Report
- C.
C. AF Form 1118, Notice of Hazard, and AF Form 457, USAF Hazard Report.
- D.
D. AF Form 1118, Notice of Hazard, AF Form 979, Danger Tag, and 457, USAF Hazard Report.
- 25.What are the two criteria used in determining the priority for abating a hazard?
- A.
A. Severity and probability
- B.
B. Severity and cost-effectiveness.
- C.
C. Probability and mission requirements
- D.
D. Mission requirements and cost-effectiveness.
- 26.An assessment of the likelihood that a hazard or deficiency will result in a mishap is called
- A.
A. hazard abatement
- B.
B. end analysis
- C.
C. probability
- D.
D. severity
- 27.How many risk assessment code (RAC) descriptions are used in the RAC matrix process?
- A.
A. 2.
- B.
B. 3.
- C.
C. 4.
- D.
D. 5.
- 28.The abatement priority number (APN) is a code consisting of the risk assessment code (RAC) and the
- A.
A. probability
- B.
B. personnel exposure
- C.
C. cost effectiveness index
- D.
D. severity and probability multiplier.
- 29.The safety office submits an end-of-fiscal-year Annual Hazard Abatement Survey report to the
- A.
A. major command (MAJCOM).
- B.
B. Air Force Safety Center (AFSEC).
- C.
C. base civil engineer
- D.
D. wing commander
- 30.What action is key to the success of your contingency plan?
- A.
A. Updating the plan
- B.
B. Practicing the plan.
- C.
C. Training personnel
- D.
D. Identifying dangers.
- 31.Operational plans are most often written at
- A.
A. Air Force and major command (MAJCOM) levels
- B.
B. MAJCOM, wing, and base levels
- C.
C. wing, base, and squadron levels
- D.
D. flight level
- 32.Peacetime deployments test
- A.
A. aircraft weapons delivery
- B.
B. effectiveness of wartime plans.
- C.
C. airlift of material and personnel
- D.
D. how well personnel perform under adverse conditions.
- 33.As the safety representative your primary duties during the deployment phase of an operation of your unit are
- A.
A. reporting mishaps and attending aircrew briefings
- B.
B. monitoring your unit’s flight-line activities and reporting mishaps
- C.
C. attending aircrew briefings and reporting any problems to management
- D.
D. monitoring your unit and support unit activities and reporting any problems to management
- 34.Site planning is based on the recommendation of the Facility Utilization Board (FUB) and approved by the
- A.
A. wing commander.
- B.
B. base civil engineer.
- C.
C. contracting officer (CO).
- D.
D. squadron commander receiving the building.
- 35.At which points in the design process are predesign reviews accomplished?
- A.
A. 35, 65, 95, and 100 percent
- B.
B. 35, 50, 75, and 100 percent.
- C.
C. 25, 50, 75, and 100 percent
- D.
D. 25, 65, 95, and 100 percent.
- 36.Which document can you use to get started when dealing with a specific contract?
- A.
A. Statement of Need.
- B.
B. Preaward Survey.
- C.
C. Statement of Work
- D.
D. Preaward Contract.
- 37.What type of contract is used to modify existing facilities?
- A.
A. Service.
- B.
B. Renovation
- C.
C. Construction
- D.
D. Local purchase
- 38.Which agency or office performs the preaward survey?
- A.
A. Major command (MAJCOM) Contracting Office (CO).
- B.
B. Air Force Contract Management Agency.
- C.
C. Defense Contract Management Agency (DCMA).
- D.
D. Base CO
- 39.How often are support agreements reviewed for "other than budgetary considerations"?
- A.
A. Every 3 years (triennially).
- B.
B. Every 2 years (biennially).
- C.
C. Twice a year
- D.
D. Annually
- 40.A supplier may not end or reduce support without giving the receiver written notice within
- A.
A. 60 calendar days
- B.
B. 90 calendar days.
- C.
C. 120 calendar days.
- D.
D. 180 calendar days
- 41.A financial blueprint for a specific period of time is called a
- A.
A. budget
- B.
B. financial plan.
- C.
C. budget statement
- D.
D. financial statement of work
- 42.Which section of the Air Force Manpower Standard (AFMS) 106A describes a wing safety office’s duties during normal peacetime operations?
- A.
A. Responsibilities
- B.
B. Core composition
- C.
C. Mission statement
- D.
D. Process oriented description
- 43.Geographically separated units safety programs are assessed at intervals not to exceed
- A.
A. 2 years
- B.
B. 3 years.
- C.
C. 4 years.
- D.
D. 5 years
- 44.The safety inspection system is based on what three types of inspections?
- A.
A. Annual, spot, and staff assistance.
- B.
B. Annual, spot, and high interest area.
- C.
C. Spot, staff assistance, and evaluation
- D.
D. Spot, high interest area, and staff assistance
- 45.Which inspection is conducted to check the day-to-day safety and health of an organization?
- A.
A. Spot
- B.
B. Annual.
- C.
C. High interest
- D.
D. Staff assistance
- 46.Which activity is conducted to specifically help a unit come up with solutions to problems?
- A.
A. Assessment
- B.
B. Evaluation
- C.
C. Safety review
- D.
D. Staff assistance visit (SAV).
- 47.What information is contained in a standard Air Force checklist?
- A.
A. Only Air Force Instruction (AFI) standards and Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) standards
- B.
B. Identification of activity, checklist items, and notation of reference material.
- C.
C. Only checklist items, AFI references, and OSHA references
- D.
D. Only the activity being inspected and checklist items.
- 48.What are two types of commonly used inspection checklists?
- A.
A. Air Force standard and work card.
- B.
B. Preprinted and Air Force standard.
- C.
C. Preprinted and personally made.
- D.
D. Technical order and Air Force standard.
- 49.The purpose of an outbriefing after an inspection is to discuss
- A.
A. potential write ups.
- B.
B. all superior performers
- C.
C. your findings and recommendations
- D.
D. the commander’s utilization of assigned manpower
- 50.In addition to the unit commander, send a copy of a tenant unit’s annual inspection report to the
- A.
A. major command (MAJCOM) safety office
- B.
B. unit safety representative
- C.
C. unit’s parent safety office
- D.
D. Air Force safety center (AFSEC).
- 51.Action taken to make certain that reported discrepancies have been or are being corrected is called
- A.
A. priority action
- B.
B. follow-up action
- C.
C. an inspection survey.
- D.
D. an inspection analysis
- 52.A Single Investigation Officer (SIO) investigates what types of mishaps?
- A.
A. Class A, B, and C.
- B.
B. Class B, C, and D.
- C.
C. Class C, D, and E
- D.
D. Class D, E, and high accident reports (HAP).
- 53.When a board is appointed to investigate a Class A on-duty mishap, the president must be at least a
- A.
A. colonel or GS–13.
- B.
B. colonel or GS–15.
- C.
C. lieutenant colonel or GS–13.
- D.
D. lieutenant colonel or GM–15.
- 54.When multiple major commands (MAJCOM) have assets involved in a mishap and cannot reach an agreement as to who is accountable which agency determines accountability?
- A.
A. HQ USAF/SE
- B.
B. HQ USAF/JA
- C.
C. HQ AFSEC/SE.
- D.
D. HQ AFSEC/JA.
- 55.Information that is exempt from release outside the Air Force community by statute or case law is known as
- A.
A. secret
- B.
B. top secret
- C.
C. privileged
- D.
D. confidential.
- 56.Hiding the relationship between the identity of a mishap and the findings, causes, and recommendations is called
- A.
A. washing the report
- B.
B. sanitizing the report
- C.
C. scrubbing the report.
- D.
D. disassociating the report.
- 57.The purpose of giving a witness a promise of confidentiality during a mishap investigation is to
- A.
A. protect the identity of a witness
- B.
B. ensure that the witness will not be prosecuted.
- C.
C. ensure that the witness tells the truth under oath
- D.
D. encourage open and frank communication with the witnesses
- 58.The main reason safety responds to all major accidents and disaster sites is to
- A.
A. identify witnesses
- B.
B. ensure the evidence is not disturbed
- C.
C. observe conditions as they were at the time of the mishap
- D.
D. provide technical support and consultation to commanders.
- 59.How long after a Class A mishap occurs must the status message be sent?
- A.
A. 24 hours.
- B.
B. 3 days.
- C.
C. 7 days
- D.
D. 10 days.
- 60.Which investigative technique is used to look for too many parts or evidence of foreign object damage (FOD)?
- A.
A. Operational analysis
- B.
B. Fire pattern analysis
- C.
C. Maintenance analysis
- D.
D. System and subsystem analysis
- 61.Space mishaps are divided into how many subcategories?
- A.
A. 3.
- B.
B. 4.
- C.
C. 5.
- D.
D. 6.
- 62.Vehicle mishaps are divided into how many subcategories?
- A.
A. 2.
- B.
B. 3.
- C.
C. 4.
- D.
D. 5.
- 63.Mishaps involving injuries that occur during participation in some form of duty-related athletic or recreational sport activity is categorized as
- A.
A. on-duty—sports and recreation.
- B.
B. off-duty—sports and recreation
- C.
C. ground and industrial—sports and recreation
- D.
D. ground and industrial—physical conditioning.
- 64.How many parts does a privileged formal safety report contain?
- A.
A. 2.
- B.
B. 3.
- C.
C. 4.
- D.
D. 5.
- 65.What are mishap findings based on?
- A.
A. Investigator’s best judgment
- B.
B. Professional knowledge
- C.
C. Weight of the evidence
- D.
D. All of the above
- 66.Mishap report recommendations should be both
- A.
A. feasible and effective
- B.
B. sensible and effective.
- C.
C. obtainable and sensible
- D.
D. obtainable and feasible
- 67.The purpose of a recommendation in a mishap investigation report is to
- A.
A. highlight weak areas.
- B.
B. communicate lessons learned
- C.
C. prevent or mitigate future mishaps.
- D.
D. implement new strategies in injury prevention
- 68.A thorough mishap investigation is absolutely necessary not only to determine the events causal to a mishap but also to
- A.
A. recommend corrective actions to prevent recurrence.
- B.
B. determine blame for failure to follow written standards
- C.
C. determine cost of mishap to support disciplinary actions.
- D.
D. recommend appropriate emergency response for mishaps.
- 69.The Air Force Safety Center (AFSEC) is the approval authority for closure of primary recommendations for what classes of mishaps?
- A.
A. Only A & B on-duty
- B.
B. Only A & B off-duty
- C.
C. Only C, D & E with office of primary responsibility (OPR) at major command (MAJCOM).
- D.
D. Only C, D & E with OPR at wing, group or squadron.
- 70.Follow up actions for mishap reports begin after
- A.
A. release of the final message
- B.
B. the recommendations are implemented
- C.
C. the recommended corrective actions are implemented
- D.
D. the investigator receives confirmation that corrective actions have been implemented
- 71.What agency prepares of the memorandum of final evaluation for on-duty Class A and B formal ground mishap reports?
- A.
A. Occupational Health and Safety Administration (OSHA).
- B.
B. The major command (MAJCOM).
- C.
C. Air Force Safety Center (AFSEC).
- D.
D. The reporting unit.
- 72.The end result of an analysis is useless unless the recommended action is
- A.
A. reviewed by the installation commander
- B.
B. widely distributed throughout the base
- C.
C. addressed to an action agency.
- D.
D. all of the above
- 73.The desired result of recommendations stemming from any analysis program is to
- A.
A. select a unit for a safety award
- B.
B. obtain lasting corrective action
- C.
C. determine who is at fault in a mishap
- D.
D. assign mishap rates to the applicable unit.
- 74.What investigation tool provides a multidimensional approach to error analysis?
- A.
A. Human factors
- B.
B. Hazard reporting
- C.
C. Risk management (RM).
- D.
D. Mishap prevention
- 75.The cross-feed of human error data using a common human error categorization system that involves human factors taxonomy describes the
- A.
A. Human Factors Analysis and Classification System (HFACS).
- B.
B. Mishap Reporting System and Classification System.
- C.
C. Human Factors Analysis and Characterization System.
- D.
D. Mishap Reporting System and Characterization System
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