Set 2 Vol 1 Part 2

34 Questions

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Classification Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What power line fault category is symptomatic of a short term decrease in voltage levels?
    • A. 

      Sag

    • B. 

      Spike

    • C. 

      Noise

    • D. 

      Blackout

  • 2. 
    What power line fault category is symptomatic of a total loss of utility power?
    • A. 

      Sag

    • B. 

      Spike

    • C. 

      Noise

    • D. 

      Blackout

  • 3. 
    What power line fault category is more typically referred to as electromagnetic interference (EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI)?
    • A. 

      Sag

    • B. 

      Spike

    • C. 

      Noise

    • D. 

      Blackout

  • 4. 
    What type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) has traditionally been referred to as “offline” by technicians?
    • A. 

      Passive standby

    • B. 

      Line interactive

    • C. 

      Double conversion

    • D. 

      Ferro resonant standby

  • 5. 
    What type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) uses a transformer or inductor between the utility power source and the load to correct or filter some variations in input power?
    • A. 

      Passive standby

    • B. 

      Line interactive

    • C. 

      Double conversion

    • D. 

      Ferro resonant standby

  • 6. 
    How many phases of generator power are usually required for industrial and commercial applications?
    • A. 

      Single

    • B. 

      Double

    • C. 

      Three

    • D. 

      Four

  • 7. 
    What are the three general categories used to produce modulation in radio frequency (RF) transmission today?
    • A. 

      Binary amplitude shift keying, frequency shift keying, and phase shift keying

    • B. 

      Pulse amplitude, pulse width, and pulse position

    • C. 

      Amplitude, frequency, and phase

    • D. 

      Analog, digital and shift keying

  • 8. 
    When the modulating signal and carrier signal are combined within a modulator, the output signal contains
    • A. 

      Modulating signal, upper sideband, and lower sideband

    • B. 

      Carrier, upper sideband, and lower sideband

    • C. 

      Upper sideband and modulating signal

    • D. 

      Carrier and modulating signal

  • 9. 
    What factor determines the spacing of the sidebands in an amplitude modulated signal?
    • A. 

      Amplitude of the modulating signal

    • B. 

      Frequency of the modulating signal

    • C. 

      Amplitude of the carrier signal

    • D. 

      Frequency of the carrier signal

  • 10. 
    The amount of effect or change that the intelligence has on the carrier in an amplitude modulated signal is expressed as the
    • A. 

      Percent of modulation

    • B. 

      Modulation index

    • C. 

      Bandwidth

    • D. 

      Deviation

  • 11. 
    Reducing modulation to less than 100 percent gives
    • A. 

      More total power

    • B. 

      A reduction in carrier power

    • C. 

      No reduction in carrier power

    • D. 

      A reduction in carrier and sideband power

  • 12. 
    The output of the oscillator in a frequency modulation (FM) modulator increases in frequency with each
    • A. 

      Positive half cycle of the carrier

    • B. 

      Negative half cycle of the carrier

    • C. 

      Positive half cycle of the modulating signal

    • D. 

      Negative half cycle of the modulating signal

  • 13. 
    A 5 kilohertz (kHz) modulating signal has enough peak voltage to cause a deviation of 15 kHz. What is the modulation index?
    • A. 

      5

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      0.5

    • D. 

      0.3

  • 14. 
    What is the narrow frequency band between adjacent stations used to prevent frequency modulated sidebands from overlapping?
    • A. 

      Space

    • B. 

      Guard band

    • C. 

      Buffer zone

    • D. 

      Prevention field

  • 15. 
    What is the advantage of adding more phase shifts?
    • A. 

      Easier detection

    • B. 

      Smaller bit error rate

    • C. 

      Better signal-to-noise ratio

    • D. 

      Higher data rates within a given bandwidth

  • 16. 
    What is the first step in the pulse code modulation process?
    • A. 

      Discrete amplitudes are assigned to the sampling pulses

    • B. 

      A binary code number is assigned to the sample

    • C. 

      The quantizer limits the amplitude of the pulses

    • D. 

      The analog signal is band limited

  • 17. 
    Quantization in the pulse code modulation process is
    • A. 

      Converting a continuous time signal into a discrete time signal

    • B. 

      Ensuring the input to the sampler never exceeds maximum frequency

    • C. 

      Placing an infinite number of amplitude values to a finite number of values

    • D. 

      Limiting the highest and lowest frequency encoded before it goes to the sampler

  • 18. 
    In asynchronous transmissions, what bit is used by the receiving device to verify that the transmission was received correctly?
    • A. 

      Control

    • B. 

      Parity

    • C. 

      Start

    • D. 

      Stop

  • 19. 
    If an error should occur, what transmission is lost in an synchronous transmission?
    • A. 

      One character

    • B. 

      Block of data

    • C. 

      A parity bit

    • D. 

      A stop bit

  • 20. 
    The significance the amount of ones have in a data bit pattern when using vertical redundancy check (VRC) is that it determines
    • A. 

      Parity

    • B. 

      Transmission rate

    • C. 

      Whether transmission is synchronous or asynchronous

    • D. 

      Whether transmission is in American Standard Code for Information Interchange (ASCII) format

  • 21. 
    What two error detection methods, when used together, are 98 percent effective in detecting errors?
    • A. 

      Longitudinal redundancy check (LRC) and checksum

    • B. 

      Checksum and cyclic redundancy check (CRC)

    • C. 

      Vertical redundancy check (VRC) and CRC

    • D. 

      VRC and LRC

  • 22. 
    When using forward error control as a method of error correction, where does error correction take place?
    • A. 

      Receiving end

    • B. 

      In the oscillator

    • C. 

      Transmitting end

    • D. 

      In the primary buffers

  • 23. 
    In telecommunications cable, the “tip” or “primary” wire color group order is
    • A. 

      White, blue, green, yellow, and violet

    • B. 

      Blue, orange, green, brown, and slate

    • C. 

      White, red, black, yellow, and violet

    • D. 

      Blue, green, yellow, red, and orange

  • 24. 
    Two types of network cables are
    • A. 

      Straight through and crossover

    • B. 

      Straight through and flip/flop

    • C. 

      High and low baud

    • D. 

      “n” and “g”

  • 25. 
    An optical transmitter is comprised of
    • A. 

      Positive intrinsic negative and avalanche photodiodes

    • B. 

      Repeaters, regenerators, and optical amplifiers

    • C. 

      A driver, optical source, and fiber optic pigtail

    • D. 

      A light detector and output circuits

  • 26. 
    What is the bandwidth of multimode step-index optical fiber cable?
    • A. 

      10 MHz – 100 MHz/km

    • B. 

      100 MHz – 200 MHz/km

    • C. 

      200 MHz – 1000 MHz/km

    • D. 

      Up to 50 GHz/km

  • 27. 
    Which type of cable is the hardest to splice?
    • A. 

      Multimode graded-index fiber

    • B. 

      Multimode step index fiber

    • C. 

      Unshielded twisted pair

    • D. 

      Single mode fiber

  • 28. 
    A short section of single fiber cable that has a connector at each end is called a
    • A. 

      Pigtail

    • B. 

      Jumper

    • C. 

      Patch cord

    • D. 

      Breakout cables

  • 29. 
    What allows transportation of all active virtual LANs (VLAN) between switches using a single physical link?
    • A. 

      Trunks

    • B. 

      Frames

    • C. 

      Links

    • D. 

      Ports

  • 30. 
    Which device has multiport connectivity that directs data between nodes on a network?
    • A. 

      Bridge

    • B. 

      Router

    • C. 

      Gateway

    • D. 

      Repeater

  • 31. 
    Which routing protocol do Internet backbones use?
    • A. 

      Option 1

    • B. 

      Option 2

    • C. 

      Option 3

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 32. 
    Which routing protocol do Internet backbones use?
    • A. 

      Open shortest path first (OSPF)

    • B. 

      Border gateway protocol (BGP)

    • C. 

      Routing information protocol (RIP)

    • D. 

      Enhanced interior gateway routing protocol (EIGRP)

  • 33. 
    Virtual private networks (VPNs) allow the AF to extend network resources across a/an
    • A. 

      Department of Defense network

    • B. 

      Air Force network

    • C. 

      Local area network

    • D. 

      Public network

  • 34. 
    Which of the following is not a function that a virtual private network (VPN) concentrator performs?
    • A. 

      Manages data transfer across the tunnel

    • B. 

      Encrypts and decrypts data

    • C. 

      Establishes tunnels

    • D. 

      Encapsulates data