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120 Questions | Total Attempts: 35

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Management Quizzes & Trivia

This is a long quiz which has some interesting questions on management.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What is the "contract" between the technical school and field personnel that is used to develop training courses called?
    • A. 

      JQS

    • B. 

      OJT

    • C. 

      STS

    • D. 

      CFETP

  • 2. 
    What information is provided in Part II of the Career Field Education and Training Plan?
    • A. 

      Life-cycle requirements

    • B. 

      Duties, tasks and references

    • C. 

      An explanation of the plan and how it is used

    • D. 

      Identifying each level with its specialty qualifications

  • 3. 
    The purpose of a Utilization and Training Workshop is to
    • A. 

      Standardize procedures for professional military education

    • B. 

      Develop new procedures for skill level upgrade and promotion

    • C. 

      Periodically review the Career Field Education and Training Plan

    • D. 

      Develop a new training standard to accommodate changes in the field

  • 4. 
    When you as a supervisor, schedule a goal oriented plan for subordinate training, it builds confidence for the trainee by
    • A. 

      Achieving each particular goal

    • B. 

      Building a routine that becomes part of the daily processes

    • C. 

      Obtaining the necessary skill level ahead of preset time limitations

    • D. 

      Scheduling training around other appointments

  • 5. 
    The success of any on-the-job training program is determined by the
    • A. 

      Trainer and trainee

    • B. 

      Squadron commander and trainer

    • C. 

      Section chief and trainee

    • D. 

      FSO and the squadron commander

  • 6. 
    The human brain processes visual 400,000 times faster than text; when the brain is exposed to a presentation, how much visual information does it retain?
    • A. 

      7%

    • B. 

      38%

    • C. 

      55%

    • D. 

      76%

  • 7. 
    Air Force members fulfill the trust placed in them by the American people in being entrusted with public funds by following basic principles of
    • A. 

      Ethical conduct

    • B. 

      Decent behavior

    • C. 

      Honorable conduct

    • D. 

      Good customer service

  • 8. 
    When you follow the core concepts of governmental ethics you know that you must not use public office for your own, or another's
    • A. 

      Private gain

    • B. 

      Public benefit

    • C. 

      Personal property

    • D. 

      Privileged knowledge

  • 9. 
    When you want to nominate someone for an Aces High award, who would you consider eligible?
    • A. 

      Anyone

    • B. 

      All enlisted members

    • C. 

      Anyone except CMSgt

    • D. 

      All comptroller personnel

  • 10. 
    The format for an Aces High award is a cross between the nominee's biography and a commendation medal; it also contains
    • A. 

      MAJCOM instructions

    • B. 

      Career background and accomplishments

    • C. 

      Outstanding achievement for previous year

    • D. 

      Leadership, job knowledge, community accomplishments

  • 11. 
    The SAF/FM and your MAJCOM funcational area manager created this item that would help you determine on which items to train?
    • A. 

      Task training list

    • B. 

      Manager training list

    • C. 

      MAJCOM training list

    • D. 

      Unit type code task list

  • 12. 
    The Comptroller contingency familiarization course is divided into how many sub-courses? 
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Three

    • D. 

      Four

  • 13. 
    Individuals complete the advanced CCFC when they are
    • A. 

      Within 60 days of their AEF

    • B. 

      Within 90 days of their AEF

    • C. 

      Notified of their deployment

    • D. 

      Preparing to deploy

  • 14. 
    Silver Flag provides hands-on, paying agent training to
    • A. 

      Majors and noncommissions officers

    • B. 

      Field grad and general officers

    • C. 

      Noncommissioned officers

    • D. 

      Airmen ready to deploy

  • 15. 
    During the initial force build-up , the deployed comptroller team's primary responsibility is to
    • A. 

      Provide military pay and check cashing services

    • B. 

      Purchase supplies and services from the local economy

    • C. 

      Augment operational units to ensure force stabilization

    • D. 

      Implement the site commander's policy for financial support

  • 16. 
    A designator determining detailed manpower and logistical support requirements that describes necessary personnel, skill levels, numbers, and equipment required for deployments is called
    • A. 

      Unit type code

    • B. 

      Force manning code

    • C. 

      Standard force package

    • D. 

      Mission capability designator

  • 17. 
    What term best describes a standard passenger and equipment movement requirement for each UTC that is worldwide deployable?
    • A. 

      UTC

    • B. 

      LOGDET

    • C. 

      MISCAP

    • D. 

      MEFPAK

  • 18. 
    Air and space expeditionary force unit training code reporting tool ART assessments are based on the capability defined by the
    • A. 

      UTC

    • B. 

      AMS

    • C. 

      MISCAP

    • D. 

      MEFPAK

  • 19. 
    The unit training management roster lists available positions, personnel assigned, and
    • A. 

      Air force specialty

    • B. 

      Processing center

    • C. 

      Position number

    • D. 

      Rank of grade

  • 20. 
    The unit personnel management roster lists available positions, personnel assigned, and
    • A. 

      Total personnel by work center

    • B. 

      Positions by specialty code

    • C. 

      Projected gains and losses

    • D. 

      Required upgrade training

  • 21. 
    How are differences in operating conditions such as a geographically separated unit categorized in the AFMS 151A, financial management Manpower standard?
    • A. 

      MIssion Variance

    • B. 

      Systemic variance

    • C. 

      Technological variance

    • D. 

      Environmental variance

  • 22. 
    The management control program is structured to meet the requirements of the
    • A. 

      Installation commander

    • B. 

      Air force audit agency

    • C. 

      Office of management and budget

    • D. 

      Federal managers financial integrity act

  • 23. 
    Which task is not a step in the implementation of the management control program process
    • A. 

      Take corrective action

    • B. 

      Segment the organization

    • C. 

      Propose vulnerability assessments

    • D. 

      Develop a management control plan

  • 24. 
    The general assessment of the effectiveness of an organization's management controls is termed a
    • A. 

      Statement of assurance

    • B. 

      Vulnerability assessment

    • C. 

      Management control review

    • D. 

      Management control evaluation

  • 25. 
    Which air force management level must maintain adequate documentation of the MCP activity?
    • A. 

      All levels

    • B. 

      Base levels

    • C. 

      Air staff level

    • D. 

      MAJCOM level

  • 26. 
    A condition that has a significant negative impact on an organization's management controls objectives is
    • A. 

      A risk

    • B. 

      An audit finding

    • C. 

      A general weakness

    • D. 

      A material weakness

  • 27. 
    Who provides administrative oversight of the quality assurance program
    • A. 

      Financial management

    • B. 

      Financial service office

    • C. 

      Financial management office

    • D. 

      Quality assurance manager

  • 28. 
    Quality assurance manager periodically examines all financial management activities to determine
    • A. 

      Which indicators are the best

    • B. 

      What checklist are required

    • C. 

      The effectiveness of procedures

    • D. 

      If an internal audit must be conducted

  • 29. 
    The quality assurance plan helps the quality assurance manager
    • A. 

      Stay organized

    • B. 

      Indefinitely "slip" planned items

    • C. 

      Determine the health of their operations

    • D. 

      Chart the internal control mechanisms

  • 30. 
    How often should performance indicators be reviewed to determine their continued adequacy in relating mission performance to management
    • A. 

      Monthly

    • B. 

      Quarterly

    • C. 

      Semiannually

    • D. 

      Annually

  • 31. 
    In relation to the self inspection program, the aulity assurance manager
    • A. 

      Performs self inspections

    • B. 

      Designates high interest items

    • C. 

      Decided who conducts self inspections

    • D. 

      Oversees the progress for completion of self-inspections

  • 32. 
    An important element of management controls and the QAP is
    • A. 

      The ability to cross-feed problem areas

    • B. 

      Keeping problems within the organization

    • C. 

      The amount of time given to comply with internal controls

    • D. 

      Safeguarding management from any adverse actions resulting from their decisions.

  • 33. 
    Who conducts a compliance review upon receipt of a negative cross-feed report?
    • A. 

      FM

    • B. 

      FSO

    • C. 

      FMA

    • D. 

      QAM

  • 34. 
    In the QAP duplicated effort can be eliminated by
    • A. 

      Reviewing checklist

    • B. 

      Reviewing cross feed

    • C. 

      Controlling cross feed within the organization

    • D. 

      Sending reports and bulletins on a routine basis

  • 35. 
    Within the financial management and comptroller organization, direct oversight of the fraud prevention program is the responsibility of the
    • A. 

      QAM

    • B. 

      FMA

    • C. 

      FSO

    • D. 

      FM

  • 36. 
    Who is directly responsible for a semiannual audit of pay records of all personnel with access to the DJMS
    • A. 

      FM

    • B. 

      QAM

    • C. 

      FSO

    • D. 

      AFAA

  • 37. 
    After answering YES or NO to a question on a self-inspection checklist, what should you do next?
    • A. 

      Explain your answer

    • B. 

      Go to the next question

    • C. 

      Change the color of the answer to red

    • D. 

      Change the color of the answer to green

  • 38. 
    Under the air force audit program auditors do not perform line, staff, or other collateral duties that
    • A. 

      Impairs their independence

    • B. 

      Interferes with organization operations

    • C. 

      Duplicates the efforts of the other personnel

    • D. 

      Normally would be performed during the audit

  • 39. 
    Comparison of different dollar amounts received or paid out during different periods are allowed through present value calculations, what allows present value of future cash flows to be determined?
    • A. 

      Savings/investment

    • B. 

      Break even point

    • C. 

      Discounting

    • D. 

      Time-value

  • 40. 
    In order to determine the period to consider when conducting an economic analysis you need to know the project lead-time and the
    • A. 

      Life cycle

    • B. 

      Active life

    • C. 

      Useful life

    • D. 

      Economic life

  • 41. 
    If economic life is the number of years the air force will receive benefits from a program of project then what provides the number of years a facility of piece of equipment will be available for use before it wears out
    • A. 

      Technological life

    • B. 

      Physical life

    • C. 

      Mission life

    • D. 

      Active life

  • 42. 
    An economic analysis is not required when
    • A. 

      Contemplating a change to an ongoing project

    • B. 

      Prescribed by a specific functional agency directive

    • C. 

      Deciding to commit resources to a new project or program

    • D. 

      The costs of conducting the analysis clearly outweigh the benefits

  • 43. 
    All energy projects, including lease-versus-buy decisions, are estimated using
    • A. 

      Current dollars

    • B. 

      Constant dollars

    • C. 

      Then-year dollars

    • D. 

      Discounted dollars

  • 44. 
    An economic analysis is not required for military construction, military family housing, or real property maintenance when the
    • A. 

      Investment costs exceed $2 million

    • B. 

      Project improves organizational efficiency

    • C. 

      Project correct problems or violations involving health or safety

    • D. 

      Expected investment costs in a restoration project exceed 50 percent of replacement costs

  • 45. 
    Identify the process of formally collecting data, documenting facts, making predictions, and analyzing results?
    • A. 

      Cost Analysis

    • B. 

      Needs assessment

    • C. 

      Economic analysis

    • D. 

      Business risk assessment

  • 46. 
    What is considered the most important step in economic analysis?
    • A. 

      Defining uncertainties

    • B. 

      Evaluating uncertainties

    • C. 

      Determining alternatives

    • D. 

      Formulating assumptions

  • 47. 
    Identify the step cost/benefits configuration under the comparing and ranking alternatives step that is the most useful and interesting for an investigation?
    • A. 

      Equal costs/equal benefits

    • B. 

      Equal costs/unequal benefits

    • C. 

      Unequal costs/equal benefits

    • D. 

      Unequal costs/unequal benefits

  • 48. 
    Sensitivity analysis is performed in which step of the economic analysis process?
    • A. 

      Evaluating uncertainties

    • B. 

      Formulating assumptions

    • C. 

      Determining costs and benefits

    • D. 

      Comparing and ranking alternatives

  • 49. 
    Which step of the business case analysis describes a clear and concise description of the methodology?
    • A. 

      Approach

    • B. 

      Feasible solutions

    • C. 

      Recommendations

    • D. 

      Implementation or action plan

  • 50. 
    What step in the BCA captures the entire BCA in brief?
    • A. 

      Results

    • B. 

      Introduction

    • C. 

      Problem statement

    • D. 

      Executive summary

  • 51. 
    What is typically negotiated between the buyer and seller?
    • A. 

      Supply

    • B. 

      Demand

    • C. 

      Market price

    • D. 

      Discount price

  • 52. 
    The determination of the actual or estimated cost of spending options is
    • A. 

      Cost analysis

    • B. 

      Program analysis

    • C. 

      Economic analysis

    • D. 

      Lease-versus-buy analysis

  • 53. 
    Which activity of cost analysis is used to help decide whether to commit funds to a project?
    • A. 

      Management engineering studies

    • B. 

      Comparative analysis

    • C. 

      Comparative studies

    • D. 

      Economic analysis

  • 54. 
    Which is the most crucial step of the analysis
    • A. 

      Analyze results

    • B. 

      Document results

    • C. 

      Select the cost structure

    • D. 

      Collect and evaluate the data

  • 55. 
    Of the seventeen terms used in cost analysis which one also be called "then-year" dollars?
    • A. 

      Induced dollars

    • B. 

      Constant dollars

    • C. 

      Current year dollars

    • D. 

      Terminal year dollars

  • 56. 
    The process of using the discount rate to determine the present value of costs and benefits is called
    • A. 

      Inflating

    • B. 

      Investing

    • C. 

      Alternating

    • D. 

      Discounting

  • 57. 
    Which cost analysis term refers to the expected value of an asset at any point in time before the end of its economic life
    • A. 

      Sunk value

    • B. 

      Salvage value

    • C. 

      Residual value

    • D. 

      Terminal value

  • 58. 
    Which step identifies all of the outputs for which activities are performed and resources consumed by an activity?
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Three

    • D. 

      Four

  • 59. 
    Under which step of activity based costing does an activity driver assign activity costs to outputs based on individual outputs consumption or demand for activities
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Three

    • D. 

      Four

  • 60. 
    When speaking of operational risk management accept risk when benefits
    • A. 

      Outweigh the risk

    • B. 

      Outweigh the cost

    • C. 

      Are equal to the risk

    • D. 

      Are equal to the cost

  • 61. 
    Which principle of operational risk management notes that all air force missions and daily routines involve risk?
    • A. 

      Accept no unnecessary risk

    • B. 

      Make risk decisions at the appropriate level

    • C. 

      Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs

    • D. 

      Integrate operations risk management into operations and planning at all levels

  • 62. 
    Which step of the operational risk management process includes ranking the hazards?
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Three

    • D. 

      Four

  • 63. 
    Which step of operational risk management has you determine what impact each control will have on the risk and prioritize the controls to reduce risk to an acceptable level?
    • A. 

      Reduce the exposure to risk

    • B. 

      Move the risk to another location

    • C. 

      Analyze control measures

    • D. 

      Implement control measures

  • 64. 
    In what step of ORM do you notify the next level in the chain of command if the controls cannot be implements directly by the decision maker or if the cost outweighs the benefits?
    • A. 

      Implement control measures

    • B. 

      Analyze control measures

    • C. 

      Make control decision

    • D. 

      Supervise and reviews

  • 65. 
    When analyzing data how many possible reasons are there for a relationship between variables?
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Three

    • D. 

      Four

  • 66. 
    How many assumptions are made when using a simple linear regression model?
    • A. 

      Two

    • B. 

      Four

    • C. 

      Six

    • D. 

      Eight

  • 67. 
    Of the assumptions made when using the simple linear regression model, identify the one that is not an assumption
    • A. 

      Residuals are normally distributed

    • B. 

      The data base contains like objects

    • C. 

      The independent variable has an error

    • D. 

      You average the residuals, you get zero

  • 68. 
    A commercial activity is defined as an activity that
    • A. 

      Contracts out all work to the private sector

    • B. 

      Relies exclusively on governmental capabilities

    • C. 

      Standardizes cost descriptions of commercial sources

    • D. 

      Provides a product or service that could be obtained from a commercial source

  • 69. 
    According to air force instructions AFI 38-203, commercial activities program, air force policy on commercial activities is to
    • A. 

      Rely on the commercial sector

    • B. 

      Permit interim contractor operation

    • C. 

      Contract out all government functions

    • D. 

      Contract out all work to the private sector

  • 70. 
    When conducting an independent review of a cost comparison, FA personnel review the
    • A. 

      MEO and Compare CCF only

    • B. 

      PWS and Compare CCF only

    • C. 

      PWS, MEO and Compare CCF only

    • D. 

      QSAP, PWS, MEO and Compare CCF

  • 71. 
    What caused a division in the discipline of accounting?
    • A. 

      Too many interested parties

    • B. 

      The diversity of interested parties

    • C. 

      Not enough people were interested

    • D. 

      The federal government wanted change

  • 72. 
    Which type of accounting is concerned with external reporting to parties outside a company?
    • A. 

      Financial

    • B. 

      Managerial

    • C. 

      Governmental

    • D. 

      Developmental

  • 73. 
    What type of behavior is expected of accountants?
    • A. 

      Ethical

    • B. 

      Logical

    • C. 

      Professional

    • D. 

      Respectable

  • 74. 
    How often is obligation authority given?
    • A. 

      Daily

    • B. 

      Weekly

    • C. 

      Monthly

    • D. 

      Quarterly

  • 75. 
    Primarily what type of documents are the OBAD and BA/DA?
    • A. 

      Control

    • B. 

      Restrictive

    • C. 

      Managerial

    • D. 

      Operational

  • 76. 
    Before the issuance of allotments and operating budgets to base level which of these begin with the Appropriation Act?
    • A. 

      Funding authority, limitations, distribution of funds

    • B. 

      Funding authority, control, allotment issuance

    • C. 

      Distribution of funds, limitations, targets

    • D. 

      Targets, control, accounting

  • 77. 
    What is the second step you take when interpreting funding guidance?
    • A. 

      Closely read though all the limitations

    • B. 

      Skim to the specific guidance for your base

    • C. 

      Skim though the documents for a brief understanding

    • D. 

      Closely review the amounts to determine period of availability

  • 78. 
    What is the first thing you look at when interpreting your annual funding?
    • A. 

      Line item guidance

    • B. 

      Bottom line amount

    • C. 

      Responsibility center/cost center

    • D. 

      Operating agency code/operating budget account number

  • 79. 
    Which of the three restraints on a funding document contains a floor limitation?
    • A. 

      Legal

    • B. 

      Ceiling

    • C. 

      Line-item

    • D. 

      Administrative

  • 80. 
    The standing and prestige of the united states when extending official courtesies to dignitaries and foreign countries must be paid using?
    • A. 

      ORF funds

    • B. 

      O&M

    • C. 

      Special funds

    • D. 

      None

  • 81. 
    The executive plan requires what type of contribution from personnel at every org?
    • A. 

      Financial data and analysis

    • B. 

      Quick thinking and expertise

    • C. 

      Corporate knowledge and expertise

    • D. 

      Administrative data and funding knowledge

  • 82. 
    Prior year data in the executive plan should match expense data recorded in the accounting records on 30 September and the
    • A. 

      Total authority data

    • B. 

      Actual obligation data

    • C. 

      Actual adjustments data

    • D. 

      Funding authority not spent

  • 83. 
    What office prepares the supporting documentation for reimbursement of utilities?
    • A. 

      CES

    • B. 

      LRS

    • C. 

      FMA

    • D. 

      DFAS

  • 84. 
    How is the requirement for additional land is usually accomplished?
    • A. 

      Lease

    • B. 

      Buying

    • C. 

      Rental contract

    • D. 

      Settlement contract

  • 85. 
    Which category is not one of three categories of analysis performed in computing the flying hour program?
    • A. 

      MSD

    • B. 

      CPFH

    • C. 

      AVFUELS

    • D. 

      Consumable supplies

  • 86. 
    The cost of flying hour rates are based on the
    • A. 

      AFCAIG

    • B. 

      CPFH

    • C. 

      FMA

    • D. 

      MSD

  • 87. 
    The process of collecting and reviewing data to identify patterns is
    • A. 

      Trend analysis

    • B. 

      Pattern analysis

    • C. 

      Program analysis

    • D. 

      Historical analysis

  • 88. 
    When starting a program analysis the first thing you should do is
    • A. 

      Gather financial data

    • B. 

      Look for a program trend

    • C. 

      Compare planned items to actual

    • D. 

      Decide what is going to be analyzed

  • 89. 
    The FWG is responsible for participating in the development of requirements for the base execution plan as well as doing what else
    • A. 

      Presenting their org on matters concerning distribution of quarterly and annual operating budget targets

    • B. 

      Reviewing obligation data to make assure that monthly targets are adequate

    • C. 

      Offering funding guidance to base activates

    • D. 

      Making recommendations to the FWG

  • 90. 
    What describes FM war fighting role?
    • A. 

      JP 1-06

    • B. 

      CONOPS

    • C. 

      DODFMR

    • D. 

      AFDD 2-4

  • 91. 
    What type of control do combatant commanders retain over the forces assigned to them
    • A. 

      Operational

    • B. 

      Functional

    • C. 

      Strategic

    • D. 

      Total

  • 92. 
    What type of support is considered a host nation support tool
    • A. 

      Acquisition and cross service agreements

    • B. 

      Intraservice

    • C. 

      Interservice

    • D. 

      Governmental

  • 93. 
    What statement is true about the feed and forage act
    • A. 

      The AF form 616 must have some funding available

    • B. 

      Paying agents can make payments to vendors if necessary

    • C. 

      Commander responsible for funds involved does not have to be advised

    • D. 

      Authority conferred by the feed and forage act is contract authority only

  • 94. 
    What statement is correct regarding the management of an air force 616 fund cite authorization
    • A. 

      Documents must reference the FCA number and referenced on the front side

    • B. 

      Amounts cited respresent targets and are an administrative subdivision of funds

    • C. 

      Documents do not reference the FCA number and a reference on the back side

    • D. 

      Amounts cited represent targets and are not an administrative subdivision of funds

  • 95. 
    Much like a checkbook the air force form 616 fund cite authorization must be balanced with the
    • A. 

      Issuing activity

    • B. 

      Resource advisor

    • C. 

      Contracting officer

    • D. 

      Requesting activity

  • 96. 
    When would you procure foreign currency at the best rate available
    • A. 

      State department procedures are not established

    • B. 

      Theres too much us cash on hand

    • C. 

      Us treasury tells you to do so

    • D. 

      Theres a military banking facility

  • 97. 
    You must send your disbursing officers a signed original and duplicate SF 1149 upon closing your regarding LDA account and at the
    • A. 

      Beginning of each quarter

    • B. 

      End of each accounting quarter

    • C. 

      End of each accounting month

    • D. 

      Request of your commander

  • 98. 
    Once an organization requests a purchase of services and supplies, what comes next
    • A. 

      Fund need to be certified

    • B. 

      An amendment needs to be processed

    • C. 

      An order or contract needs to be prepared

    • D. 

      The contracting officer will post the obligation

  • 99. 
    What is done after a call is received from blanket purchase agreement
    • A. 

      Obligate the call through contract

    • B. 

      De-obligate the 616 and obligate the AF form 9

    • C. 

      Match up the call with the corresponding AF form 9

    • D. 

      Match up the call with the corresponding 616 funding the BPA

  • 100. 
    Once an organization request a purchase of service and supplies, what comes next
    • A. 

      Funds need to be certified

    • B. 

      An amendment needs to be processed

    • C. 

      An order or contract needs to be prepared

    • D. 

      The contracting officer will post the obligation

  • 101. 
    Which is not an authorized purchase for AF from 15 or AF form 315
    • A. 

      Items or services required for immediate use of maintaining communications

    • B. 

      Lodging services when military facilities are not available

    • C. 

      Supplies and services in direct support of aircraft

    • D. 

      Mechanical services storage, civilian guards etc

  • 102. 
    What is the next thing that's done after the technician approves the payment template?
    • A. 

      Produce an updated template report

    • B. 

      Produce a scheduled payments report

    • C. 

      Receive a confirmation email from the AOR

    • D. 

      Scan a copy of the template into the FM knowledge now COP

  • 103. 
    Who is normally in charge of the disbursing office?
    • A. 

      FSO

    • B. 

      DDO

    • C. 

      FMA

    • D. 

      DOD

  • 104. 
    When do cash authorities become effective?
    • A. 

      April 1 of each year only

    • B. 

      October 1 of each year only

    • C. 

      October 1 or april 1 of each year

    • D. 

      October 1 and april 1 of each year

  • 105. 
    To ensure the designated cashiers are of unquestionable integrity the disbursing officer will
    • A. 

      Interview the individual

    • B. 

      Examine medical records

    • C. 

      Send them to an ethics class

    • D. 

      Begin an investigation with OSI

  • 106. 
    What form is used as a receipt for cash and vouches on hand
    • A. 

      Dd form 2665

    • B. 

      Dd form 1081

    • C. 

      Sf form 1219

    • D. 

      Sf form 1081

  • 107. 
    What form depicts a continuous picture of transactions affecting liability
    • A. 

      Dd form 2665

    • B. 

      Dd form 2667

    • C. 

      Dd form 1081

    • D. 

      Dd form 2663

  • 108. 
    Agents must complete turn-ins of original documents with supporting attachments at least
    • A. 

      Weekly

    • B. 

      Biweekly

    • C. 

      Monthly

    • D. 

      Quarterly

  • 109. 
    How would your disbursing officer prefer that you get your package to them
    • A. 

      Use a courier

    • B. 

      Deliver in person

    • C. 

      Send by registered mail

    • D. 

      Fax or send electronically

  • 110. 
    What distinguishes a briefing from other types of speaking
    • A. 

      Brevity

    • B. 

      Research

    • C. 

      Directness

    • D. 

      Organization

  • 111. 
    When you provide the available balance and total obligations ina slide presentation do so on
    • A. 

      One slide

    • B. 

      Two slides

    • C. 

      One slide for each cost center

    • D. 

      Two slides for each cost center

  • 112. 
    When is the listing of all debts that are not collected promptly complied by DFAS-IN
    • A. 

      October only

    • B. 

      October and April

    • C. 

      Septemeber and april

    • D. 

      March and September

  • 113. 
    Who declares essential station messing
    • A. 

      Tenant commander

    • B. 

      MSG commander

    • C. 

      Comptroller

    • D. 

      MAJCOM

  • 114. 
    What FID is used to pay BAH-I
    • A. 

      40

    • B. 

      47

    • C. 

      67

    • D. 

      68

  • 115. 
    Which office certifies the AF form 594, application and authorization to start stoop change BAQ an dependency
    • A. 

      FSO

    • B. 

      DFAS-IN

    • C. 

      Mil pay section

    • D. 

      Mil pay flight

  • 116. 
    What office will normally process the program elements transaction for deceased members
    • A. 

      FSO

    • B. 

      DFAS-DE

    • C. 

      Mil pay section

    • D. 

      Mil pay flight

  • 117. 
    How long does the FSO have to send the completed SF 1174 tp DFAS
    • A. 

      Ten duty days

    • B. 

      Five duty days

    • C. 

      Ten calendar days

    • D. 

      Five calendar days

  • 118. 
    Procedures for requesting advanced comptroller general decisions are found in
    • A. 

      DODI 5000-1

    • B. 

      DODFMR VOL 9

    • C. 

      DODFMR VOL 2

    • D. 

      DFAS DE 7220.7-R

  • 119. 
    When a claimant contests a decision, FSO personnel should
    • A. 

      Immediately pay the claim

    • B. 

      Stay completely out of the process

    • C. 

      Forward the claim to the legal office

    • D. 

      Brief the claimant on procedures and assist as necessary

  • 120. 
    What is included in the doubtful claim transmittal?
    • A. 

      Base analysis

    • B. 

      Members analysis

    • C. 

      Results of research

    • D. 

      Results from other bases