2A672 CDC

129 Questions | Total Attempts: 49

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2A672 Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which type of maintenance ensures that equipment is ready and available at the time of need?
    • A. 

      Off-equipment

    • B. 

      Preventive

    • C. 

      Corrective

    • D. 

      On-equipment

  • 2. 
    Which of the following is used to highlight trends, benchmarks, or safety conditions relating to maintenance equipment, personnel, training, or processes?
    • A. 

      National Stock Numbers

    • B. 

      Self inspections

    • C. 

      Cross-tells

    • D. 

      Technical Orders

  • 3. 
    Who is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for the intermediate repair enhancement program?
    • A. 

      Maintenance group superintendent

    • B. 

      Maintenance group commander

    • C. 

      Wing vice commander

    • D. 

      Wing commander

  • 4. 
    Which maintenance capability category is performed at back shop level and consists of off-equipment maintenance?
    • A. 

      Organizational

    • B. 

      Depot

    • C. 

      Intermediate

    • D. 

      Two-level maintenance

  • 5. 
    All requests for depot level assistance must be coordinated through?
    • A. 

      Quality Assurance and Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation

    • B. 

      Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation, and the maintenance group commander

    • C. 

      Plans, scheduling, and Documentation, and the maintenance management analyst

    • D. 

      Quality Assurance and maintenance management analyst

  • 6. 
    What do you call wing level maintenance facilities providing intermediate level maintenance repair support for multiple air force units within a particular theater of operations?
    • A. 

      Programmed depot maintenance

    • B. 

      Intermediate repair enhancement program

    • C. 

      Centralized repair facilities

    • D. 

      Regional repair centers

  • 7. 
    What program promotes identifying and correcting system deficiencies before they affect combat capability?
    • A. 

      Intermediate repair enhancement

    • B. 

      Reliability and Maintainability

    • C. 

      Programmed Depot Maintenance

    • D. 

      Quality Assurance

  • 8. 
    Which category of deficiency report should you submit if the equipment has a deficiency if uncorrected may cause major loss or damage to equipment and no work around is known?
    • A. 

      2A

    • B. 

      2B

    • C. 

      1A

    • D. 

      1B

  • 9. 
    Which maintenance group agency provides technical assistance for deficiency reports to work center supervisors?
    • A. 

      Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation

    • B. 

      Maintenance Supply Liason

    • C. 

      Quality Assurance

    • D. 

      Programs and Resource Flight

  • 10. 
    Which of the following is used to assign responsibilities, direct actions, and prescribe procedures within a subordinate function i.e. a staff office, a branch, a squadron, etc.?
    • A. 

      Support Agreements

    • B. 

      Technical Orders

    • C. 

      Operating Instructions

    • D. 

      Air Force Instructions

  • 11. 
    When operating instructions (OI) apply to multiple groups, they should be published as?
    • A. 

      Separate Group OI's

    • B. 

      Wing OI's

    • C. 

      Air Force Instructions

    • D. 

      Support Agreements

  • 12. 
    Which AFTO IMT is used to maintain a permanent history of significant maintenance actions on end items of equipment?
    • A. 

      244

    • B. 

      427

    • C. 

      781 series

    • D. 

      95

  • 13. 
    Printed copies of the AFTO IMT 95 are not required to accompany end items upon transfer?
    • A. 

      In Units where jet engines, jet engine adjustable nozzles, or thrust reversers are involved in frequent rotation from one aerospace vehicle to another

    • B. 

      In the case of helicopter blades and tail rotor blades being transferred into the disposal system

    • C. 

      To/from locations that have access to the necessary information systems to retrieve the historical informaiton

    • D. 

      As long as an entry has been made in the necessary maintenance information system verifying that the basic items have been accounted for

  • 14. 
    What AFTO IMT is used to document accumulated cycles, operating time, and maintenance history, as well as pertinent manufacturing data for jet engine turbine wheels?
    • A. 

      245

    • B. 

      95

    • C. 

      244

    • D. 

      781J

  • 15. 
    Which integrated maintenance data system-central database (IMDS-CDB) subsystem provides the capability to track engines and their components for time changes and inspections and establishes and maintains the installed-on relationship between the engine and the components?
    • A. 

      Job Data Documentation

    • B. 

      Status and Inventory Reporting

    • C. 

      Comprehensive Engine Management System

    • D. 

      CE Equipment Status

  • 16. 
    Which Integrated maintenance database system-central database (IMDS-CDB) subsystem allows users to track maintenance actions and has both maintenance and supply data?
    • A. 

      Maintenance Events

    • B. 

      Job Data Documentation

    • C. 

      Operational Events

    • D. 

      Aircraft Automated Forms 781A,J,K

  • 17. 
    Which integrated maintenance database system-central database (IMDS-CDB) subsystem replaces the maintenance data collection MDC system and provides maintenance personnel with the online capability to document, inquire, and produce retrievals of maintenance actions?
    • A. 

      Maintenance Events

    • B. 

      Job Data Documentation

    • C. 

      Operational Events

    • D. 

      Aircraft Automated Forms 781A,J,K

  • 18. 
    Who guides the overall data integrity team process and ensures the data provided to maintenance managers and supervision is meaningful and factual?
    • A. 

      Every User

    • B. 

      Maintenance Management Analysis

    • C. 

      Programs and Resources

    • D. 

      Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation

  • 19. 
    In addition to being familiar with the units assigned weapons system, squadron representatives for the data integrity team, must be at least?
    • A. 

      SrA

    • B. 

      7 level

    • C. 

      5 level

    • D. 

      Non-Commisioned Officer

  • 20. 
    What provides a measurement of unit performance and capability?
    • A. 

      Standards

    • B. 

      Instructions

    • C. 

      Metrics

    • D. 

      Reports

  • 21. 
    What are the two most common types of primary maintenance metric indicators?
    • A. 

      Performance and health

    • B. 

      Leading and lagging

    • C. 

      Positive and negative

    • D. 

      Trending and impacting

  • 22. 
    Which primary maintenance metric indicator shows problems first as a direct impact maintenances capability to provide resources to execute the mission?
    • A. 

      Impacting

    • B. 

      Lagging

    • C. 

      Trending

    • D. 

      Leading

  • 23. 
    Which primary maintenance metric indicator shows and follows firmly established trends?
    • A. 

      Lagging

    • B. 

      Leading

    • C. 

      Impacting

    • D. 

      Trending

  • 24. 
    Which maintenance repair priority is designated only for aircraft that are on alert status or aircraft that are supporting the war plan or national emergency missions?
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      1

  • 25. 
    Who is responsible for establishing a crashed, damaged, or disabled aircraft recovery program?
    • A. 

      Wing Commander

    • B. 

      Wing Vice Commander

    • C. 

      Maintenance Group Commander

    • D. 

      Maintenance Group Deputy Commander

  • 26. 
    Who is personally responsible for managing the foreign object damage and dropped object prevention programs?
    • A. 

      Wing Commander

    • B. 

      Maintenance Group Commander

    • C. 

      Maintenance Group Deputy Commander

    • D. 

      Wing Vice Commander

  • 27. 
    Who is responsible for standardizing maintenance discipline, procedures, organizational structures, compliance, and management philosophy?
    • A. 

      Production Superintendent

    • B. 

      Wing Commander

    • C. 

      Maintenance Group Commander

    • D. 

      Maintenance Group Deputy Commander

  • 28. 
    Who is responsible for chairing the daily maintenance production/scheduling meeting with representatives from throughout the maintenance group (MXG)?
    • A. 

      MXG Deputy Commander

    • B. 

      MXG Superintendent

    • C. 

      MXG Commander

    • D. 

      Wing Vice Commander

  • 29. 
    Who oversees the management of maintenance facilities and aircraft support equipment, procurement, and maintenance?
    • A. 

      Programs and Resources Flight

    • B. 

      Maintenance Group Superintendent

    • C. 

      Maintenance Group Deputy Commander

    • D. 

      Maintenance Supply Liason

  • 30. 
    Who is held legally responsible for their units environmental protection agency program compliance in accordance with AFI 32-7042, waste management?
    • A. 

      Maintenance Operations Officers

    • B. 

      Maintenance Group Commanders

    • C. 

      Flight Commanders

    • D. 

      Squadron Commanders

  • 31. 
    Which commander is tasked with developing and publishing the wing/flying maintenance schedule in coordination with other squadron maintenance operations officers/maintenance superintendents?
    • A. 

      Maintenance squadron

    • B. 

      Maintenance operations flight

    • C. 

      Aircraft maintenance squadron

    • D. 

      Maintenance operations squadron

  • 32. 
    Worker safety and health information must be monitored, tracked, and documented using what AF IMT?
    • A. 

      55

    • B. 

      244

    • C. 

      435

    • D. 

      623

  • 33. 
    Section NCOIC are responsible for developing cross-utilization training requirements, ensuring they do not interfere with
    • A. 

      Accountability and control procedures

    • B. 

      Deployments and wing level taskings

    • C. 

      Qualification and upgrade training

    • D. 

      Scheduled maintenance actions

  • 34. 
    Section NCOIC must ensure their sections organized with tools, equipment, and material as close to the Point of Maintenance without jeopardizing
    • A. 

      Accountability and control procedures

    • B. 

      Qualification and upgrade training

    • C. 

      Maintenance and flying schedules

    • D. 

      Proper maintenance techniques

  • 35. 
    When a maintenance squadron production superintendent is appointed, who must he or she inform of specialist non-availability to at the beginning of each shift?
    • A. 

      Aircraft maintenance unit production superintendent

    • B. 

      Maintenance operation center

    • C. 

      Group manning manager

    • D. 

      Squadron commander

  • 36. 
    Training Detachments (TD's) are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM?
    • A. 

      Air Combat Command (ACC)

    • B. 

      Air Training Command (ATC)

    • C. 

      Air Reserve Command (AFRC)

    • D. 

      Air Education and Training Command (AETC)

  • 37. 
    The block training method is normally used to teach which Maintenance Training Flight (MTF) training course?
    • A. 

      Maintenance orientation

    • B. 

      Weight and Balance

    • C. 

      General Technical Order System

    • D. 

      Any 7-level course

  • 38. 
    How often must the Maintenance Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent review and sign the special certification roster (SCR)?
    • A. 

      Annually

    • B. 

      Quarterly

    • C. 

      Monthly

    • D. 

      Semi-Annually

  • 39. 
    In order to be given authority to downgrade a "Red-X" an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) and hold the minimum grade  of?
    • A. 

      TSgt

    • B. 

      MSgt

    • C. 

      SMSgt

    • D. 

      CMSgt

  • 40. 
    Training Business Area (TBA), provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time...
    • A. 

      Visibility of available formal training courses Air Force wide

    • B. 

      Access to special certification roster criteria listings

    • C. 

      Visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel

    • D. 

      Access to Distance Learning courseware

  • 41. 
    In the Training Business Area (TBA) what type of notification does the  "System Messages" board provide in addition to software releases, projected downtimes, and training update information?
    • A. 

      Open Suspenses

    • B. 

      Application problems

    • C. 

      System upgrade

    • D. 

      Changes to your user roles

  • 42. 
    What training phase has these four sub-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training?
    • A. 

      I

    • B. 

      III

    • C. 

      II

    • D. 

      IV

  • 43. 
    What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that compliment initial skill training received through AETC mission ready airmen (MRA) and training detachment (TD) courses?
    • A. 

      Maintenance qualifications

    • B. 

      On-the-job

    • C. 

      Ancillary

    • D. 

      Maintenance refresher

  • 44. 
    How often does the maintenance training flight (MTF) provide a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC)?
    • A. 

      Annually

    • B. 

      Semi-Annually

    • C. 

      Quarterly

    • D. 

      Monthly

  • 45. 
    An individual comes due for training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated. Provided it has not been more then 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning decertification is required?
    • A. 

      45

    • B. 

      15

    • C. 

      30

    • D. 

      60

  • 46. 
    Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC)?
    • A. 

      Unit Training Manager

    • B. 

      Group Commander

    • C. 

      Operations officer

    • D. 

      Maintenance training flight (MTF/CC) or chief

  • 47. 
    Manpower authorizations are...
    • A. 

      Unfunded

    • B. 

      Unvalidated

    • C. 

      Both funded and unfunded

    • D. 

      Funded

  • 48. 
    The maximum continuous duty time you can schedule your workers for without getting maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) approval is?
    • A. 

      15

    • B. 

      13

    • C. 

      14

    • D. 

      12

  • 49. 
    Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12-hour shift up to?
    • A. 

      16

    • B. 

      14

    • C. 

      15

    • D. 

      18

  • 50. 
    Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support program?
    • A. 

      Maintenance supply support

    • B. 

      Maintenance supply liaison

    • C. 

      Maintenance operations center

    • D. 

      Maintenance data system analysis

  • 51. 
    Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the commander of the?
    • A. 

      Aircraft Maintenance Squadron (AMXS)

    • B. 

      Maintenance Squadron (MXS)

    • C. 

      Maintenance Operations Squadron (MOS)

    • D. 

      Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS)

  • 52. 
    Which of the following is not normally a Maintenance Supply Liaison duty?
    • A. 

      Soliciting and consolidating inputs to initiate a quick reference guide

    • B. 

      Advising supervisors on supply management documents

    • C. 

      Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets

    • D. 

      Monitoring status of back-ordered requisitions

  • 53. 
    The assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base's Standard Base Supply System account after how many days?
    • A. 

      45

    • B. 

      30

    • C. 

      15

    • D. 

      60

  • 54. 
    Which expendability, recoverability, and repairability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed in bench stock?
    • A. 

      XB3

    • B. 

      XF3

    • C. 

      XD1

    • D. 

      XD2

  • 55. 
    The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels to provide how many days of supply?
    • A. 

      90

    • B. 

      30

    • C. 

      120

    • D. 

      60

  • 56. 
    Provided it is still serviceable, which type of shelf life item are you allowed to inspect and re-mark with a new expiration date?
    • A. 

      III

    • B. 

      I

    • C. 

      IV

    • D. 

      II

  • 57. 
    Who is the Maintenance Group (MXG) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements?
    • A. 

      MXG commander

    • B. 

      MXG superintendent

    • C. 

      MXG deputy commander

    • D. 

      Maintenance squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT)

  • 58. 
    What agency act as a central repository of engineering  drawings and engineering data?
    • A. 

      Audio Visual Center

    • B. 

      Engineering Data Service Center

    • C. 

      AF Primary Standards Laboratory

    • D. 

      Communication and Information System

  • 59. 
    Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?
    • A. 

      Oil sheen on standing water

    • B. 

      Stressed vegetation

    • C. 

      Stains on the ground

    • D. 

      Cloudy water

  • 60. 
    Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards that they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter?
    • A. 

      Operations officer

    • B. 

      Section supervisor

    • C. 

      Squadron commander

    • D. 

      Squadron safety moniter

  • 61. 
    Which tag would you use to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged?
    • A. 

      AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag

    • B. 

      DD Form 1574, Serviceable Tag-Material

    • C. 

      DD Form 1577-1, Unserviceable (Condemned) Tag-Material

    • D. 

      DD Form 1577-2, Unserviceable (Repairable) Tag

  • 62. 
    Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian?
    • A. 

      Section supervisor

    • B. 

      Squadron Commander

    • C. 

      Flight Commander/Chief

    • D. 

      Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT)

  • 63. 
    What specific block of supply training must an individual receive before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor?
    • A. 

      I

    • B. 

      III

    • C. 

      IIB

    • D. 

      IIA

  • 64. 
    What form is used to document all report of surveys (ROS)?
    • A. 

      AF IMT 453, Report of Survey Register

    • B. 

      AF IMT 1185, Statement of Record Data

    • C. 

      DD Form 362, Statement of Charges/Cash Collection Voucher

    • D. 

      DD Form 200, Financial Liability, Investigation of Property Loss

  • 65. 
    What Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) office accounts for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records?
    • A. 

      Flight Service Center (FSC)

    • B. 

      Equipment Liaison Office (ELO)

    • C. 

      Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO)

    • D. 

      Defense reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO)

  • 66. 
    Unless delegated, who is responsible For reviewing all requests for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance(SPRAM) authorizations submitted by SPRAM custodians?
    • A. 

      Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS)

    • B. 

      Maintenance Group (MXG) deputy commander

    • C. 

      Mission Support Group (MSG) commander

    • D. 

      Maintenance Group (MXG) commander

  • 67. 
    Which Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals?
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      C

    • C. 

      G

    • D. 

      P

  • 68. 
    Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day?
    • A. 

      D18, Priority Monitor Report

    • B. 

      D04, Daily Document Register

    • C. 

      M-24, Organization Effectiveness Report

    • D. 

      D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List

  • 69. 
    Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A?
    • A. 

      D18, Priority Monitor Report

    • B. 

      D04, Daily Document Register

    • C. 

      M-24, Organization Effectiveness Report

    • D. 

      D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List

  • 70. 
    Which supply tracking document provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support?
    • A. 

      D18, Priority Monitor Report

    • B. 

      D04, Daily Document Register

    • C. 

      M-24, Organization Effectiveness Report

    • D. 

      D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List

  • 71. 
    Who must authorize temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms?
    • A. 

      Aircraft commander

    • B. 

      Host installation commander

    • C. 

      Operations Group Commander

    • D. 

      Mission Support Group Commander

  • 72. 
    Which is not normally a Maintenance Group (MXG) technical order distribution office (TODO) duty? 
    • A. 

      Establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required

    • B. 

      Assisting units in establishing additional TODO accounts

    • C. 

      Advising MXG/CC on TO availability

    • D. 

      Resolving TO availability problems

  • 73. 
    What Maintenance Operations Flight section is responsible for periodically reviewing maintenance information systems(MIS) produces to insure proper documentation and management of time compliance technical orders (TCTO)  by owning and managing agencies?
    • A. 

      Maintenance Supply Liaison

    • B. 

      Maintenance Operations Center

    • C. 

      Maintenance Management Analysis

    • D. 

      Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation

  • 74. 
    The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to what Maintenance Group (MXG) section?
    • A. 

      Quality Assurance

    • B. 

      Engine Management

    • C. 

      Maintenance Operations Center

    • D. 

      Maintenance Data Systems Analysis

  • 75. 
    Which of the following is not a technical order (TO) change priority category?
    • A. 

      Urgent

    • B. 

      Routine

    • C. 

      Standard

    • D. 

      Emergency

  • 76. 
    Who has the overall responsibility for AF policy governing the TO system?
    • A. 

      A4MT

    • B. 

      A4YE

    • C. 

      A4U

    • D. 

      A4BM

  • 77. 
    Who designates cannibalization authorities?
    • A. 

      Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT)

    • B. 

      Maintenance Group (MXG) Commander

    • C. 

      MXG Vice Commander

    • D. 

      MXG Superintendent

  • 78. 
    If a serially controlled item is cannibalized (CANN), the CANN authority is required to notify...
    • A. 

      Quality Assurance

    • B. 

      Programs and Resources Flight

    • C. 

      Maintenance Management analysis (MMA)

    • D. 

      Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation (PS&D)

  • 79. 
    Which of the following does not institute a restricted maintenance area?
    • A. 

      Weapons loading operations

    • B. 

      Radiographic inspections

    • C. 

      Fuel system repair

    • D. 

      Aircraft on jacks

  • 80. 
    Red Ball maintenance is not designed to prevent...
    • A. 

      Air aborts

    • B. 

      Late takeoffs

    • C. 

      Ground aborts

    • D. 

      Aircraft status changes

  • 81. 
    Who designates the impoundment Official  for a particular impoundment situation?
    • A. 

      Maintenance Group (MXG) Vice Commander

    • B. 

      MXG Impoundment Release Authority

    • C. 

      Applicable Impoundment Authority

    • D. 

      Applicable Squadron Commander

  • 82. 
    Who is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for development of wing procedures for control and management of tools/equipment used on the flight line and in aerospace maintenance industrial areas?
    • A. 

      Wing Commander (WG/CC)

    • B. 

      Wing Vice Commander (WG/CV)

    • C. 

      Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC)

    • D. 

      Maintenance Group Deputy Commander (MXG/CD)

  • 83. 
    How many digits make up an equipment identification designator (EID) code used to identify tools and equipment?
    • A. 

      8

    • B. 

      9

    • C. 

      10

    • D. 

      11

  • 84. 
    The Wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is normally located within the...
    • A. 

      Maintenance Flight

    • B. 

      Quality Assurance section

    • C. 

      Engine Management section

    • D. 

      Maintenance Operations Center

  • 85. 
    The Wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor must be notify the MAJCOM FOD manager within how many hours of a FOD incident? 
    • A. 

      8

    • B. 

      12

    • C. 

      24

    • D. 

      48

  • 86. 
    Which of the following, if inadvertently dropped during aircrew operations, is not considered a dropped object under the Dropped Object Prevention Program?
    • A. 

      Bolt

    • B. 

      Panel

    • C. 

      Safety Pin

    • D. 

      Explosive Munitions

  • 87. 
    A dropped object that has resulted in casualties or property must be reported IAW?
    • A. 

      AFI 10-206, Operational Reporting

    • B. 

      AFI 10-2510, USAF Emergency Notification Signals

    • C. 

      AFI 91-224, Ground Safety Investigations and Processing

    • D. 

      AFI 91-221, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management

  • 88. 
    Which AF publication provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation?
    • A. 

      AFTTP 3-21-1, Aircraft Maintenance

    • B. 

      AFI 10-403, Deployment Planning and Execution

    • C. 

      AFI 33-103, Requirements Development and Processing

    • D. 

      AFI 21-101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management

  • 89. 
    Who is the Quality Assurance (QA) Chief Inspector directly responsible for ensuring the required Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Program (MSEP) functions are performed?
    • A. 

      Wing Inspector General

    • B. 

      MAJCOM Inspector General

    • C. 

      Maintenance Group Deputy Commander (MXG/CD)

    • D. 

      Quality Assurance (QA) Officer in Charge (OIC)/Superintendent (SUPT)

  • 90. 
    When a unit has received an unsatisfactory Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) rating, the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) directs Quality Assurance (QA) to perform a follow-up inspection on the unit within how many days?
    • A. 

      30

    • B. 

      60

    • C. 

      90

    • D. 

      120

  • 91. 
    What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is an over-the-shoulder evaluation while the technician performs a task?
    • A. 

      Quality Verification Inspection

    • B. 

      Management Inspection

    • C. 

      Personal Inspection

    • D. 

      Special Inspection

  • 92. 
    What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is performed after a technician completes a task?
    • A. 

      Special Inspection

    • B. 

      Personal Evaluation

    • C. 

      Management Inspection

    • D. 

      Quality Verification Inspection

  • 93. 
    In regards to the modification management program, which agency serves as the operator's interface with the single point manager for a weapons system?
    • A. 

      Air Force Mobility Command

    • B. 

      Quality Assurance

    • C. 

      Inspector General

    • D. 

      Lead Command

  • 94. 
    When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, what type of deficiency report is submitted?
    • A. 

      Deficiency Report (DR)

    • B. 

      Supply Discrepancy Report

    • C. 

      Maintenance cross-tell report

    • D. 

      Product Quality Deficiency Report

  • 95. 
    Who has the responsibility for overall Deficiency Report program management for the submitting organization or group?
    • A. 

      Originator

    • B. 

      Action Point

    • C. 

      Screening Point

    • D. 

      Originating Point

  • 96. 
    Who acts as the Deficiency Report focal point between the support point and submitting organization?
    • A. 

      Originator

    • B. 

      Action Point

    • C. 

      Screening Point

    • D. 

      Originating Point

  • 97. 
    Once a Category I deficiency is discovered, a deficiency report (DR) must be submitted to the Screening Point within
    • A. 

      8 hours

    • B. 

      16 hours

    • C. 

      24 hours

    • D. 

      32 hours

  • 98. 
    When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with an aircraft which has secret or confidential equipment installed, she/he must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every
    • A. 

      Hour

    • B. 

      2 hours

    • C. 

      3 hours

    • D. 

      4 hours

  • 99. 
    Who is the final authority for reviewing a unit’s list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming?
    • A. 

      Flight commander/Chief

    • B. 

      Maintenance Group commander

    • C. 

      Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector

    • D. 

      MX Operations Officer (MOO)/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT)

  • 100. 
    Who is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request?
    • A. 

      Customer

    • B. 

      Maintenance Supply support

    • C. 

      Maintenance Supply Liaison

    • D. 

      Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Customer Service

  • 101. 
    Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare?
    • A. 

      1A or JA

    • B. 

      AR or BR

    • C. 

      AA or AM

    • D. 

      BM or CM

  • 102. 
    Before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area, who must Maintenance coordinate with?
    • A. 

      Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Flight Service Center

    • B. 

      Maintenance Group (MXG) Quality Assurance

    • C. 

      MXG Maintenance Data System Analysis

    • D. 

      LRS material management element

  • 103. 
    Once established, how often must supply point accounts be reconciled by the work center supply point monitor?
    • A. 

      Annually

    • B. 

      Semi-annually

    • C. 

      Quarterly

    • D. 

      Monthly

  • 104. 
    When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB), supply personnel notify the...
    • A. 

      Operations Officer

    • B. 

      Aircraft Section flight chief

    • C. 

      Maintenance Operations Center (MOC)

    • D. 

      Aircraft Maintenance Unit’s (AMU) Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation (PS&D) dedicated scheduler

  • 105. 
    How many standard squadrons are in a maintenance group?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      5

    • D. 

      8

  • 106. 
    Which Maintenance Operations Squadron flight is a centrally located agency responsible for monitoring and developing long-range strategies to sustain fleet health?
    • A. 

      Maintenance Operations Center (MOC)

    • B. 

      Maintenance Training Flight (MTF)

    • C. 

      Maintenance Operations (MOF)

    • D. 

      Programs and Resources

  • 107. 
    The Maintenance Operations Center is responsible for the overall management of which Integrated Maintenance Data System-Central Database (IMDS-CDB) subsystem?
    • A. 

      Location

    • B. 

      Operational Events

    • C. 

      Maintenance Events

    • D. 

      Status and Inventory Reporting

  • 108. 
    Which section is the wing focal point for engine health tracking and the engine health management program?
    • A. 

      Aircraft Maintenance Unit Specialist Section

    • B. 

      Jet Engine Intermediate Maintenance

    • C. 

      Maintenance Operations Center

    • D. 

      Engine Management

  • 109. 
    Which Maintenance Operation Squadron section maintains standardized aircraft jacket files and attends pre-dock and post-dock inspection meetings?
    • A. 

      Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation

    • B. 

      Maintenance Management Analysis

    • C. 

      Maintenance Operations Center

    • D. 

      Production Superintendent

  • 110. 
    The Maintenance Training Flight normally consists of what two sections?
    • A. 

      Education and Training; Development and Instruction

    • B. 

      Training Management; Development and Instruction

    • C. 

      Training Development; Instruction Management

    • D. 

      Training Detachment; Training Management

  • 111. 
    What agency’s basic mission is to launch and recover aircraft and to perform the necessary servicing, inspections, and maintenance to perform daily aircraft flying operations?
    • A. 

      Transient Alert

    • B. 

      Maintenance Flight

    • C. 

      Aircraft Maintenance Unit

    • D. 

      Maintenance Operations Squadron

  • 112. 
    Which of the following is not a section within a standard aircraft maintenance unit?
    • A. 

      Weapons

    • B. 

      Debrief

    • C. 

      Aircraft

    • D. 

      Supply

  • 113. 
    What does the Debrief section use to help identify fault codes to aid maintainers in aircraft troubleshooting?
    • A. 

      Landing status codes

    • B. 

      Fault Isolation manuals

    • C. 

      System capability codes

    • D. 

      Fault Reporting manuals

  • 114. 
    Who must ensure the applicable aircraft form sets are provided to the Debrief section by the end of the flying day if debriefs are suspended due to aircraft flying surge operations?
    • A. 

      Weapons expediter or Specialist expediter

    • B. 

      Flight-line expediter or Aircraft section chief

    • C. 

      Flight-line expediter or Production Superintendent

    • D. 

      Aircraft section chief or Production Superintendent

  • 115. 
    The Aircraft section is split into two separate sections when an Aircraft Maintenance Unit’s number of mission assigned aircraft is more than
    • A. 

      14

    • B. 

      16

    • C. 

      18

    • D. 

      20

  • 116. 
    Which section is normally responsible for aircraft troubleshooting, on-equipment repairs, component removal and installation, reprogramming avionics systems, and classified aircraft items management?
    • A. 

      Avionics

    • B. 

      Aircrafts

    • C. 

      Specialist

    • D. 

      Communication-Navigation

  • 117. 
    Which technicians maintain aircraft bleed air, vacuum, pneumatic, fire suppression, and oxygen systems, including removing and replacing associated system components?
    • A. 

      Electro-environmental specialists

    • B. 

      Propulsion specialists

    • C. 

      Avionics specialists

    • D. 

      Crew chiefs

  • 118. 
    Who is responsible to the Weapons section chief for monitoring all armament systems maintenance and loading operations?
    • A. 

      Load crew chief

    • B. 

      Flight-line expediter

    • C. 

      Weapons expediter

    • D. 

      Dedicated crew chief

  • 119. 
    Which section is tasked with the maintenance, control, and storage of alternate mission equipment, dash–21 equipment, and maintenance, safety, and protective equipment?
    • A. 

      Aircraft section

    • B. 

      Support section

    • C. 

      Weapons section

    • D. 

      Armament Support section

  • 120. 
    Which of the following is not a standard flight in the maintenance squadron?
    • A. 

      Fabrication

    • B. 

      Armament

    • C. 

      Propulsion

    • D. 

      Egress

  • 121. 
    Commanders have the option of establishing two separate squadrons, the Equipment Maintenance Squadron and the Component Maintenance Squadron, if maintenance squadron manning authorizations exceed
    • A. 

      600

    • B. 

      670

    • C. 

      700

    • D. 

      760

  • 122. 
    In relation to aerospace ground equipment, what are centrally located to enhance mission performance?
    • A. 

      AFTO IMT 244s

    • B. 

      Driver radios

    • C. 

      Sub-pools

    • D. 

      Drivers

  • 123. 
    Which Avionics Flight section is responsible for performing off-equipment maintenance on systems such as all-weather landing, attitude reference and bombing, and inertial navigation?
    • A. 

      Guidance and Control Systems

    • B. 

      Communication-Navigation

    • C. 

      Avionics Intermediate

    • D. 

      Sensors

  • 124. 
    Which Avionics Flight section is responsible for maintaining low-altitude navigation and targeting infrared for night (LANTIRN) pods?
    • A. 

      Guidance and Control Systems

    • B. 

      Communication-Navigation

    • C. 

      Avionics Intermediate

    • D. 

      Sensors

  • 125. 
    Which Fabrication Flight section’s processes are tightly controlled because the parts and tools they manufacture must meet the stringent standards of aerospace-grade equipment?
    • A. 

      Low Observable

    • B. 

      Metals Technology

    • C. 

      Non-Destructive Inspection

    • D. 

      Aircraft Structural Maintenance

  • 126. 
    If a Refurbishment section is established, wings have the option to align it under either the Maintenance Flight or the
    • A. 

      Fabrication Flight

    • B. 

      Accessories Flight

    • C. 

      Aircraft Inspection Flight

    • D. 

      Two-level Maintenance Flight

  • 127. 
    Which Munitions Flight section receives, stores, warehouses, handles, inspects, ships, inventories, and transports containers, dispensers, and training items?
    • A. 

      Production

    • B. 

      Material

    • C. 

      Systems

    • D. 

      Support

  • 128. 
    Which Propulsion Flight section stores, builds up, tears down, modifies, and repairs engines, quick engine change kits, and test components?
    • A. 

      Jet Engine Intermediate Maintenance

    • B. 

      Engine Equipment Maintenance

    • C. 

      Module/Accessory Repair

    • D. 

      Small Gas Turbine Engine

  • 129. 
    The Test, Measurement, and Diagnostic Equipment(TMDE) Flight maintains, calibrates, and certifies TMDE through the
    • A. 

      Geographically separated units

    • B. 

      Air Force Primary Standards Laboratory

    • C. 

      Rapid Assistance Support for Calibration

    • D. 

      Precision Measurement Equipment Laboratory