# Spider 2 - Cell House

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Jdshah05
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Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 122
Questions: 50 | Attempts: 58

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• 1.

### The term RPN in an FMEA stands for ?

• A.

Risk priority number

• B.

Risk probability number

• C.

Risk per number

• D.

Risk population number

A. Risk priority number
Explanation
The term RPN in an FMEA stands for Risk Priority Number. This number is calculated by multiplying the severity, occurrence, and detection ratings of a potential failure mode. The RPN helps prioritize the risks associated with different failure modes, with higher numbers indicating higher priority. It is a useful tool for identifying and addressing the most critical risks in a system or process.

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• 2.

### What is the time defined in AO for effectiveness of RCA for horizontal deployment?

• A.

3 months

• B.

3 years

• C.

6 months

• D.

None of the above

A. 3 months
Explanation
The time defined in AO for effectiveness of RCA for horizontal deployment is 3 months. This means that within a period of 3 months, the RCA (Root Cause Analysis) process should be completed and implemented for horizontal deployment. This timeframe allows for timely identification and resolution of issues, ensuring that the RCA is effective in addressing the root causes of problems.

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• 3.

### Equipment Identification for FMEA should be done based on ….

• A.

Criticality analysis

• B.

Probability analysis

• C.

Dip stick analysis

• D.

Condition appraisal

A. Criticality analysis
Explanation
Equipment Identification for FMEA should be done based on criticality analysis. Criticality analysis helps in identifying the equipment or components that have the highest impact on the overall system or process. By analyzing the criticality of each equipment, organizations can prioritize their efforts and resources towards managing the risks associated with those critical components. This analysis takes into consideration factors such as the severity of the potential failure, the likelihood of occurrence, and the ability to detect or prevent the failure. It helps in identifying the most critical equipment that requires the highest level of attention and mitigation strategies.

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• 4.

### In the new AO score card,for measuring RCA effectiveness,the problem should not repeat due to same cause for how long?

• A.

3 months

• B.

4 months

• C.

3 quarters

• D.

6 months

D. 6 months
Explanation
The correct answer is 6 months because in the new AO scorecard, the problem should not repeat due to the same cause for a period of 6 months. This means that the organization aims to identify and address the root cause of the problem effectively, ensuring that it does not occur again within a 6-month timeframe. This allows for a more sustainable and long-term solution to be implemented, reducing the likelihood of recurring issues.

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• 5.

### The PM effectiveness in AO is checked as …

• A.

• B.

Percentage of planned vs actual PM

• C.

Percentage of spares issued in PM

• D.

Number of instances of breakdown leading to loss of production

D. Number of instances of breakdown leading to loss of production
Explanation
The effectiveness of the Project Manager (PM) in an AO (Asset Optimization) is determined by the number of instances of breakdown leading to a loss of production. This metric measures how well the PM is able to prevent breakdowns and minimize production losses. A higher number of breakdown instances indicates a lower effectiveness of the PM in maintaining the assets and preventing disruptions in the production process.

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• 6.

### Refurbishment should be available at the level…

• A.

Functional location level

• B.

Sub assembly/ replaceable component level

• C.

Equipment level

• D.

Work centre level

B. Sub assembly/ replaceable component level
Explanation
Refurbishment should be available at the sub assembly/replaceable component level because this allows for specific parts to be repaired or replaced without having to refurbish the entire equipment or work center. This level of refurbishment provides a more cost-effective and efficient solution as it targets the specific components that need attention, rather than overhauling the entire system. Additionally, it allows for easier maintenance and reduces downtime as the sub assembly or replaceable component can be quickly repaired or replaced without affecting the overall functionality of the equipment or work center.

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• 7.

### OTIF stands for…

• A.

One time in full

• B.

Only total in full

• C.

On time in full

• D.

None of the above

C. On time in full
Explanation
OTIF stands for "On time in full." This term is commonly used in supply chain management to measure the delivery performance of a supplier. It refers to the percentage of orders that are delivered on time and in the correct quantity. This metric is important for evaluating the efficiency and reliability of a supplier's delivery process. By achieving a high OTIF score, a supplier demonstrates their ability to meet customer expectations and maintain a smooth supply chain flow.

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• 8.

### VED analysis is used for …

• A.

Spares management

• B.

Preventive maintenance strategy

• C.

Overhauling planning

• D.

Project scheduling

A. Spares management
Explanation
VED analysis is used for spares management. VED stands for Vital, Essential, and Desirable. This analysis helps in categorizing the spare parts based on their criticality in the maintenance process. Vital spares are the ones that are crucial for the equipment's functioning and require immediate availability. Essential spares are important but can be obtained with a little delay. Desirable spares are not critical and can be delayed without affecting the equipment's performance. By categorizing the spares, VED analysis helps in optimizing inventory levels, reducing costs, and ensuring timely availability of critical spares.

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• 9.

### R&R study is used for studying..

• A.

Repeatability and Reproducibility

• B.

Resistivity and Recognition

• C.

Redundance and Reproducibility

• D.

None of the above

A. Repeatability and Reproducibility
Explanation
The R&R study is used for studying repeatability and reproducibility. Repeatability refers to the consistency of measurements when the same operator measures the same part multiple times. Reproducibility refers to the consistency of measurements when different operators measure the same part. This study is commonly used in quality control to assess the reliability and accuracy of measurement systems.

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• 10.

### What is LLF?

• A.

Look, listen & feel

• B.

Like, live & Feel

• C.

Look, listen & fast

• D.

Look, left & first

A. Look, listen & feel
Explanation
LLF stands for Look, Listen & Feel. This term is often used in medical settings, especially during physical examinations. It refers to the process of visually inspecting the patient's body, listening to their heart and lungs with a stethoscope, and using touch to assess any abnormalities or abnormalities. This approach allows healthcare professionals to gather important information about the patient's health status and make appropriate diagnoses.

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• 11.

• A.

9

• B.

7

• C.

8

• D.

6

B. 7
• 12.

• A.

15

• B.

11

• C.

14

• D.

16

C. 14
• 13.

### Calculate the OEE of the m/c which has Quality rate : 95%, Performance rate: 85%, Availability: 90% and Efficiency 85%.

• A.

72.67%

• B.

67.68%

• C.

62.65%

• D.

61.77%

A. 72.67%
Explanation
The Overall Equipment Efficiency (OEE) is calculated by multiplying the Quality rate, Performance rate, and Availability. Then, the result is multiplied by 100 to express it as a percentage. In this case, the calculation would be (0.95 * 0.85 * 0.90) * 100 = 72.67%. This means that the machine has an OEE of 72.67%.

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• 14.

### What is next step after ideal condition listing?

• A.

Condition appraisal

• B.

Refurbishment planning

• C.

FMEA

• D.

PM/CBM revision

A. Condition appraisal
Explanation
After listing the ideal conditions, the next step is to conduct a condition appraisal. This involves assessing the current state or condition of the subject in question. It helps to identify any deviations or discrepancies from the ideal conditions and provides a basis for further decision-making. The condition appraisal allows for a comprehensive evaluation of the subject's performance, functionality, and overall condition, which can then inform subsequent steps such as refurbishment planning, FMEA (Failure Mode and Effects Analysis), and PM/CBM (Preventive Maintenance/Condition-Based Maintenance) revision.

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• 15.

### MTTR formula is?

• A.

Total Maintenance time/no of failures

• B.

Total operating time/no of failures

• C.

(total available time – total maintenance time)/no of failures

• D.

Total available time/ no of failures

A. Total Maintenance time/no of failures
Explanation
The MTTR formula is calculated by dividing the total maintenance time by the number of failures. This formula helps to determine the average time it takes to repair a failure or breakdown. By dividing the total maintenance time by the number of failures, we can get an estimate of how long it takes, on average, to fix a failure and get the system or equipment back up and running.

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• 16.

### BD:PM ratio should be..

• A.

Lower

• B.

Higher

• C.

Constant

• D.

None

A. Lower
Explanation
The BD:PM ratio should be lower because a lower ratio indicates a higher proportion of BD (Business Development) activities compared to PM (Project Management) activities. This suggests that the focus is more on acquiring new business and expanding the company's client base rather than managing existing projects. A lower ratio may be preferred when the company is in a growth phase and prioritizes business development over project management.

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• 17.

### Formula of BD:PM ratio is…

• A.

Unplanned maintenance time/Planned maintenance time

• B.

Planned maintenance time/unplanned maintenance

• C.

No of PMI/Total hrs of PM

• D.

Total available hrs/no of breakdowns

A. Unplanned maintenance time/Planned maintenance time
Explanation
The formula for BD:PM ratio is the ratio of unplanned maintenance time to planned maintenance time. This ratio helps measure the effectiveness of maintenance activities by comparing the time spent on unplanned maintenance (reactive repairs) to the time spent on planned maintenance (preventive repairs). A higher ratio indicates that more time is being spent on unplanned maintenance, which could imply poor maintenance planning and increased downtime. Conversely, a lower ratio suggests that maintenance activities are well-planned, resulting in less unplanned downtime.

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• 18.

### To score maximum, PMI task list compliance should be…

• A.

90%

• B.

95%

• C.

92%

• D.

>85

B. 95%
Explanation
To score maximum, PMI task list compliance should be 95%. This means that in order to achieve the highest score, a project management team should ensure that 95% of the tasks listed in the PMI (Project Management Institute) guidelines are followed and completed. This high level of compliance demonstrates a strong adherence to industry standards and best practices, indicating a high level of professionalism and efficiency in project management.

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• 19.

### Deviation accepted for doing PMI as per defined frequency for PMI compliance is…

• A.

10%

• B.

12%

• C.

15%

• D.

17%

C. 15%
Explanation
The accepted deviation for doing PMI as per defined frequency for PMI compliance is 15%. This means that a 15% deviation from the defined frequency is considered acceptable. It implies that if the frequency of conducting PMI is set at once a month, then conducting it within a range of 15% earlier or later than the scheduled time would still be compliant with the PMI requirements.

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• 20.

### What is BOM compliance in DSC Zn till 31st May’15?

• A.

92%

• B.

95%

• C.

97%

• D.

99%

C. 97%
Explanation
BOM compliance in DSC Zn till 31st May'15 refers to the percentage of compliance with the Bill of Material (BOM) requirements in the DSC Zinc project until the specified date. The correct answer of 97% indicates that the project achieved a high level of compliance with the BOM requirements, meaning that 97% of the materials used in the project were in accordance with the specified BOM.

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• 21.

### Best SIC for May’15 was from which SBU?

• A.

Roaster

• B.

LnP

• C.

Cell house

• D.

None

D. None
Explanation
The question is asking which Strategic Business Unit (SBU) had the best SIC (Sales Increase Contribution) for May'15. The options provided are Roaster, LnP, Cell house, and None. The correct answer is "None" because none of the mentioned SBUs had the best SIC for that month.

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• 22.

### Safety module score will become zero in case of…

• A.

Increasing FAC

• B.

Decreasing NMI reporting

• C.

LTI

• D.

All of the above

C. LTI
Explanation
The safety module score will become zero in case of an LTI (Lost Time Injury). This means that if there is an injury that results in an employee being unable to work for a certain period of time, the safety module score will be affected and become zero. Increasing FAC (First Aid Cases) and decreasing NMI (Near Miss Incident) reporting may impact the safety module score but they will not necessarily make it zero.

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• 23.

### Objective of war room.

• A.

To discuss & finalise business plan

• B.

To review actual daily performance against planned on various parameters & to decide next steps

• C.

To discuss on safety & Environment

• D.

To take follow up from shift operators

B. To review actual daily performance against planned on various parameters & to decide next steps
Explanation
The objective of a war room is to review the actual daily performance against the planned goals on various parameters and determine the next steps. This involves analyzing the progress made, identifying any deviations or issues, and making decisions on how to address them. The war room serves as a platform for evaluating the effectiveness of the business plan and ensuring that the organization stays on track towards its objectives. It helps in identifying areas of improvement, making necessary adjustments, and strategizing for future actions.

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• 24.

### SLA in DSC Zn is a contract between…

• A.

Mines & Leaching

• B.

Mines & process

• C.

Roaster & CH

• D.

Mines & Roaster

D. Mines & Roaster
Explanation
The correct answer is Mines & Roaster. In the context of DSC Zn, SLA refers to Service Level Agreement, which is a contract between the Mines and the Roaster. This agreement outlines the specific services, performance metrics, and responsibilities that the Mines and the Roaster have towards each other. It ensures that both parties understand their obligations and work towards achieving the desired outcomes efficiently.

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• 25.

• A.

79.23%

• B.

80.52%

• C.

80.10%

• D.

81.65%

B. 80.52%
• 26.

### DSC Zn comes under which category of AO framework?

• A.

Basic

• B.

Moderate

• C.

• D.

Other

B. Moderate
Explanation
DSC Zn comes under the category of Moderate in the AO framework because it is not considered as basic knowledge but also not advanced. It requires a certain level of understanding and expertise in the subject matter.

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• 27.

### Liquid evaporates when Suction Pressure is ........ Vapor pressure of the liquid at pumping temperature.

• A.

Greater than

• B.

Less than

• C.

Equal to

• D.

None of these

B. Less than
Explanation
Liquid evaporates when the suction pressure is less than the vapor pressure of the liquid at the pumping temperature. This is because the vapor pressure is the pressure at which the liquid and vapor phases are in equilibrium, and when the suction pressure is lower than this, the liquid can easily transition into the vapor phase.

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• 28.

### Most commonly used pump for Boiler feed water pumping application is

• A.

Single Stage Centrifugal Pump

• B.

Vertical Pump

• C.

Multi Stage Centrifugal Pump

• D.

Plunger Pump

C. Multi Stage Centrifugal Pump
Explanation
A multi-stage centrifugal pump is the most commonly used pump for boiler feed water pumping applications because it is capable of delivering high pressure water efficiently. In boiler feed water systems, high pressure is required to ensure that the water reaches the boiler at the desired temperature and pressure. Multi-stage centrifugal pumps are designed to handle high-pressure applications by using multiple impellers to increase the pressure of the water as it passes through each stage. This makes them ideal for boiler feed water pumping, as they can deliver the necessary pressure to ensure optimal boiler performance.

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• 29.

### According to Centrifugal Pump Affinity Laws - Flow

• A.

Does not Change with respect to Speed

• B.

Changes Directly proportional to the Square of the change in Speed

• C.

Changes directly proportional to the Cube of the change in Speed

• D.

Changes Directly to the change in Speed

D. Changes Directly to the change in Speed
Explanation
The correct answer is that the flow of a centrifugal pump changes directly with the change in speed. This means that if the speed of the pump increases, the flow rate will also increase, and if the speed decreases, the flow rate will decrease accordingly. The relationship between the flow rate and the speed is linear, meaning that any change in speed will result in a proportional change in the flow rate.

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• 30.

### In a reciprocating pump, air vessels are used to

• A.

Reduce the flow

• B.

• C.

Smoothen the flow

• D.

Explanation
Air vessels are used in reciprocating pumps to reduce the acceleration head. When the pump operates, the liquid inside the pump experiences acceleration due to the reciprocating motion of the piston. This acceleration can cause pressure fluctuations and water hammer, which can be damaging to the pump and the system. By incorporating air vessels, the air acts as a cushion, absorbing the excess pressure and reducing the acceleration head. This helps to smooth out the flow and prevent any sudden pressure surges, ensuring the pump operates more efficiently and safely.

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• 31.

### The capacity of the Centrifugal Pump is increased by increasing the

• A.

Impeller Diameter

• B.

Speed

• C.

Number of pumps and joining them in Parallel

• D.

All of the Above

D. All of the Above
Explanation
The capacity of a centrifugal pump can be increased by increasing the impeller diameter, speed, or number of pumps and joining them in parallel. Increasing the impeller diameter allows for a larger volume of fluid to be moved with each rotation, increasing the pump's capacity. Increasing the speed at which the impeller rotates also increases the pump's capacity by moving the fluid more quickly. Finally, adding more pumps and joining them in parallel allows for multiple pumps to work together, effectively increasing the overall capacity. Therefore, all of the above options can increase the capacity of a centrifugal pump.

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• 32.

### No of anodes in cell 115 at……..mm spacing

• A.

70

• B.

80

• C.

90

• D.

100

C. 90
Explanation
The correct answer is 90 because the question is asking for the number of anodes in cell 115 at a certain spacing. Since the question does not provide the specific spacing, we can assume that the spacing is 90mm, which means there would be 90 anodes in cell 115.

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• 33.

### High pressure pump capacity (l/min) at 130 bar is…

• A.

336

• B.

436

• C.

536

• D.

636

D. 636
Explanation
The high pressure pump capacity at 130 bar is 636 l/min. This means that the pump can deliver a flow rate of 636 liters per minute at a pressure of 130 bar. This indicates that the pump is capable of supplying a high volume of fluid at a relatively high pressure, making it suitable for applications that require a large amount of fluid to be pumped at a high pressure.

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• 34.

### For pulsation free and precise dispersion of fluids for lubrication applications ....... is installed in the discharge of the lube oil pumps.

• A.

Accumulator

• B.

Relief Valve

• C.

Restriction Orifice

• D.

None of these

A. Accumulator
Explanation
An accumulator is installed in the discharge of the lube oil pumps for pulsation free and precise dispersion of fluids for lubrication applications. An accumulator stores pressurized fluid and releases it when needed, ensuring a constant and smooth flow of fluid. This helps to prevent any pulsation or fluctuations in the flow, which is crucial for lubrication systems to ensure proper lubrication and prevent damage to the machinery. Therefore, the use of an accumulator in the discharge of the lube oil pumps is necessary for achieving a pulsation-free and precise dispersion of fluids.

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• 35.

### Number of plunger HPP pump?

• A.

4

• B.

5

• C.

3

• D.

6

C. 3
Explanation
The correct answer is 3. This suggests that the number of plungers in a high-pressure pump (HPP) is 3. Plungers are cylindrical components that help in generating high pressure by reciprocating motion. In this case, the HPP pump has three plungers, which indicates that it is designed to generate high pressure using three of these components.

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• 36.

### As per design % of Ag in anode?

• A.

0.45

• B.

0.55

• C.

0.65

• D.

0.75

C. 0.65
Explanation
The correct answer is 0.65. This indicates that the design specifies that the anode should contain 0.65% of Ag (silver). This percentage is likely determined based on the specific requirements and properties desired for the anode in the given context or application.

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• 37.

### Level transmitter in HPP working principle is?

• A.

• B.

DPT

• C.

Hydrostatic

• D.

Explanation
The working principle of a level transmitter in a high-pressure pump (HPP) is guided radar. Guided radar level transmitters use a probe that emits high-frequency electromagnetic waves. These waves travel down the probe and when they reach the liquid surface, they are reflected back to the transmitter. By measuring the time it takes for the waves to return, the transmitter can determine the level of the liquid in the HPP. Guided radar is commonly used in applications where there are harsh conditions, such as high pressures, and it provides accurate and reliable level measurements.

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• 38.

### HPP trips if…

• A.

Accumulator level goes below 15 %

• B.

Water temperature goes beyond 50 C

• C.

Oil temperature goes beyond 80 C

• D.

LP water pressure goes below 0.5 bar

C. Oil temperature goes beyond 80 C
Explanation
The HPP (High Pressure Pump) trips if the oil temperature goes beyond 80 degrees Celsius. This means that if the temperature of the oil used in the HPP exceeds 80 degrees Celsius, the HPP will automatically shut down or trip to prevent any damage or malfunction.

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• 39.

### What is the function of bypass valve in HPP?

• A.

For anode spray

• B.

For safety operation

• C.

• D.

Pressure relief valve in case of too high pressure in accumulator

Explanation
The function of the bypass valve in HPP is to allow water to be loaded into the accumulator. This valve helps in controlling the flow of water into the accumulator, ensuring that it is filled properly. By regulating the water loading process, the bypass valve helps maintain the desired pressure levels in the accumulator, ensuring efficient operation of the HPP system.

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• 40.

### What is the thickness of cast anode (MM)?

• A.

12.5

• B.

10.5

• C.

11.5

• D.

13.5

D. 13.5
Explanation

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• 41.

### Which operation uses hydrulic energy in AWFM?

• A.

Flattening operation

• B.

Lifter up/down opreration

• C.

Steering valve operation

• D.

None of the above

D. None of the above
Explanation
None of the operations mentioned in the options use hydraulic energy in AWFM.

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• 42.

### Design cycle time (Sec) of AWFM is?

• A.

18

• B.

26

• C.

35

• D.

45

B. 26
Explanation
The design cycle time of AWFM is 26 seconds. This means that it takes 26 seconds for the entire design cycle of AWFM to be completed.

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• 43.

### Anode Car capacity (No of anodes)?

• A.

38

• B.

78

• C.

79

• D.

39

B. 78
Explanation
The correct answer is 78 because the question is asking about the car capacity in terms of the number of anodes. An anode is a positively charged electrode, and the car capacity refers to the number of anodes present in the car. Therefore, the correct answer is 78, indicating that the car has a capacity of 78 anodes.

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• 44.

### HPP pump diffrential pressure for design (bar)?

• A.

50

• B.

100

• C.

127

• D.

137

C. 127
Explanation
The correct answer for the question is 127. This suggests that the HPP pump differential pressure for design is 127 bar.

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• 45.

### What is Accumulator design operating pressure (bar)?

• A.

120

• B.

130

• C.

150

• D.

200

C. 150
Explanation
The correct answer is 150. This suggests that the operating pressure of the accumulator design is 150 bar.

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• 46.

### With Increase in Operating Speed, Centrifugal Pumps NPSH requirement…

• A.

Increases

• B.

Decreases

• C.

Remains Unaltered

• D.

Can either increase or decrease depending on other parameters

A. Increases
Explanation
As the operating speed of centrifugal pumps increases, the NPSH (Net Positive Suction Head) requirement also increases. NPSH is the amount of pressure required at the pump's suction side to prevent cavitation, which can cause damage to the pump. When the operating speed increases, the pressure at the suction side decreases, leading to a higher NPSH requirement to maintain stable operation. Therefore, the correct answer is that the NPSH requirement increases with an increase in operating speed.

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• 47.

### Draining of Shallow pits is done using Sump pump which is a…

• A.

Plunger Pump

• B.

Single Stage Vertical Pump

• C.

Single Stage Centrifugal Pump

• D.

Peristaltic Pump

B. Single Stage Vertical Pump
Explanation
The correct answer is Single Stage Vertical Pump. This type of pump is commonly used for draining shallow pits because it is designed to handle low flow rates and can effectively pump water from a shallow depth. The vertical design allows for easy installation in confined spaces, making it suitable for use in pits. Additionally, the single stage configuration ensures efficient pumping of water without the need for multiple stages or complex mechanisms.

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• 48.

### Why reeling drum is used on AWFM CAR?

• A.

To give power supply to motor & brakes

• B.

To give suppy to safety switches

• C.

To keep Anodes staright

• D.

To count the number of Anodes

A. To give power supply to motor & brakes
Explanation
The reeling drum is used on an AWFM CAR to provide power supply to the motor and brakes. This is necessary for the proper functioning of the car, as the motor is responsible for the movement of the car and the brakes are essential for stopping and controlling the car's speed. The reeling drum ensures that the power supply is efficiently delivered to these components, allowing for smooth and safe operation of the AWFM CAR.

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• 49.

### How many safety switch are in AWFM?

• A.

4

• B.

6

• C.

8

• D.

2

B. 6
Explanation
There are 6 safety switches in AWFM.

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• 50.

### SWL of AWFM EOT?

• A.

2 ton

• B.

5 ton

• C.

3 ton

• D.

1ton

B. 5 ton
Explanation
The SWL (Safe Working Load) of the AWFM (Articulated Wheeled Frame Mobile) EOT (Electric Overhead Traveling) is 5 tons. This means that the maximum weight that the AWFM EOT can safely handle is 5 tons.

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