# Spider 2 - Lnp

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Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 122
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SPIDER 2 - LnP

Questions and Answers
• 1.

### The term RPN in an FMEA stands for ?

• A.

Risk priority number

• B.

Risk probability number

• C.

Risk per number

• D.

Risk population number

Correct Answer
A. Risk priority number
Explanation
The term RPN in an FMEA stands for Risk Priority Number. This number is used to prioritize risks based on their severity, occurrence, and detectability. It helps in identifying the most critical risks that need immediate attention and mitigation.

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• 2.

### What is the time defined in AO for effectiveness of RCA for horizontal deployment?

• A.

3 months

• B.

3 years

• C.

6 months

• D.

None of the above

Correct Answer
A. 3 months
Explanation
The time defined in AO for the effectiveness of RCA (Root Cause Analysis) for horizontal deployment is 3 months. This means that within this timeframe, the RCA should be able to identify and address the root causes of a problem or issue in a horizontal deployment. It is important to conduct RCA within a reasonable time period to ensure timely resolution and prevent further recurrence of the problem.

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• 3.

### Equipment Identification for FMEA should be done based on ….

• A.

Criticality analysis

• B.

Probability analysis

• C.

Dip stick analysis

• D.

Condition appraisal

Correct Answer
A. Criticality analysis
Explanation
Equipment Identification for FMEA should be done based on criticality analysis. Criticality analysis involves evaluating the potential impact of equipment failure on the overall system or process. It helps identify the equipment that is most critical and can cause significant disruptions or failures if it malfunctions. By prioritizing equipment based on criticality, organizations can focus their resources on mitigating risks and implementing preventive measures for the most important equipment. This ensures that efforts are directed towards minimizing the impact of potential failures and improving overall system reliability.

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• 4.

### In the new AO score card,for measuring RCA effectiveness,the problem should not repeat due to same cause for how long?

• A.

3 months

• B.

4 months

• C.

3 quarters

• D.

6 months

Correct Answer
D. 6 months
Explanation
In the new AO score card, the effectiveness of RCA (Root Cause Analysis) is measured by ensuring that the problem does not repeat due to the same cause. According to the given answer, this should be achieved for a period of 6 months. This means that after conducting the RCA and implementing corrective measures, the organization should monitor the situation for 6 months to ensure that the problem does not occur again due to the same root cause.

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• 5.

### The PM effectiveness in AO is checked as …

• A.

Percentage of task list compliance

• B.

Percentage of planned vs actual PM

• C.

Percentage of spares issued in PM

• D.

Number of instances of breakdown leading to loss of production

Correct Answer
D. Number of instances of breakdown leading to loss of production
Explanation
The effectiveness of a PM (Preventive Maintenance) program in an AO (Asset Optimization) system is determined by the number of instances of breakdown leading to loss of production. This means that if there are frequent breakdowns and production losses occurring despite the implementation of PM measures, it indicates that the PM program is not effectively preventing breakdowns and maintaining the assets. Therefore, monitoring the number of breakdown instances is a crucial factor in evaluating the success of a PM program in an AO system.

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• 6.

### Refurbishment should be available at the level…

• A.

Functional location level

• B.

Sub assembly/ replaceable component level

• C.

Equipment level

• D.

Work centre level

Correct Answer
B. Sub assembly/ replaceable component level
Explanation
Refurbishment should be available at the sub assembly/replaceable component level because this allows for specific parts or components of a larger equipment or system to be repaired or replaced. It is more cost-effective and efficient to refurbish individual components rather than the entire equipment or system. This approach also allows for easier maintenance and troubleshooting as well as reducing downtime and improving overall equipment reliability.

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• 7.

### OTIF stands for…

• A.

One time in full

• B.

Only total in full

• C.

On time in full

• D.

None of the above

Correct Answer
C. On time in full
Explanation
OTIF stands for "On time in full." This term is commonly used in logistics and supply chain management to measure the efficiency and effectiveness of delivering goods. It refers to the ability to deliver products to customers on the agreed-upon delivery date and in the requested quantities without any shortages or damages. By achieving OTIF, companies can ensure customer satisfaction, maintain good relationships, and optimize their operations.

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• 8.

### VED analysis is used for …

• A.

Spares management

• B.

Preventive maintenance strategy

• C.

Overhauling planning

• D.

Project scheduling

Correct Answer
A. Spares management
Explanation
VED analysis is used for spares management. VED stands for Vital, Essential, and Desirable, which categorizes spare parts based on their importance and criticality in the maintenance process. This analysis helps in identifying and prioritizing the spare parts required for the smooth functioning of equipment or machinery. By categorizing the spares, organizations can ensure that the vital and essential parts are readily available, reducing downtime and improving operational efficiency.

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• 9.

### R&R study is used for studying..

• A.

Repeatability and Reproducibility

• B.

Resistivity and Recognition

• C.

Redundance and Reproducibility

• D.

None of the above

Correct Answer
A. Repeatability and Reproducibility
Explanation
An R&R study is used to measure the repeatability and reproducibility of a measurement system. Repeatability refers to the variation in measurements taken by a single operator using the same equipment and procedure. Reproducibility, on the other hand, refers to the variation in measurements taken by different operators using the same equipment and procedure. Therefore, the correct answer is "Repeatability and Reproducibility".

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• 10.

### What is LLF?

• A.

Look, listen & feel

• B.

Like, live & Feel

• C.

Look, listen & fast

• D.

Look, left & first

Correct Answer
A. Look, listen & feel
Explanation
LLF stands for Look, Listen & Feel. This acronym is often used in medical or emergency situations to remind individuals to carefully observe their surroundings, pay attention to any sounds or noises, and physically assess the situation by touching or feeling for any abnormalities or signs of injury. This approach helps ensure a thorough assessment and appropriate response in critical situations.

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• 11.

### Type of abnormalities observed in routine are…

• A.

9

• B.

7

• C.

8

• D.

6

Correct Answer
B. 7
• 12.

### Types of notifications in SAP are…

• A.

15

• B.

11

• C.

14

• D.

16

Correct Answer
C. 14
• 13.

### Calculate the OEE of the m/c which has Quality rate : 95%, Performance rate: 85%, Availability: 90% and Efficiency 85%.

• A.

72.67%

• B.

67.68%

• C.

62.65%

• D.

61.77%

Correct Answer
A. 72.67%
Explanation
The Overall Equipment Effectiveness (OEE) is calculated by multiplying the Quality rate, Performance rate, and Availability. Then, dividing the result by 100. Finally, multiplying the quotient by the Efficiency rate. In this case, the calculation would be: (95% x 85% x 90% / 100) x 85% = 72.67%.

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• 14.

### What is next step after ideal condition listing?

• A.

Condition appraisal

• B.

Refurbishment planning

• C.

FMEA

• D.

PM/CBM revision

Correct Answer
A. Condition appraisal
Explanation
After listing the ideal conditions, the next step is to conduct a condition appraisal. This involves assessing the current condition of the subject or system in order to identify any deviations or discrepancies from the ideal conditions. The condition appraisal helps in evaluating the performance and reliability of the subject or system and provides insights into any potential issues or areas that require improvement. It is an essential step in maintenance and asset management processes to ensure effective decision-making and proactive maintenance planning.

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• 15.

### MTTR formula is?

• A.

Total Maintenance time/no of failures

• B.

Total operating time/no of failures

• C.

(total available time – total maintenance time)/no of failures

• D.

total available time/ no of failures

Correct Answer
A. Total Maintenance time/no of failures
Explanation
The correct answer is Total Maintenance time/no of failures. This formula calculates the Mean Time To Repair (MTTR), which is the average time taken to repair a failed component or system. By dividing the total maintenance time by the number of failures, we can determine the average time it takes to fix a failure. This metric helps in assessing the efficiency of the maintenance process and identifying areas for improvement.

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• 16.

### BD:PM ratio should be..

• A.

Lower

• B.

Higher

• C.

constant d.

• D.

None

Correct Answer
A. Lower
Explanation
The correct answer is "Lower" because in a BD:PM ratio, BD refers to the basal diameter of a tree and PM refers to the predicted merchantable volume of the tree. A lower BD:PM ratio indicates that the tree has a smaller basal diameter compared to its predicted volume, suggesting that the tree has a higher volume potential relative to its size. Therefore, a lower BD:PM ratio is preferred.

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• 17.

### Formula of BD:PM ratio is…

• A.

Unplanned maintenance time/Planned maintenance time

• B.

Planned maintenance time/unplanned maintenance

• C.

No of PMI/Total hrs of PM

• D.

Total available hrs/no of breakdowns

Correct Answer
A. Unplanned maintenance time/Planned maintenance time
Explanation
The formula for the BD:PM ratio is the ratio of unplanned maintenance time to planned maintenance time. This ratio is used to measure the effectiveness of maintenance planning and execution. A higher ratio indicates that there is more unplanned maintenance, which can be a sign of poor maintenance planning or equipment reliability issues. Conversely, a lower ratio indicates that there is more planned maintenance, which suggests better maintenance planning and proactive equipment maintenance.

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• 18.

### To score maximum, PMI task list compliance should be…

• A.

90%

• B.

95%

• C.

92%

• D.

>85

Correct Answer
B. 95%
Explanation
To score maximum, PMI task list compliance should be 95%. This means that in order to achieve the highest possible score, a project manager must comply with at least 95% of the tasks listed by the Project Management Institute (PMI). This high level of compliance indicates a thorough understanding and application of project management principles and practices, ensuring that all necessary tasks are completed effectively and efficiently.

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• 19.

### Deviation accepted for doing PMI as per defined frequency for PMI compliance is…

• A.

10%

• B.

12%

• C.

15%

• D.

17%

Correct Answer
C. 15%
Explanation
The accepted deviation for doing PMI as per defined frequency for PMI compliance is 15%. This means that a 15% deviation from the defined frequency is considered acceptable in order to comply with PMI regulations.

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• 20.

### What is BOM compliance in DSC Zn till 31st May’15?

• A.

92%

• B.

95%

• C.

97%

• D.

99%

Correct Answer
C. 97%
Explanation
BOM compliance in DSC Zn till 31st May'15 refers to the percentage of adherence to the Bill of Materials (BOM) requirements in the specified time period. The correct answer of 97% suggests that the DSC Zn achieved a high level of compliance with the BOM requirements during that period, indicating that they followed the prescribed materials list for their products or services at a very high rate.

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• 21.

### Best SIC for May’15 was from which SBU?

• A.

Roaster

• B.

LnP

• C.

Cell house

• D.

None

Correct Answer
D. None
Explanation
The question is asking about the Best SIC for May'15 and the options given are Roaster, LnP, Cell house, and None. The correct answer is None, which means that there was no Best SIC for May'15 from any of the mentioned SBUs.

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• 22.

### Safety module score will become zero in case of…

• A.

Increasing FAC

• B.

Decreasing NMI reporting

• C.

LTI

• D.

All of the above

Correct Answer
C. LTI
Explanation
The safety module score will become zero in case of LTI (Lost Time Injury). This means that if there is an incident or accident in which an employee is injured to the extent that they are unable to work for a period of time, the safety module score will be affected and become zero. Increasing FAC (Frequency of Accident and Near Miss Reporting) and decreasing NMI (Near Miss Incident) reporting may have an impact on the safety module score, but they do not necessarily result in a score of zero.

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• 23.

### Objective of war room.

• A.

To discuss & finalise business plan

• B.

To review actual daily performance against planned on various parameters & to decide next steps

• C.

To discuss on safety & Environment

• D.

To take follow up from shift operators

Correct Answer
B. To review actual daily performance against planned on various parameters & to decide next steps
Explanation
The objective of a war room is to review the actual daily performance against the planned performance on various parameters and to decide the next steps. This means that the war room serves as a space for analyzing how the business is performing and determining what actions need to be taken based on that analysis. It allows for a focused discussion on performance and helps in making informed decisions to improve and optimize business operations.

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• 24.

### SLA in DSC Zn is a contract between…

• A.

Mines & Leaching

• B.

Mines & process

• C.

Roaster & CH

• D.

Mines & Roaster

Correct Answer
D. Mines & Roaster
Explanation
The correct answer is Mines & Roaster. In the context of DSC Zn (Direct Strip Casting of Zinc), the SLA (Service Level Agreement) is a contract between the mines and the roaster. This implies that the mines, which extract the raw zinc material, have an agreement with the roaster, which is responsible for processing and converting the mined material into usable zinc. The SLA outlines the terms and conditions of their partnership, ensuring that both parties understand their roles and responsibilities in the zinc production process.

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• 25.

### The highest AO score achieved by DSC Zn ?

• A.

79.23%

• B.

80.52%

• C.

80.10%

• D.

81.65%

Correct Answer
B. 80.52%
Explanation
The highest AO score achieved by DSC Zn is 80.52%.

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• 26.

### DSC Zn comes under which category of AO framework?

• A.

Basic

• B.

Moderate

• C.

Advance

• D.

other

Correct Answer
B. Moderate
• 27.

### The boom door is not closing fully. What might be the possible reason?

• A.

The pressure is not enough

• B.

The close position sensor’s target plate has got disturbed

• C.

There is too much cake sticking on the boom door

• D.

None of the above

Correct Answer
B. The close position sensor’s target plate has got disturbed
Explanation
The close position sensor's target plate getting disturbed can be a possible reason for the boom door not closing fully. The close position sensor is responsible for detecting the position of the door and signaling it to close. If the target plate of the sensor is disturbed, it may not accurately detect the position of the door, resulting in incomplete closure. This can be caused by various factors such as misalignment, damage, or interference.

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• 28.

### The plate shifter assembly is operated by

• A.

Hydraulic Cylinder

• B.

Hydraulic Motor

• C.

Pneumatic Cylinder

• D.

None of the above

Correct Answer
B. Hydraulic Motor
Explanation
The plate shifter assembly is operated by a hydraulic motor. A hydraulic motor is a device that converts hydraulic energy into mechanical energy, allowing it to generate rotational motion. In the case of the plate shifter assembly, the hydraulic motor is responsible for moving the plates in the desired direction. It uses the power of hydraulic fluid to drive the motor, providing the necessary force and torque to operate the plate shifter assembly effectively.

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• 29.

### Which of the following oil is used in the filter press power pack?

• A.

Servo System 68

• B.

HLP 46N

• C.

Servo System 32

• D.

Any one of the above

Correct Answer
C. Servo System 32
Explanation
Servo System 32 is the correct answer because it is the specific type of oil that is used in the filter press power pack. The other options, Servo System 68 and HLP 46N, are not mentioned as suitable oils for this particular application. Therefore, Servo System 32 is the most appropriate choice for the oil used in the filter press power pack.

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• 30.

### Overall efficiency of a centrifugal pump is the ratio of

• A.

Energy available at the impeller to the energy supplied to the pump by the prime mover

• B.

Actual work done by the pump to the energy supplied to the pump by the prime mover

• C.

Energy supplied to the pump to the energy available at the impeller

• D.

Manometric head to the energy supplied by the impeller per Newton of water

Correct Answer
C. Energy supplied to the pump to the energy available at the impeller
Explanation
The overall efficiency of a centrifugal pump is the ratio of the energy supplied to the pump by the prime mover to the energy available at the impeller. This means that it measures how effectively the pump converts the energy input into useful work at the impeller. A higher overall efficiency indicates a more efficient pump that wastes less energy.

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• 31.

### Multi stage centrifugal pumps are used to

• A.

Give high discharge

• B.

Produce high heads

• C.

Pump viscous fluids

• D.

All the above

Correct Answer
B. Produce high heads
Explanation
Multi stage centrifugal pumps are designed to produce high heads, meaning they are capable of pumping fluids to higher elevations or against greater resistance. This is achieved by using multiple impellers in series, which increases the pressure and velocity of the fluid as it passes through each stage. Therefore, the correct answer is "Produce high heads".

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• 32.

### Need for Relief valve in Reciprocating Pump Discharge is to

• A.

Control Discharge Pressure

• B.

Protect the Pump from Excess Pressure

• C.

Reduce the Discharge Pressure

• D.

Regulate the Discharge Flow

Correct Answer
B. Protect the Pump from Excess Pressure
Explanation
The relief valve in the reciprocating pump discharge is necessary to protect the pump from excess pressure. When the discharge pressure exceeds the safe operating limit, the relief valve opens to release the excess pressure and prevent any damage to the pump. This helps in maintaining the pump's integrity and prolonging its lifespan. Additionally, it ensures the safety of the surrounding equipment and personnel by preventing any potential accidents or failures due to excessive pressure.

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• 33.

### To avoid Cavitation of the pump

• A.

Net Positive Suction Head Available must be less than the Net Positive Suction Head Required

• B.

Net Positive Suction Head Available must be equal to the Net Positive Suction Head Required

• C.

Net Positive Suction Head Available must be greater than the Net Positive Suction Head Required

• D.

None of the above

Correct Answer
C.  Net Positive Suction Head Available must be greater than the Net Positive Suction Head Required
Explanation
To avoid cavitation of the pump, the Net Positive Suction Head Available (NPSHa) must be greater than the Net Positive Suction Head Required (NPSHr). Cavitation occurs when the pressure at the suction side of the pump drops below the vapor pressure of the liquid, causing the formation of vapor bubbles. These bubbles can collapse when they reach high-pressure areas, causing damage to the pump and reducing its efficiency. By ensuring that the NPSHa is greater than the NPSHr, sufficient pressure is maintained at the suction side of the pump to prevent cavitation.

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• 34.

### In a Centrifugal Pump, Head curve

• A.

Will fall for increased flow rates

• B.

Starts from zero at zero flow and goes like a trajectory having a Best Efficiency point and then starts falling for increased flow rates

• C.

Is Simple straight line. Rises with the flow

• D.

None of these

Correct Answer
A. Will fall for increased flow rates
Explanation
The head curve in a centrifugal pump represents the relationship between the pump's head (pressure) and the flow rate. Typically, as the flow rate increases, the head will decrease. This is because as more fluid is being pumped, the pump has to work harder to maintain the same level of pressure. Therefore, the head curve will fall for increased flow rates.

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• 35.

### Centrifugal Pump Maintains Constant ...... even the density of the pumping liquid changes.

• A.

Head

• B.

Pressure

• C.

Flow

• D.

All of the Above

Correct Answer
A. Head
Explanation
A centrifugal pump maintains a constant head even when the density of the pumping liquid changes. The head of a pump refers to the energy imparted by the pump to the fluid, which is independent of the fluid's density. Therefore, regardless of any changes in the density of the liquid being pumped, the centrifugal pump will still maintain a constant head.

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• 36.

### Reciprocating pump(HPP) is suitable for which application?

• A.

Large discharge and lower head

• B.

Low discharge and high head

• C.

Large discharge and high head

• D.

Low discharge and low head

Correct Answer
B. Low discharge and high head
Explanation
A reciprocating pump, also known as a high-pressure pump (HPP), is suitable for applications with low discharge and high head. This means that it is designed to handle situations where there is a relatively small amount of fluid being pumped, but it needs to be pumped to a high elevation or against a high level of resistance. Reciprocating pumps are known for their ability to generate high pressure and are commonly used in industries such as oil and gas, chemical processing, and water treatment.

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• 37.

### Filter press closing set point pressure

• A.

300

• B.

320

• C.

250

• D.

350

Correct Answer
B. 320
Explanation
The correct answer is 320 because it is the value that matches the given data. The numbers provided represent different closing set point pressures for a filter press. Among the options given, 320 is the only value that appears in the list. Therefore, it is the correct answer.

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• 38.

### Which device using for alignment cloth of HBF area.

• A.

DCV

• B.

SOV

• C.

Cylinder

• D.

Control valve

Correct Answer
A. DCV
Explanation
DCV stands for Directional Control Valve. In the context of aligning cloth in the HBF area, a DCV can be used to control the direction of fluid flow in a hydraulic system. By manipulating the DCV, the cloth alignment device can be controlled to ensure precise and accurate alignment. Therefore, DCV is the correct answer as it is the device used for alignment of cloth in the HBF area.

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• 39.

### Disadvantages of filter press are…

• A.

Large filtering area with small floor space

• B.

Inefficient washing

• C.

Complex operation and maintenance

• D.

High labour costs

Correct Answer
D. High labour costs
Explanation
The correct answer is "High labour costs". This is because filter presses require manual labor to operate and maintain, which can be time-consuming and costly. Additionally, the process of washing the filter press is inefficient, leading to increased labor costs. The large filtering area with small floor space may actually be an advantage as it allows for more efficient filtration. The complex operation and maintenance may also contribute to higher labor costs as specialized knowledge and skills are required.

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• 40.

### What is the stroke length of the main hydraulic cylinder of the filter press?

• A.

900mm

• B.

1200mm

• C.

1000mm

• D.

1050mm

Correct Answer
C. 1000mm
Explanation
The correct answer for the stroke length of the main hydraulic cylinder of the filter press is 1000mm.

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• 41.

### What is the MOC of the Filter plates?

• A.

High Density Poly Ethylene

• B.

Poly Propylene

• C.

Fibre Reinforced Plastic

• D.

PVC

Correct Answer
B. Poly Propylene
Explanation
The MOC (Material of Construction) of the filter plates is Poly Propylene. This means that the filter plates are made of Poly Propylene material, which is known for its chemical resistance, durability, and ability to withstand high temperatures. Poly Propylene is commonly used in filtration applications due to its excellent mechanical properties and resistance to corrosion.

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• 42.

### How many limit switches are there for belt adjustment in HBF?

• A.

3

• B.

6

• C.

4

• D.

2

Correct Answer
C. 4
Explanation
There are four limit switches for belt adjustment in HBF.

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• 43.

### What is the length of one HBF filter cloth?

• A.

60 mtr

• B.

65 mtr

• C.

70 mtr

• D.

68 mtr

Correct Answer
B. 65 mtr
Explanation
The length of one HBF filter cloth is 65 meters.

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• 44.

### What should be the height of HBF curbs?

• A.

110 mm

• B.

105 mm

• C.

100 mm

• D.

95 mm

Correct Answer
C. 100 mm
Explanation
The height of HBF curbs should be 100 mm.

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• 45.

### What is the max capacity of HBF in terms of solids handling in feed?

• A.

9800 Kg/h

• B.

9600 Kg/hr

• C.

9500 KG/hr

• D.

9700 Kg/hr

Correct Answer
B. 9600 Kg/hr
Explanation
The maximum capacity of the HBF in terms of solids handling in feed is 9600 Kg/hr. This means that the HBF can handle a maximum of 9600 kilograms of solids per hour.

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• 46.

### What is MoC of transportar belt of HBF?

• A.

NBR

• B.

Neoprene

• C.

SBR

• D.

Leather

Correct Answer
C. SBR
Explanation
The correct answer is SBR. SBR stands for Styrene Butadiene Rubber, which is commonly used as the material for conveyor belts in Heavy Bulk Freight (HBF) transport. SBR is preferred for its durability, resistance to abrasion, and ability to withstand heavy loads. It is a synthetic rubber that offers good tensile strength and flexibility, making it suitable for use in conveyor belts for transporting heavy materials in industries such as mining, construction, and logistics.

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• 47.

### What should be the spray angle for belt/cloth washing?

• A.

45ᵒ

• B.

60ᵒ

• C.

75ᵒ

• D.

90ᵒ

Correct Answer
B. 60ᵒ
Explanation
The spray angle for belt/cloth washing should be 60ᵒ. This angle provides a wider coverage area, allowing for efficient and thorough cleaning of the belt or cloth. A 60ᵒ spray angle ensures that the spray reaches all parts of the surface being washed, effectively removing dirt and contaminants. It strikes a balance between a narrower spray angle, which may not cover enough area, and a wider spray angle, which may result in excessive overspray or inefficient cleaning.

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• 48.

### Which of the following is correct for air compressor?

• A.

For every 5deg C drop in the inlet air temperature,the increase in energy consumption is by 2%

• B.

For every 4 deg C rise in the inlet air temperature, the decrease in energy consumption is by 1%

• C.

For every 4 deg C rise in the inter air temperature, the increase in energy consumption is by 1%

• D.

The energy consumption remains same irrespective of inlet air temperature

Correct Answer
C. For every 4 deg C rise in the inter air temperature, the increase in energy consumption is by 1%
• 49.

### The acceptable pressure drop at the farthest point in mains header of an industrial compressed air network is

• A.

0.3 bar

• B.

0.5 bar

• C.

0.8 bar

• D.

0.1 bar

Correct Answer
A. 0.3 bar
Explanation
The acceptable pressure drop at the farthest point in the mains header of an industrial compressed air network is 0.3 bar. This means that the pressure can drop by a maximum of 0.3 bar from the starting point to the farthest point in the network. This is important to ensure that the compressed air reaches all the required points in the network with sufficient pressure for proper operation. A higher pressure drop could result in inadequate pressure at the farthest point, leading to reduced efficiency or malfunction of equipment.

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• 50.

### The basic function of an air dryer in a compressor is to

• A.

Prevent dust from entering the compressor

• B.

Store and smoothen the pulsating air putput

• C.

Remove remaining traces of moisture after the after-cooler

• D.

Reduce the temperature of the air before it enters the next stage to increase efficiency

Correct Answer
C. Remove remaining traces of moisture after the after-cooler
Explanation
The air dryer in a compressor is responsible for removing any remaining traces of moisture from the air after it has passed through the after-cooler. This is important because moisture in the compressed air can cause damage to the equipment and affect the quality of the end product. By removing the moisture, the air dryer helps to ensure that the compressed air is clean and dry, thus preventing any potential issues and maintaining the efficiency of the compressor.

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