Biology Second Exam

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Biology Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which of the following statements describes the results of this reaction? C6H12O6 + 6 O2 → 6 CO2 + 6 H2O + Energy

    • A.

      C6H12O6 is oxidized and O2 is reduced

    • B.

      O2 is oxidized and H2O is reduced.

    • C.

      CO2 is reduced and O2 is oxidized.

    • D.

      C6H12O6 is reduced and CO2 is oxidized.

    • E.

      O2 is reduced and CO2 is oxidized

    Correct Answer
    A. C6H12O6 is oxidized and O2 is reduced
  • 2. 

    When a glucose molecule loses a hydrogen atom as the result of an oxidationreduction reaction, the molecule becomes 

    • A.

      Hydrolyzed.

    • B.

      Hydrogenated.

    • C.

      Oxidized.

    • D.

      Reduced.

    • E.

      An oxidizing agent.

    Correct Answer
    C. Oxidized.
  • 3. 

    When a molecule of NAD+ (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide) gains a hydrogen atom (not a proton), the molecule becomes 

    • A.

      Dehydrogenated.

    • B.

      Oxidized.

    • C.

      Reduced.

    • D.

      Redoxed.

    Correct Answer
    C. Reduced.
  • 4. 

    Which of the following statements describes NAD+? 

    • A.

      NAD+ is reduced to NADH during glycolysis, pyruvate oxidation, and the citric acid cycle.

    • B.

      NAD+ has more chemical energy than NADH.

    • C.

      NAD+ is oxidized by the action of hydrogenases.

    • D.

      NAD+ can donate electrons for use in oxidative phosphorylation. E) In the absence of NAD+, glycolysis can still function.

    Correct Answer
    A. NAD+ is reduced to NADH during glycolysis, pyruvate oxidation, and the citric acid cycle.
  • 5. 

    Where does glycolysis take place in eukaryotic cells? 

    • A.

      mitochondrial matrix

    • B.

      Mitochondrial outer membrane

    • C.

      Mitochondrial inner membrane

    • D.

      Mitochondrial intermembrane space

    • E.

      cytosol

    Correct Answer
    E. cytosol
  • 6. 

    The ATP made during glycolysis is generated by 

    • A.

      Substrate-level phosphorylation

    • B.

      electron transport.

    • C.

      Photophosphorylation.

    • D.

      Chemiosmosis.

    Correct Answer
    A. Substrate-level phosphorylation
  • 7. 

    During glycolysis, when each molecule of glucose is catabolized to two molecules of pyruvate, most of the potential energy contained in glucose is 

    • A.

      Transferred to ADP, forming ATP.

    • B.

      Transferred directly to ATP.

    • C.

      Retained in the two pyruvates.

    • D.

      Stored in the NADH produced

    Correct Answer
    C. Retained in the two pyruvates.
  • 8. 

    Starting with one molecule of glucose, the energy-containing products of glycolysis are 

    • A.

      2 NAD+, 2 pyruvate, and 2 ATP. 

    • B.

      2 NADH, 2 pyruvate, and 2 ATP.

    • C.

      2 FADH2, 2 pyruvate, and 4 ATP.

    • D.

      6 CO2, 2 ATP, and 2 pyruvate.

    Correct Answer
    B. 2 NADH, 2 pyruvate, and 2 ATP.
  • 9. 

    Where are the proteins of the electron transport chain located? 

    • A.

      Cytosol

    • B.

      Mitochondrial outer membrane

    • C.

      Mitochondrial inner membrane

    • D.

      Mitochondrial intermembrane space

    Correct Answer
    C. Mitochondrial inner membrane
  • 10. 

    Inside an active mitochondrion, most electrons follow which pathway? 

    • A.

      Glycolysis → NADH → oxidative phosphorylation → ATP → oxygen

    • B.

      Citric acid cycle → FADH2 → electron transport chain → ATP

    • C.

      Electron transport chain → citric acid cycle → ATP → oxygen

    • D.

      Citric acid cycle → NADH → electron transport chain → oxygen

    Correct Answer
    D. Citric acid cycle → NADH → electron transport chain → oxygen
  • 11. 

    How many oxygen molecules (O2) are required each time a molecule of glucose (C6H12O6) is completely oxidized to carbon dioxide and water via aerobic respiration,? 

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      6

    • D.

      12

    Correct Answer
    C. 6
  • 12. 

    If there are 40 centromeres in a cell at anaphase, how many chromosomes are there in each daughter cell following cytokinesis? 

    • A.

      10

    • B.

      20

    • C.

      30

    • D.

      40

    Correct Answer
    B. 20
  • 13. 

    Why do chromosomes coil during mitosis?  

    • A.

      To increase their potential energy

    • B.

      To allow the chromosomes to move without becoming entangled and breaking

    • C.

      To allow the chromosomes to fit within the nuclear envelope

    • D.

      ) to allow the sister chromatids to remain attached

    Correct Answer
    B. To allow the chromosomes to move without becoming entangled and breaking
  • 14. 

    Which of the following is a function of those spindle microtubules that do not attach to kinetochores? 

    • A.

      Maintaining an appropriate spacing among the moving chromosomes

    • B.

      Producing a cleavage furrow when telophase is complete

    • C.

      Providing the ATP needed by the fibers attached to kinetochores

    • D.

      Maintaining the region of overlap of microtubules in the cell's center

    Correct Answer
    D. Maintaining the region of overlap of microtubules in the cell's center
  • 15. 

    What is a cleavage furrow? 

    • A.

      A ring of vesicles forming a cell plate

    • B.

      the separation of divided prokaryotes

    • C.

      A groove in the plasma membrane between daughter nuclei

    • D.

      The metaphase plate where chromosomes attach to the spindle

    Correct Answer
    C. A groove in the plasma membrane between daughter nuclei
  • 16. 

    Which of the following is true concerning cancer cells? 

    • A.

      They do not exhibit density-dependent inhibition when growing in culture.

    • B.

      When they stop dividing, they do so at random points in the cell cycle.

    • C.

      They are not subject to cell cycle controls.

    • D.

      When they stop dividing, they do so at random points in the cell cycle, and they are not subject to cell cycle controls.

    • E.

      When they stop dividing, they do so at random points in the cell cycle; they are not subject to cell cycle controls; and they do not exhibit density-dependent inhibition when growing in culture.

    Correct Answer
    E. When they stop dividing, they do so at random points in the cell cycle; they are not subject to cell cycle controls; and they do not exhibit density-dependent inhibition when growing in culture.
  • 17. 

    Which of the following defines a genome? 

    • A.

      A karyotype

    • B.

      The complete set of an organism's genes

    • C.

      The complete set of an organism's polypeptides

    • D.

      Representation of a complete set of a cell's polypeptides

    Correct Answer
    B. The complete set of an organism's genes
  • 18. 

    Which of the following is true of a species that has a chromosome number of 2n = 16? 

    • A.

      The species is diploid with 32 chromosomes per cell.

    • B.

      The species has 16 sets of chromosomes per cell.

    • C.

      Each cell has eight homologous pairs.

    • D.

      During the S phase of the cell cycle there will be 32 separate chromosomes.

    Correct Answer
    C. Each cell has eight homologous pairs.
  • 19. 

    Which of the following can utilize both mitosis and meiosis in the correct circumstances? 

    • A.

      A haploid animal cell

    • B.

      A diploid cell from a plant stem

    • C.

      Any diploid animal cell

    • D.

      A plantlike protist

    Correct Answer
    D. A plantlike protist
  • 20. 

    ِAfter telophase I of meiosis, the chromosomal makeup of each daughter cell is 

    • A.

      Diploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of a single chromatid.

    • B.

      Diploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids.

    • C.

      Haploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of a single chromatid.

    • D.

      Haploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids.

    Correct Answer
    D. Haploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids.
  • 21. 

    Which of the following occurs in meiosis but not in mitosis? 

    • A.

      Chromosome replication

    • B.

      Synapsis of chromosomes 

    • C.

      Production of daughter cells

    • D.

      Alignment of chromosomes at the equator

    Correct Answer
    B. Synapsis of chromosomes 
  • 22. 

    A tetrad includes which of the following sets of DNA strands? 

    • A.

      Two single-stranded chromosomes that have synapsed

    • B.

      Two sets of sister chromatids that have synapsed

    • C.

      Four sets of sister chromatids

    • D.

      Four sets of unique chromosomes

    Correct Answer
    B. Two sets of sister chromatids that have synapsed
  • 23. 

    Centromeres of sister chromatids disjoin and chromatids separate. 

    • A.

      Telophase I

    • B.

      Metaphase I

    • C.

      Anaphase I

    • D.

      Prophase II

    • E.

      Anaphase II

    Correct Answer
    A. Telophase I
  • 24. 

    Synaptonemal complexes form or are still present. 

    • A.

      Prophase I only

    • B.

      Prophase I and Telophase I only

    • C.

      Prophase I and Telophase II only

    • D.

      Metaphase I and Metaphase II only

    Correct Answer
    A. Prophase I only
  • 25. 

    Crossing over occurs 

    • A.

      Between Chromatids of non homologous

    • B.

      Between non sister chromatids of homologous

    • C.

      In prophase I of meiosis I

    • D.

      B & c

    Correct Answer
    D. B & c
  • 26. 

    Female somatic cells in human has :

    • A.

      46 chromosome

    • B.

      45 autosomes & Y chromosome

    • C.

      23 chromosomes

    • D.

      22 pair of autosomes and 2 Y chromosomes

    Correct Answer
    A. 46 chromosome
  • 27. 

    A sexually reproducing cell with 24 chromosomes will have _____ tetrads

    • A.

      24

    • B.

      48

    • C.

      12

    • D.

      6

    Correct Answer
    C. 12
  • 28. 

    If cytosine make up 28% of the nucleotide in a DNA sample of an organism; then adenine would make up:

    • A.

      22%

    • B.

      44%

    • C.

      28%

    • D.

      56%

    Correct Answer
    A. 22%
  • 29. 

    Before the experiment of bacterial transformation it was thought that the genetic material is:

    • A.

      RNA

    • B.

      Protein 

    • C.

      DNA

    • D.

      Lipid

    Correct Answer
    B. Protein 
  • 30. 

    The recessive trait appearance among offspring indicates the parents genotype are:

    • A.

      Both homozygous dominant

    • B.

      One homozygous and one heterozygous

    • C.

      Both heterozygous

    • D.

      One homozygous dominant and one recessive

    Correct Answer
    C. Both heterozygous
  • 31. 

    A 1:1 phenotypic ratio in a testcross indicates

    • A.

      The alleles are dominant

    • B.

      One parent is homozygous recessive

    • C.

      The dominant phenotype parent was a heterozygous

    • D.

      A & b

    Correct Answer
    C. The dominant phenotype parent was a heterozygous
  • 32. 

    If the husband is carrier of Tay-sachs desease (recessive) but the wife is homozygous normal, what are their chances of having tay-sachs

    • A.

      0%

    • B.

      75%

    • C.

      50%

    • D.

      25%

    Correct Answer
    A. 0%
  • 33. 

    The phenotypic ratio of a dihyprid cross is 1:1:1:1 , this indicates :

    • A.

      Self Pollination

    • B.

      Testcross

    • C.

      Self pollination of recessive true breeding

    • D.

      Self pollination of heterozygous

    Correct Answer
    B. Testcross
  • 34. 

    Which of the following is not found in the DNA molecule :

    • A.

      Oxygen

    • B.

      Nitrogen

    • C.

      Carbon

    • D.

      Sulfur

    Correct Answer
    D. Sulfur
  • 35. 

    Which of the following is true in a DNA molecule :

    • A.

      A = C

    • B.

      A = T & C= G

    • C.

      A+C = G+T

    • D.

      B & c

    Correct Answer
    B. A = T & C= G
  • 36. 

    Which of the following is involved in chromosome migration during anaphase :

    • A.

      Motor proteins

    • B.

      Microtubules

    • C.

      Kinetechores

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
  • 37. 

    Cell cycle control system have checkpoints at:

    • A.

      G1

    • B.

      M

    • C.

      G2

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
  • 38. 

    Cytokinesis is :

    • A.

      Division of the nucleas

    • B.

      Division of Cytoplasm

    • C.

      Happens after metaphase

    • D.

      B&c

    Correct Answer
    D. B&c
  • 39. 

    Genetic Variation among daughter cells of meiosis occurs in :

    • A.

      Prophase I

    • B.

      Prophase II

    • C.

      Anaphase II

    • D.

      Metaphase I

    Correct Answer
    A. Prophase I
  • 40. 

    Sexual lifecycle increase genetic variation through :

    • A.

      Crossing over

    • B.

      Independent assortment

    • C.

      Random Fertilisation

    • D.

      All are true

    Correct Answer
    D. All are true

Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2022
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 02, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Mohammedal0091
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