Sgpp 300a - 2nd Exam

80 Questions

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California Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The “federalism bonus” in the Electoral College arises because 
    • A. 

      Every state receives an elector for each member it has in the House of Representatives.

    • B. 

      Every state receives two electors to represent its members in the U.S. Senate.

    • C. 

      Every state receives the same number of electors.

    • D. 

      Every state receives a proportional share of the electors based on the size of its population.

  • 2. 
    Under the federalism bonus, each elector from a small state, such as Wyoming, represents _____ state residents than does each elector from a large state, such as California. 
    • A. 

      Fewer

    • B. 

      The Same number

    • C. 

      More

    • D. 

      Depends on the results of the Electoral College Lottery

  • 3. 
    When writing the U.S. Constitution, the “Connecticut Compromise” or the “Great Compromise” When created a bicameral legislature where representation in the U.S. Senate would be _________ and representation in the U.S. House would be ______________. 
    • A. 

      Based on states’ population sizes; equal across all states.

    • B. 

      Equal across all states; based on states’ population sizes.

    • C. 

      Based on states’ population sizes; based on states’ population sizes.

    • D. 

      Equal across all states; equal across all states.

  • 4. 
    In the 2000 presidential election, which candidate benefited from the federalism bonus? 
    • A. 

      Al Gore, the Democratic Party candidate

    • B. 

      George Bush, the Republican Party candidate

    • C. 

      Ralph Nader, the Green Party candidate

    • D. 

      Both Gore and Bush, but not Nader

  • 5. 
    After the 2000 presidential election
    • A. 

      There were numerous calls to reform the Electoral College.

    • B. 

      There were no serious proposals to reform the Electoral College.

    • C. 

      The Electoral College was eliminated from future presidential elections.

    • D. 

      The Electoral College was retained for future elections, though the federalism bonus was eliminated.

  • 6. 
    In what percent of U.S. presidential elections held under the current two-party system has the federalism bonus NOT played a role in the outcome of the election? 
    • A. 

      10.1 percent

    • B. 

      27 percent

    • C. 

      52.5 percent

    • D. 

      91.9 percent

  • 7. 
    How would the “direct election plan” affect the structure of the Electoral College? 
    • A. 

      It would eliminate the Electoral College.

    • B. 

      It would distribute all electors across the states on the basis of state population sizes.

    • C. 

      It would give every state the same number of electors.

    • D. 

      It would require that each state’s electors be bound to support the winner of the popular vote in the state.

  • 8. 
    How would the “proportional plan” affect the structure of the Electoral College? 
    • A. 

      It would eliminate the Electoral College.

    • B. 

      It would distribute each state’s electors across the candidates based on the proportion of the vote they received in the state.

    • C. 

      It would distribute each state’s electors across the candidates based on the proportion of the vote they received in the nationwide vote.

    • D. 

      It would give all the electors from all 50 states to the candidate who won the highest proportion of the vote nationwide.

  • 9. 
    Under the "district plan" it would be possible for one candidate to win some of a state's electors while another candidate could win the rest of that state's electors.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 10. 
    Which of the reform plans could only be put in place through the passage of a constitutional amendment? 
    • A. 

      The direct election plan

    • B. 

      The proportional plan

    • C. 

      The district plan

    • D. 

      All of these plans could only be put in place through a constitutional amendment

  • 11. 
    In presidential nomination politics a “Super Tuesday” is
    • A. 

      The starting date of the national convention.

    • B. 

      A Tuesday on which multiple states hold their presidential primaries or caucuses.

    • C. 

      The Tuesday on which a presidential candidate has secured the number of delegates needed to win the nomination.

    • D. 

      The date of the first presidential primary.

  • 12. 
    1. In the early 20th century, delegates at the national conventions represented _________. Today, they represent ___________. 
    • A. 

      Presidential candidates; states.

    • B. 

      National interest groups; states.

    • C. 

      States; presidential candidates.

    • D. 

      States; national interest groups.

  • 13. 
    The McGovern-Fraser Commission established new rules for the selection of convention delegates in the 1970s. This commission was established by 
    • A. 

      The Democratic Party.

    • B. 

      The Republican Party.

    • C. 

      Congress

    • D. 

      A coalition of state legislatures.

  • 14. 
    The two national parties, in order to encourage states to hold their primaries or caucuses in late spring have offered incentives. Which of the following is one of those incentives? 
    • A. 

      An increase in the number of the state’s delegates.

    • B. 

      A reduction in the number of the state’s delegates.

    • C. 

      A guarantee that the state will be one of the first primaries in the following presidential election year.

    • D. 

      A guarantee that at least two candidates will remain in the race until that state has held its presidential primary.

  • 15. 
    What typically happens to a state that violates party rules on its date for holding presidential primaries? 
    • A. 

      The state receives an increase in the number of its delegates.

    • B. 

      The state has a reduction in the number of its delegates.

    • C. 

      The state’s presidential primary is cancelled by the national party.

    • D. 

      A state receives no convention delegates in the next presidential election year.

  • 16. 
    The Democratic Party uses proportional representation for the distribution of delegates based on the primary vote in a state. Take a state with 10 delegates. If candidate A wins 40 percent of the vote, candidate B wins 30 percent of the vote, candidate C wins 20 percent of the vote and candidate D wins 10 percent of the vote, how many delegates will candidate A win? ​
    • A. 

      1 delegate

    • B. 

      4 delegate

    • C. 

      10 delegate

    • D. 

      No delegates

  • 17. 
    Some Republican primaries used winner-take-all rules. Take a state with 10 delegates. If candidate A wins 40 percent of the vote, candidate B wins 30 percent of the vote, candidate C wins 20 percent of the vote and candidate D wins 10 percent of the vote, how many delegates will candidate A win? 
    • A. 

      1 delegates

    • B. 

      4 delegates

    • C. 

      10 delegates

    • D. 

      No delegates

  • 18. 
    The process by which more and more states try to move their presidential primaries or caucuses to the beginning of the nomination calendar is known as 
    • A. 

      Front-loading

    • B. 

      Momentum

    • C. 

      Retrograde Motion

    • D. 

      Stacking

  • 19. 
    Why might a state choose to hold a late primary, such as scheduling it for late May? ​
    • A. 

      It will be assured of having the last voice on the presidential nomination and thus have greater influence over the outcome of the nomination at the national convention.

    • B. 

      Its primary or caucus will receive more coverage in the national press.

    • C. 

      It can schedule its primaries for state offices on the same day as the presidential primary, and thus save the state and local governments millions of dollars.

    • D. 

      It will be assured of having one of the earliest primaries in the subsequent presidential election year.

  • 20. 
    Which of the following groups DOES NOT currently play a role in the scheduling of presidential primaries and caucuses? ​
    • A. 

      Congress

    • B. 

      The two national parties

    • C. 

      State legislatures

    • D. 

      The parties in the states

  • 21. 
    Who was William Marbury?
    • A. 

      Jefferson's Secretary of State

    • B. 

      Adams' Secretary of State

    • C. 

      A judicial Appointee

    • D. 

      A Supreme Court Justice

  • 22. 
    What role did James Madison play in this case? 
    • A. 

      Jefferson's Secretary of State

    • B. 

      Adams' Secretary of State

    • C. 

      A judicial Appointee

    • D. 

      A Supreme Court Justice

  • 23. 
    The sole connection that John Marshall had to this case was as the Chief Justice of the U.S. Supreme Court. ​
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 24. 
    The political underpinnings of Marbury v. Madison was a dispute between ​
    • A. 

      Congress and the president.

    • B. 

      The federal government and the state of Maryland.

    • C. 

      The Federalist Party and the Republican Party.

    • D. 

      Maryland and Virginia.

  • 25. 
    The 20th Amendment to the Constitution (ratified in 1933) set the start of the newly elected Congress as January 3rd. Prior to this change, the start of the new Congress occurred in which month? 
    • A. 

      February

    • B. 

      March

    • C. 

      April

    • D. 

      May

  • 26. 
    The Judiciary Act of 1801 
    • A. 

      Stated that the Supreme Court would have the power of judicial review.

    • B. 

      Stated that the Supreme Court did not have the power of judicial review.

    • C. 

      Created a large number of new judicial posts.

    • D. 

      Limited the role of the Supreme Court to appellate cases only, eliminating its original jurisdiction.

  • 27. 
    The Judiciary Act of 1802 repealed the Judiciary Act of 1801 and prevented the Supreme Court from hearing cases in 1802. 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 28. 
    When the Supreme Court justices were deciding Marbury v. Madison, they felt no political pressures to decide the case in one direction or another. 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 29. 
    The Supreme Court in Marbury v. Madison ruled that the Judiciary Act of 1789 was unconstitutional. 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 30. 
    The Supreme Court decision in Stuart v. Laird (1803) ruled that ​
    • A. 

      Supreme Court justices would resume their duties as circuit court judges.

    • B. 

      The Supreme Court had no original jurisdiction.

    • C. 

      Supreme Court justices did not have life-time appointments.

    • D. 

      Supreme Court decisions needed to be unanimous.

  • 31. 
    After the Marbury v. Madison case, Supreme Court Chief Justice John Marshall ​
    • A. 

      Was impeached and removed from office.

    • B. 

      Resigned.

    • C. 

      Was demoted from the position of Chief Justice to the position of Associate Justice.

    • D. 

      Continued to serve on the Supreme Court for many years.

  • 32. 
    Regardless of its historical surroundings, the long term impact of Marbury v. Madison is the acceptance of the Supreme Court’s authority to rule on the constitutionality of laws passed by Congress. 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 33. 
    Law schools teach students that legal analysis is the same as policy analysis. ​
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 34. 
    The “facts of a case” as presented in court are unbiased, full accounts of the circumstances of the case. ​
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 35. 
    A broader understanding of a Supreme Court ruling might include additional information reflective of the case’s “horizontal dimension.” By this, the authors mean ​
    • A. 

      The Constitutional provisions underlying the law.

    • B. 

      The social and political settings surrounding a case.

    • C. 

      A network of overlapping laws.

    • D. 

      The number of times a Supreme Court ruling is referred to in subsequent decisions.

  • 36. 
    Besides the “horizontal dimension,” a second set of considerations might arise from a _________ dimension. ​
    • A. 

      Vertical

    • B. 

      Reflective

    • C. 

      Third

    • D. 

      Temporal

  • 37. 
    One reason that Chief Justice Earl Warren when writing the opinion in Brown v. Board of Education (1954) did not elaborate on the history of racial discrimination in the United States was to obtain the support of the Court’s conservative members in order to have a unanimous ruling. 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 38. 
    The immediate public reaction to the Brown v. Board of Education ruling was ​
    • A. 

      Immediate acceptance by all segments of the American population.

    • B. 

      Massive resistance by southern states to school desegregation.

    • C. 

      Acceptance of inter-racial marriage.

    • D. 

      Disinterest in the issues of civil rights.

  • 39. 
    Public schools in the U.S. at the end of the 20th century continued to show de facto segregation. 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 40. 
    In a political or historical analysis of a Supreme Court Case, the personal histories and partisanship of the judges ______ be icluded in the analysis
    • A. 

      Would Never

    • B. 

      May

  • 41. 
    Businesses that receive contracts from the federal government may not lobby Congress. ​
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 42. 
    Because of government contracting, high levels of expenditures by the federal government does not necessarily result in more government employees and larger government bureaucracies. 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 43. 
    The federal government currently has enough highly skilled employees to effectively monitor the performance of government contractors. 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 44. 
    The federal government uses contracting of services for both domestic policies and foreign policy areas, including military policy. 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 45. 
    Today, there is still no on-line resource to track federal government spending. 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 46. 
    “Inherently governmental functions” is one area where many agree outsourcing should not occur. All agencies across the federal government use the same definition of “inherently governmental functions” to decide which tasks to contract out and which to be performed by government employees. 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 47. 
    Federal contracts are awarded through a process that provides for free and fair competition for any business seeking these contracts. 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 48. 
    The outsourcing of governmental tasks to private industries occurred only since the 1980s. 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 49. 
    Which of the following IS NOT a characteristic of traditional government bureaucracies? ​
    • A. 

      Hierarchy

    • B. 

      Routine tasks

    • C. 

      Lack of discretion

    • D. 

      Unprofessional service

  • 50. 
    Today, the federal government spends more on contracting out government services than it does to pay federal employees. ​
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 51. 
    Education is one policy area in which services have not been contracted out to private businesses. ​
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 52. 
    By 2004, 30 states used private companies to run at least some of their prisons. ​
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 53. 
    At the start of the Iraq war in 2003, the ratio of personnel from private contractors to U.S. soldiers was one private contractor for ever _____ U.S. soldiers. 
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Ten

    • C. 

      Fifty

    • D. 

      One Hundred

  • 54. 
    One reason for an increase in use of outside contractors in warfare is that sophisticated technology requires highly skilled personnel available from the private sector. ​
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 55. 
    Despite an increase in the number of private employees engaged in warfare, there still is a clear line between what a contract employee does and what a military soldier does. ​
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 56. 
    The term “joined-up government” refers to ​
    • A. 

      Government agencies working to share their information and coordinate their efforts.

    • B. 

      The increased awarding of government contracts to private businesses.

    • C. 

      The increased awarding of government contracts to non-profit agencies.

    • D. 

      An alliance between an interest group and a government agency.

  • 57. 
    The increased provision of government services through networks of government agencies, businesses and nonprofits arose in part because of ​
    • A. 

      A governing philosophy only espoused by Republican presidents.

    • B. 

      Increased demand from the public for more choices in accessing government services.

    • C. 

      The higher costs of gathering information today than before the digital revolution.

    • D. 

      The passage of more regulatory policies by the federal government.

  • 58. 
    Benefits of the new structure of coordinating government services across agencies is that people seeking government services, whether it is a poor family accessing government assistance programs or a small business seeking to expand across state lines, include a reduction in paperwork and accessing multiple government service by working with one agency. ​
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 59. 
    One of the major challenges to providing government services through private contracting is accountability. ​
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 60. 
    One of the skills most needed by today’s government employee is the ability to manage networks.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 61. 
    Police officers have little discretion in how they spend their on-time duty hours. ​
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 62. 
    Police in their proactive policing monitor the activities of the lower classes _____ that of the middle and upper classes. ​
    • A. 

      More Than

    • B. 

      Less Than

    • C. 

      The same amount as

  • 63. 
    One reason that police officers spend more time on street crimes than other crimes is because of the Fourth Amendment’s protection against searches of homes and businesses without a warrant issued under the standards of probable cause. ​
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 64. 
    Today’s criminal justice system tends to focus more on punishment than rehabilitation. ​
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 65. 
    Promotions in police agencies often go to those officers who write more tickets and make more arrests.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 66. 
    Offenses such as excessive noise, loitering and vandalism are all types of ______ crime. ​
    • A. 

      Hard

    • B. 

      Soft

    • C. 

      Unpunished

    • D. 

      Inadvertant

  • 67. 
    “Hot spot” policing differs from discretionary proactive policing in that the former (hot spot policing) involves ​
    • A. 

      Individual police officers deciding to patrol a specific neighborhood based on hunches or rumors.

    • B. 

      Individual police officers deciding to answer some 9-11 calls while ignoring others.

    • C. 

      The police administration deciding to target specific neighborhoods based on the volume of prior calls for service.

    • D. 

      It is less likely to include community involvement.

  • 68. 
    A data-driven policing technique involving assessment of past and current crime data, focused deployment, and consistent follow up is known as ​
    • A. 

      Crimestop

    • B. 

      Stop&Frisk

    • C. 

      Compstat

    • D. 

      Datapolicing

  • 69. 
    In New York City’s stop and frisk program, what percent of these stops led to an arrest? ​
    • A. 

      6%

    • B. 

      24%

    • C. 

      33%

    • D. 

      54%

  • 70. 
    In New York City’s stop and frisk program, young Black and Latino men accounted for 42 percent of all such encounters, while this group constitutes what percent of the city’s population? 
    • A. 

      5%

    • B. 

      15%

    • C. 

      20%

    • D. 

      30%

  • 71. 
    Blacks account for 37 percent of all illegal drug arrests. This occurs despite the fact that Blacks and Latinos are no more likely than whites to use illegal drugs. ​
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 72. 
    Biases in the implementation of proactive policing arise from ​
    • A. 

      Individual police officer's decisions

    • B. 

      Institutional structures of police forces

    • C. 

      Societal stereotypes of poor and minority citizens

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 73. 
    The authors found that despite its problems, proactive policing is significantly more effective at finding criminals than is responding to service calls. ​
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 74. 
    Zero tolerance policing increases the discretion of individual police officers as to which instances of illegal activity result in arrests. ​
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 75. 
    One trait of the service-orient model of policing would be more follow-up visits by police officers with crime victims and witnesses. 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 76. 
    Which of the following IS NOT a trait of “community policing”? ​
    • A. 

      Emphasis on problem solving

    • B. 

      Community involvement

    • C. 

      Organizational centralization

    • D. 

      Crime prevention

  • 77. 
    The authors of this article report that policy training still includes many aspects of a paramilitary-bureaucratic structure. Which of the following IS NOT one of those traits? ​
    • A. 

      Command hierarchy

    • B. 

      Enforcing loyalty and reliance on fellow officers

    • C. 

      Learning how to perform under stress

    • D. 

      Learning to empathize with civilians

  • 78. 
    In the police academy, if one person violates a rule, such as arriving late to class, the whole class can be punished, such as requiring everyone to run a mile. ​
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 79. 
    One aspect of police training is that it tends to foster an “us vs. them” mentality. ​
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 80. 
     In both the Way and Patten book and the Chappell and Lanza-Kaduce article, what is the predominant research method? 
    • A. 

      Public Opinion Survey

    • B. 

      Experiment

    • C. 

      Field Observation

    • D. 

      Content Analysis of written documents