Molecular Biology Exam MCQ Trivia: Quiz

16 Questions | Total Attempts: 216

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Molecular Biology Exam MCQ Trivia: Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which of the following would not be considered part of your genome?
    • A. 

      Integrated retrovirus

    • B. 

      Mitochondrial DNA

    • C. 

      Vaccinia irus DNA in the cytoplasm

    • D. 

      Integrated transposon

  • 2. 
    Nucleotides provide the "building blocks" form in which nucleic acids are constructed. Which of the following combinations are present in DNA:
    • A. 

      Thymine, cytosine, guanine, uracil

    • B. 

      Uracil, adenine, guanine, cytocine

    • C. 

      Cytocine, adenine, guanine, and thymine

    • D. 

      Adenine, guanine, uracil, thymine

  • 3. 
    AZT, a drug used to slow the progression of the human immunodeficiency virus infection and the chemical name 3-azido-2-deoxythymidine and the structure shown below.  What is the mode of action of AZT?
    • A. 

      Inhibits protien sythesis at teh peptidyltransferase step

    • B. 

      Inhibits protein synthesis at the translocase step

    • C. 

      Inhibits DNA synthesis by inhibiting helicase and DAN "unwinding"

    • D. 

      Inhibits DNA synthesis by terminating biosynthesis of the nascent DNA molecule

  • 4. 
    To which fo the terms below does the following definition refer? " That segment of a nucleic acid sequence that lies between 2 stop codons in the same reading frame, when translated in that reading frame"
    • A. 

      Open reading frame

    • B. 

      Reading frame

    • C. 

      Intron

    • D. 

      Exon

  • 5. 
    Congratulations! You have recently acquired the sequence of a cloned dsDNA fragment. You need to determine if there is a protein-encoding sequence present.  How many reading frames must you consider?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      6

  • 6. 
    What sort of biochemical evidence had been used to support the hypothesis that new variant CJ disease in humans arose from exposure to bovine spongiform encephalopathy?
    • A. 

      The patterns and extent of damage in different reagions of the brains of affflicted hosts

    • B. 

      The length of time involved in diease development when studied in a model host system

    • C. 

      The amoutns, sidezes and patterns of PrP27-30 accumulating in the afflicted hosts

    • D. 

      A-c have been used

    • E. 

      A-c have never been used

  • 7. 
    The antibiotic anisomycin blocks the peptidyltransferase reaction in eukaryotes. Which antibiotic blocks this same step in prokaryotic protein synthesis?
    • A. 

      Rifamycin

    • B. 

      Erythromycin

    • C. 

      Chloramphenicol

    • D. 

      None of the Above

  • 8. 
    In the isothermal helicase dependent amplification reaction, the helicase enzyme replaces which component or aspect of a PCR reaction?
    • A. 

      Replaces the thermostable DNA polymerase

    • B. 

      Replaces the reverse transcriptase step

    • C. 

      Replaces the thermal denaturation step

    • D. 

      It replaces the annealing step

  • 9. 
    Which of the following statements is false?
    • A. 

      Microarry analyses are most commonly used to anylyse transcript abundance

    • B. 

      norhtern blots are used to analyse RNA samples

    • C. 

      Western blots are used to analyse multiplex PCR products

    • D. 

      Southern blots are used to analyze DNA samples

  • 10. 
    Tasmanian devils are suffering severe population losses due to an aggressive tumor spread by tumor cells that are transmitted among individuals by biting.  The tumors all have the same bizarre karyotype involving the loss of several chromosomes, rearrangement of others, and duplication of still others.  Which of the below phenomena, common to many cancer cells and tumors, are consistent with the situation?
    • A. 

      Tumor progression

    • B. 

      Genomic instability

    • C. 

      Cellular clonality

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 11. 
    Which is the following is not a hallmark of most cancerous tumors?
    • A. 

      Neovascularization

    • B. 

      Rapid growth of the cancer cells

    • C. 

      Apoptosis occurs more rapidly than cell division

    • D. 

      Accumulation of mutations

  • 12. 
    In doing a paired mating test for copper toxicosis defect, only 1 puppy was obtained, but it was phenotypically normal.  The owner is ecstatic, now believing his bitch is suitable for breeding stock.  What genotype is not a possibility for the pattern of uncertain genotype, with regard to the copper toxicosis defect?
    • A. 

      Homozygous normal

    • B. 

      Homozygous defective

    • C. 

      Heterozygous

    • D. 

      Diploid

  • 13. 
    Progressive retinal atrophy in Irish setters is caused by a point mutation in the phosphodiesterase b subunit that results in an amber mutation within the coding region fo the gene.  This is an example of:
    • A. 

      Missense mutation

    • B. 

      Nonsense mutation

    • C. 

      Frameshift mutation

    • D. 

      Deletion mutation

  • 14. 
    DNA methylation is prokaryotes that serve as a sort of primitive "immune recognition".  In eukaryotes, it does not seem to serve this purpose, but methylation patterns can be heritable. What is this form of inheritance called?
    • A. 

      Pseudogenetic

    • B. 

      Genetics

    • C. 

      Epigenetic

  • 15. 
    In a female heterozygous for the sex-linked trait, Facto VIII hemophilia, the phenotype is normal. What is the term best describing this situation, where a normal allele covers up the defect in another allele by causing the expression of at least some normal product?
    • A. 

      Discordance

    • B. 

      Complementaiton

  • 16. 
    Which of the following statements is true regarding a comparison of PCR analysis and urology in the diagnosis of infectious diseases?
    • A. 

      A positive serology result indicates previous exposure, but does not confirm active infection

    • B. 

      A positive PCR result indicates previous exposure, but does not confirm active infection

    • C. 

      A positive PCR result indicates apoptosis had occured and there is not active infeciton

    • D. 

      A postive serology result indicates an adequate immune response occured and there is no active infeciton