Module 2 Quiz

42 Questions

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Module 2 Quiz

Chapters: 10, 44, and 11. Due January 28th 2017 online.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    A patient needs to switch analgesic drugs secondary to an adverse reaction to the current treatment regimen. The patient is concerned that the new prescription will not provide optimal pain control. The nurse’s response is based on knowledge that doses of analgesics are determined using an equianalgesic table with which drug prototype?
    • A. 

      Meperidine

    • B. 

      Fentanyl

    • C. 

      Codine

    • D. 

      Morphine

  • 2. 
    The nurse is caring for a patient with opioid addiction. The nurse anticipates that the patient will be prescribed which medication?
    • A. 

      Naloxone (Narcan)

    • B. 

      Meperidine (Demerol)

    • C. 

      Morphine (MS Contin)

    • D. 

      Methadone (Dolphine)

  • 3. 
    While admitting a patient for treatment of an acetaminophen (Tylenol) overdose, the nurse prepares to administer which medication to prevent toxicity?
    • A. 

      Naloxone (Narcan)

    • B. 

      Phytonadione (vitamin K)

    • C. 

      Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)

    • D. 

      Methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol)

  • 4. 
    A patient prescribed massage therapy for musculoskeletal pain asks the nurse, “How is rubbing my muscles going to make the pain go away?” What is the nurse’s best response?​ 
    • A. 

      “Massaging muscles helps relax the contracted fibers and decrease painful stimuli.”

    • B. 

      “Massaging muscles decreases the inflammatory response that initiates the painful stimuli.”

    • C. 

      “Massaging muscles activates large sensory nerve fibers that send signals to the spinal cord to close the gate, thus blocking painful stimuli from reaching the brain.”

    • D. 

      “Massaging muscles activates small sensory nerve fibers that send signals to the spinal cord to open the gate and allow endorphins to reach the muscles and relieve the pain.”

  • 5. 
    When assessing for the MOST serious adverse effect to an opioid analgesic, what does the nurse monitor for in this patient?
    • A. 

      Heart rate

    • B. 

      Mental status

    • C. 

      Blood Pressure

    • D. 

      Respiratory rate

  • 6. 
    Which medication is used to treat a patient with severe adverse effects of a narcotic analgesic?
    • A. 

      Naloxone (Narcan)

    • B. 

      Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)

    • C. 

      Methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol)

    • D. 

      Flumazenil (Romazicon)

  • 7. 
    A patient with a diagnosis of pneumonia asks the nurse, “Why am I receiving codeine when I have no pain?” The nurse’s response is based on knowledge that codeine also has what effect?
    • A. 

      Expectorant

    • B. 

      Bronchodilation

    • C. 

      Cough suppressant

    • D. 

      Increases sputum production

  • 8. 
    In monitoring a patient for adverse effects related to morphine sulfate (MS Contin), the nurse assesses for stimulation of which area in the central nervous system (CNS)?
    • A. 

      The cough reflex center

    • B. 

      Sympathetic baroreceptors

    • C. 

      The chemoreceptor trigger zone

    • D. 

      Autonomic control over circulation

  • 9. 
    The nurse is preparing to administer an intravenous injection of morphine to a patient. The nurse assesses a respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min. Which action should the nurse perform?
    • A. 

      Administer the next prescribed dose intramuscularly.

    • B. 

      Administer a smaller dose and document in the patient's record.

    • C. 

      Withhold the medication and notify the health care provider.

    • D. 

      Check the pulse oximeter reading and reevaluate respiratory rate in 1 hour.

  • 10. 
    A patient receiving narcotic analgesics for chronic pain can minimize the GI side effects by:
    • A. 

      Taking Lomotil with each dose.

    • B. 

      Eating foods high in lactobacilli.

    • C. 

      Taking the medication on an empty stomach.

    • D. 

      Increasing fluid and fiber in the diet.

  • 11. 
    A patient is prescribed an opioid analgesic for chronic pain. Which information should the nurse discuss with the patient to minimize the GI adverse effects?
    • A. 

      Avoid eating foods high in lactobacilli.

    • B. 

      Increase fluid intake and fiber in the diet.

    • C. 

      Take the medication on an empty stomach.

    • D. 

      Take diphenoxylate-atropine (Lomtil) with each dose.

  • 12. 
    The nurse teaches a patient prescribed the fentanyl (Duragesic) transdermal delivery system to change the patch at what interval?
    • A. 

      Once a week

    • B. 

      Every 24 hours

    • C. 

      Every 72 hours

    • D. 

      When pain recurs

  • 13. 
    The nurse plans pharmacologic management for a patient with pain. The nurse should administer the pain medication based on what dosage schedule?
    • A. 

      Pain relief is best obtained by administering analgesics around the clock.

    • B. 

      Administer the analgesic when the pain level reaches a “6” on a scale of 1 to 10.

    • C. 

      Opioid analgesics should not be used for more than 24 hours to prevent drug addiction.

    • D. 

      Analgesics should be administered as needed (prn) to minimize adverse effects.

  • 14. 
    In developing a plan of care for a patient receiving morphine sulfate (MS Contin), which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority?
    • A. 

      Acute pain related to metastatic tumor cancer

    • B. 

      Impaired gas exchange related to respiratory depression 

    • C. 

      Constipation related to decreased GI motility

    • D. 

      Risk for injury related to CNS adverse effects

  • 15. 
    When assessing a patient for adverse effects related to morphine sulfate (MS Contin), which clinical findings is the nurse MOSTlikely to find? (Select all that apply.)
    • A. 

      Diarrhea

    • B. 

      Weight gain

    • C. 

      Constipation

    • D. 

      Inability to void

    • E. 

      Excessive bruising

  • 16. 
    What is the mechanism of action of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)?
    • A. 

      Enhancing pain perception

    • B. 

      Inhibiting prostaglandin production

    • C. 

      Increasing blood flow to painful areas

    • D. 

      Increasing the supply of natural endorphins

  • 17. 
    When teaching a client about potential adverse effects of NSAID therapy, the nurse will teach the client to immediately notify the health care provider of which effect?
    • A. 

      Diarrhea

    • B. 

      Mild indigestion

    • C. 

      Black tarry stools

    • D. 

      Nonproductive cough

  • 18. 
    The nurse is administering probenecid (Benemid) to a client with recurrent strep throat. The nurse teaches the client that theMOST likely reason for taking this medication is for what drug effect?
    • A. 

      Increase uric acid excretion

    • B. 

      Prevent the occurrence of gout

    • C. 

      Inhibit bacterial growth and replication

    • D. 

      Prolong the effectiveness of penicillin therapy

  • 19. 
    What is the advantage of COX-2 inhibitors over other NSAIDs?
    • A. 

      Maintain GI mucosa

    • B. 

      Have a longer duration of action

    • C. 

      Have a more rapid onset of action

    • D. 

      Are less likely to cause hepatic toxicity

  • 20. 
    The client asks the nurse about the use of herbal and dietary supplements to treat arthritis pain. What is the nurse’s best response?
    • A. 

      “High doses of vitamins and minerals have been used for many years to help maintain joint health.”

    • B. 

      “There really are no safe herbal treatments for pain. Your best action would be to take your prescription medications.”

    • C. 

      “Ginkgo biloba has shown tremendous benefit as an antiinflammatory drug and is used to treat the symptoms of pain.”

    • D. 

      “There is evidence that glucosamine sulfate with chondroitin does decrease joint stiffness and pain. Discuss this with your health care provider.”

  • 21. 
    The nurse knows colchicine (Colcrys) exerts its therapeutic effect by what action?
    • A. 

      Increases uric acid metabolism

    • B. 

      Decreases mobility of leukocytes

    • C. 

      Increases phagocytosis

    • D. 

      Increases production of lactic acid

  • 22. 
    Which nursing diagnosis is appropriate for a client prescribed colchicine (Colcrys)?
    • A. 

      Constipation related to adverse effect of the medication

    • B. 

      Risk for infection related to medication-induced leukocytosis

    • C. 

      Risk for injury related to adverse effect of life threatening seizures

    • D. 

      Risk for fluid volume deficient related to nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea

  • 23. 
    A nurse teaching a client receiving allopurinol (Zyloprim) should include which information?
    • A. 

      “Increase your fluid intake to 3 L per day.”

    • B. 

      “This medication may cause your urine to turn orange.”

    • C. 

      “Include salmon and organ meats in your diet on a weekly basis.”

    • D. 

      “Take the medication with an antacid to minimize GI distress.”

  • 24. 
    The nurse would question a prescription to administer misoprostol (Cytotec) to a client with which condition?
    • A. 

      Pregnancy

    • B. 

      Peptic ulcer

    • C. 

      Gastroesophageal reflux disease

    • D. 

      Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

  • 25. 
    The nurse should question a prescription to administer acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin) to which client? 
    • A. 

      A 62-year-old patient with a history of stroke

    • B. 

      A 45-year-old patient with a history of heart attack

    • C. 

      A 28-year-old patient with a history of sports injury

    • D. 

      A 14-year-old patient with a history of flulike symptoms

  • 26. 
    Which NSAID would the nurse anticipate administering parenterally for the treatment of acute postoperative pain?
    • A. 

      Ketorolac (Toradol)

    • B. 

      Diclofenac (Cataflam)

    • C. 

      Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

    • D. 

      Indomethacin (Indocin)

  • 27. 
    The acetic acid derivative indomethacin (Indocin) has which properties? (Select all that apply.)
    • A. 

      Antinausea

    • B. 

      Antipyretic

    • C. 

      Anticonvulsant

    • D. 

      Antirheumatic

    • E. 

      Antiinflammatory

  • 28. 
    While completing preoperative patient teaching, which information should the nurse include for a surgery with a general anesthetic?
    • A. 

      It produces muscle relaxation and loss of consciousness.

    • B. 

      It provides moderate sedation that allows you to relax.

    • C. 

      It affects a specific region of the body to block pain sensation.

    • D. 

      It uses only one type of medication to produce sedation.

  • 29. 
    A patient verbalizes concern to the nurse regarding postoperative nausea and vomiting from the anesthesia. Which is the nurse’s best response?
    • A. 

      “Don’t worry because you’ll be heavily or completely sedated if that occurs.”

    • B. 

      “I understand your concern but intermittent vomiting often occurs after surgery.”

    • C. 

      “You will need to notify the charge nurse and health care provider if you feel nauseated after surgery.”

    • D. 

      “Nausea and vomiting occur less frequently than in the past because of the use of a balanced approach to anesthesia.”

  • 30. 
    An intubated, mechanically ventilated patient in the intensive care unit (ICU) is becoming increasingly restless and anxious. The nurse expects to administer which intravenous (IV) anesthetic drug?
    • A. 

      Propofol (Diprivan)

    • B. 

      Isoflurane (Forane)

    • C. 

      Halothane (Fluothane)

    • D. 

      Nitrous oxide (Anesoxyn)

  • 31. 
    Which postoperative nursing action will help the patient avoid serious complications from general anesthesia?
    • A. 

      Monitor input and output closely.

    • B. 

      Provide a quiet, calm environment.

    • C. 

      Place in a semi-Fowler's position.

    • D. 

      Teach to turn, cough, and deep breathe.

  • 32. 
    Immediate postoperative assessment of a patient reveals a body temperature of 102° F. Which action will the nurse perform?
    • A. 

      Notify the health care provider.

    • B. 

      Apply a cooling blanket per protocol.

    • C. 

      Assess for signs and symptoms of infection related to the surgical wound.

    • D. 

      Administer acetaminophen as prescribed and recheck temperature in 1 hour.

  • 33. 
    A patient questions the use of epinephrine for repair of a laceration, stating, “I thought that was the drug used in the emergency department for someone who is coding.” Which is the nurse’s best response?
    • A. 

      “Epinephrine is used with lidocaine to prevent adverse effects.”

    • B. 

      “The systemic absorption of lidocaine is maximized by the epinephrine, and the anesthetic effect is reached more quickly.”

    • C. 

      “Vasoconstriction caused by epinephrine enhances the duration of action for lidocaine and minimizes bleeding at the laceration site.”

    • D. 

      “Epinephrine is metabolized more quickly than lidocaine so that the anesthetic effect wears off more quickly after the laceration is sutured.”

  • 34. 
    A mechanically ventilated patient receiving a neuromuscular-blocking drug has tearing in the eyes and increased heart rate and blood pressure. How does the nurse interpret this clinical finding?
    • A. 

      The patient’s level of sedation is inadequate.

    • B. 

      The patient’s response to the drug is appropriate.

    • C. 

      The patient is having an adverse reaction to the medication.

    • D. 

       The patient’s dose of the neuromuscular-blocking drug is insufficient.

  • 35. 
    While taking a patient’s history before surgery for a cardiac problem, the patient tells the nurse, “I am addicted to cocaine.” The nurse notifies the anesthesiologist of this finding because use of cocaine can cause which effect when a patient is under anesthesia?
    • A. 

      Blood-clotting problems

    • B. 

      Complications during recovery

    • C. 

      Immediate withdrawal symptoms

    • D. 

      Anesthetic-induced complications

  • 36. 
    An intravenous dose of midazolam (Versed) has been prescribed for a patient before a colonoscopy. The nurse informs the patient that one of the most common adverse effects of this medication is what effect?
    • A. 

      Amnesia

    • B. 

      Dry mouth

    • C. 

      Chest pain

    • D. 

      Constipation

  • 37. 
    Which nursing diagnosis is appropriate for a patient who has just been administered a sedative-hypnotic drug?
    • A. 

      Risk for infection

    • B. 

      Deficient knowledge

    • C. 

      Imbalanced nutrition

    • D. 

      Risk for injury and falls

  • 38. 
    A patient is admitted to the emergency department after taking an overdose of a barbiturate 15 minutes before arrival. The nurse can anticipate that which drug will be prescribed?
    • A. 

      Ipecac syrup

    • B. 

      Ipecac syrup

    • C. 

      Flumazenil (Romazicon)

    • D. 

      Charcoal (Activated charcoal)

  • 39. 
    During patient teaching, the nurse explains the difference between a sedative and hypnotic with which statement?
    • A. 

      “There really is no difference; the terms are used interchangeably.”

    • B. 

      “Whereas sedative drugs induce sleep, hypnotic drugs induce a state of hypnosis.”

    • C. 

      “Most drugs produce sedation at low doses and sleep, the hypnotic effect, at higher doses.”

    • D. 

      “Sedatives are much stronger than hypnotic drugs and should only be used for short periods of time.”

  • 40. 
    The health care provider prescribes dantrolene (Dantrium) to a patient immediately after surgery. What condition does the nurse expect the patient has experienced?
    • A. 

      Delirium tremens

    • B. 

      Respiratory arrest

    • C. 

      Tonic-clonic seizure

    • D. 

      Malignant hyperthermia

  • 41. 
    An intravenous dose of midazolam (Versed) has been prescribed for a patient before a colonoscopy. The nurse informs the patient that one of the most common adverse effects of this medication is what effect?
    • A. 

      Amnesia

    • B. 

      Dry mouth

    • C. 

      Chest pain

    • D. 

      Constipation

  • 42. 
    A patient is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of benzodiazepine overdose. The nurse anticipates the health care provider will prescribe which antidote for benzodiazepine overdose?
    • A. 

      Naloxone (Narcan)

    • B. 

      Naltrexone (ReVia)

    • C. 

      Nalmefene (Revex)

    • D. 

      Flumazenil (Romazicon)