6c051 Contracting UREs Volume 2
Questions and Answers
- 1.
(201) Acquisition planning must take place
- A.
Upon receipt of funds.
- B.
Once a purchase request is received.
- C.
As soon as an agency need is identified
- D.
Immediately upon completion of the source selection plan.
Correct Answer
C. As soon as an agency need is identifiedExplanation
Acquisition planning must take place as soon as an agency need is identified because it is crucial to start the planning process early in order to effectively meet the agency's requirements. Identifying the need allows the agency to determine the necessary resources, budget, and timeline for the acquisition. By starting the planning process early, the agency can also conduct market research, identify potential suppliers, and develop a comprehensive acquisition strategy. This ensures that the agency can efficiently and effectively acquire the goods or services needed to fulfill their mission.Rate this question:
-
- 2.
(201) What higher level planning process is used to identify and determine whether government work should be contracted or performed in-house?
- A.
Market research.
- B.
Source selection.
- C.
Strategic sourcing.
- D.
Competitive sourcing.
Correct Answer
D. Competitive sourcing.Explanation
Competitive sourcing is the higher level planning process used to identify and determine whether government work should be contracted or performed in-house. This process involves conducting market research, evaluating potential sources, and selecting the most suitable option through a competitive process. It helps in ensuring that the government gets the best value for money and promotes competition among potential suppliers. Strategic sourcing, on the other hand, focuses on optimizing the procurement process for goods and services, while source selection is a part of the competitive sourcing process.Rate this question:
-
- 3.
(201) The group of functional experts that reviews and recommends acquisition strategies for a specific product or service is known as
- A.
An acquisition strategy panel (ASP).
- B.
An expeditionary sourcing group (ESG).
- C.
An enterprise sourcing squadron (ESS).
- D.
A business support squadron (BSS).
Correct Answer
A. An acquisition strategy panel (ASP).Explanation
An acquisition strategy panel (ASP) is a group of functional experts that reviews and recommends acquisition strategies for a specific product or service. They are responsible for evaluating various options and determining the best approach to acquiring the desired product or service. The ASP ensures that the acquisition strategy aligns with the organization's goals and objectives, and they provide guidance and recommendations to support effective decision-making in the acquisition process.Rate this question:
-
- 4.
(201) Leadership of an acquisition team may be shared between the contracting officer (CO) and
- A.
The head of the contracting agency (HCA).
- B.
A contract specialist.
- C.
The program manager.
- D.
The technical team.
Correct Answer
C. The program manager.Explanation
The program manager is responsible for overseeing the overall management and execution of a program, including acquisitions. They work closely with the contracting officer and other team members to ensure that the acquisition process aligns with the program's objectives and requirements. The program manager's expertise in the program's technical aspects, budget, and schedule make them a valuable leader in the acquisition team. Additionally, their role involves coordinating with stakeholders and providing guidance to the contracting officer and other team members throughout the acquisition process.Rate this question:
-
- 5.
(201) A simplified acquisition strategy summary (SASS) is required for acquisitions with a dollar value
- A.
Exceeding $2,500
- B.
Exceeding $25,000
- C.
Between $8 million (M) and $25M.
- D.
Between the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) and $10M
Correct Answer
D. Between the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) and $10MExplanation
A simplified acquisition strategy summary (SASS) is required for acquisitions with a dollar value between the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) and $10M. This means that any acquisition with a value above the SAT (which is typically $250,000) but below $10M requires a SASS. The SASS is a summary document that outlines the acquisition strategy and provides key information about the acquisition, such as the scope of work, contracting approach, and evaluation criteria. It helps to ensure that acquisitions within this dollar range are planned and executed effectively.Rate this question:
-
- 6.
(202) What action must a contracting officer (CO) take if market research indicates that a commercial item is not available to meet customer needs?
- A.
Restate terms to permit the acquisition of commercial items.
- B.
Cancel the solicitation and resolicit using military specifications.
- C.
Issue the award on a sole-source basis.
- D.
Dissolve the small business set-aside.
Correct Answer
A. Restate terms to permit the acquisition of commercial items.Explanation
If market research indicates that a commercial item is not available to meet customer needs, the contracting officer (CO) must restate the terms to permit the acquisition of commercial items. This means that the CO should revise the requirements or specifications in a way that allows for the purchase of a commercial item that meets the customer's needs. This option is the most appropriate response in this scenario as it addresses the issue of unavailability while still considering the customer's requirements.Rate this question:
-
- 7.
(202) What specific information is included in a market research report?
- A.
Constraints to competition
- B.
Review of offeror past performance.
- C.
Detailed analysis of cost and pricing data.
- D.
Identification of source selection evaluation criteria.
Correct Answer
A. Constraints to competitionExplanation
A market research report includes information about the constraints to competition. This means that the report will provide details about any factors or limitations that may affect the level of competition in a particular market. This information is important for companies and organizations to understand the competitive landscape and make informed decisions about their strategies and offerings.Rate this question:
-
- 8.
(203) Which is not an example of a wholesale supply source?
- A.
Defense Logistics Agency (DLA).
- B.
Department of Veteran Affairs (VA).
- C.
General Services Administration (GSA)
- D.
Army and Air Force Exchange Services (AAFES).
Correct Answer
D. Army and Air Force Exchange Services (AAFES).Explanation
The Army and Air Force Exchange Services (AAFES) is not an example of a wholesale supply source because it is primarily a retail organization that provides goods and services to members of the military and their families. It operates department stores, convenience stores, restaurants, and other retail establishments on military installations. In contrast, the Defense Logistics Agency (DLA), Department of Veteran Affairs (VA), and General Services Administration (GSA) are all examples of wholesale supply sources that provide goods and services to government agencies, including the military.Rate this question:
-
- 9.
(203) Who is responsible for managing inventories of supplies and determining if the customer’s requirements can be met through available supply channels?
- A.
Mission support group commander.
- B.
Contracting squadron commander.
- C.
Requiring agency.
- D.
Base supply officer.
Correct Answer
D. Base supply officer.Explanation
The base supply officer is responsible for managing inventories of supplies and determining if the customer's requirements can be met through available supply channels. They oversee the procurement, storage, and distribution of supplies to ensure that the needs of the organization or base are met efficiently. This role involves coordinating with various departments and suppliers to ensure timely availability of required materials and maintaining inventory levels. The base supply officer plays a crucial role in ensuring that the organization has the necessary supplies to carry out its mission effectively.Rate this question:
-
- 10.
(203) At what prices shall agencies purchase required supplies listed in the Federal Prison Industries (FPI) schedule?
- A.
At whatever price is stated on the schedule.
- B.
At prices listed above market value.
- C.
10 percent above fair market value
- D.
At prices not to exceed fair market value.
Correct Answer
D. At prices not to exceed fair market value.Explanation
Agencies shall purchase required supplies listed in the Federal Prison Industries (FPI) schedule at prices not to exceed fair market value. This means that the agencies should not pay more than what is considered a reasonable and competitive price in the market for the supplies.Rate this question:
-
- 11.
(203) If the Federal Prison Industries (FPI) product is not comparable in one or more areas of price, quality, and time of delivery, then the contracting officer (CO) can
- A.
Award it anyway because it is mandatory.
- B.
Give FPI a chance to change their offer.
- C.
Use competitive procedures to acquire the product.
- D.
Change the time of delivery so that FPI can compete.
Correct Answer
C. Use competitive procedures to acquire the product.Explanation
If the Federal Prison Industries (FPI) product is not comparable in one or more areas of price, quality, and time of delivery, the contracting officer (CO) cannot award it anyway because it is mandatory. Instead, the CO can use competitive procedures to acquire the product. This means that the CO will open up the procurement process to other potential suppliers and allow them to submit their offers. By doing so, the CO can ensure that the best product, in terms of price, quality, and time of delivery, is selected for the contract.Rate this question:
-
- 12.
(203) The Committee for Purchase from People Who are Blind or Severely Disabled is responsible for all of the following except
- A.
Establishing prices for supplies and services.
- B.
Establishing rules and regulations to implement the AbilityOne Act.
- C.
Providing everything from workplaces, security, and supplies to telecommunications.
- D.
Determining supplies and services to be purchased by all entities of the government from AbilityOne participating nonprofit agencies
Correct Answer
C. Providing everything from workplaces, security, and supplies to telecommunications.Explanation
The Committee for Purchase from People Who are Blind or Severely Disabled is responsible for establishing prices for supplies and services, establishing rules and regulations to implement the AbilityOne Act, and determining supplies and services to be purchased by all entities of the government from AbilityOne participating nonprofit agencies. However, it is not responsible for providing everything from workplaces, security, and supplies to telecommunications.Rate this question:
-
- 13.
(203) When placing an order against a federal supply schedule (FSS) that is expected to be below the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT), at a minimum, the ordering activity shall document
- A.
The amount paid and the basis for the award decision.
- B.
The selected contractor and the contractors contact information.
- C.
A description of the supply or service purchased and how long competed.
- D.
The basis for the award decision and when the follow-on requirement will be competed.
Correct Answer
A. The amount paid and the basis for the award decision.Explanation
When placing an order against a federal supply schedule (FSS) that is expected to be below the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT), the ordering activity is required to document the amount paid and the basis for the award decision. This documentation ensures transparency and accountability in the procurement process. It allows for proper record-keeping and provides a clear reference for future audits or reviews. By documenting the amount paid, the ordering activity can track and verify the financial aspects of the order. Additionally, documenting the basis for the award decision helps justify the selection of a specific contractor and ensures that the procurement was conducted in a fair and objective manner.Rate this question:
-
- 14.
(203) When placing an order against a federal supply schedule (FSS) that is expected to exceed the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT), which factor is not documented when considering best value?
- A.
The amount paid
- B.
The basis for the award decision.
- C.
The contractor that the customer chose.
- D.
A description of the supply or service purchased.
Correct Answer
C. The contractor that the customer chose.Explanation
When placing an order against a federal supply schedule (FSS) that is expected to exceed the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT), the factor that is not documented when considering best value is the contractor that the customer chose. The amount paid, the basis for the award decision, and a description of the supply or service purchased are all factors that are typically documented when considering best value. However, the specific contractor chosen by the customer is not typically documented in this context.Rate this question:
-
- 15.
(203) When executing a General Services Administration (GSA) task order, which is not included in the requirements package?
- A.
The price indicated on the independent government estimate.
- B.
Location of work and delivery schedule.
- C.
Description of work to be performed.
- D.
Security clearance requirements.
Correct Answer
A. The price indicated on the independent government estimate.Explanation
The price indicated on the independent government estimate is not included in the requirements package when executing a GSA task order. The requirements package typically includes the location of work and delivery schedule, description of work to be performed, and security clearance requirements. However, the price indicated on the independent government estimate is separate from the requirements package and is usually determined separately during the procurement process.Rate this question:
-
- 16.
(203) When executing a General Services Administration (GSA) task order above the micropurchase threshold but not exceeding the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT), the contracting officer (CO) shall provide the request for quotations (RFQ) to at least how many contractors?
- A.
Three.
- B.
Five
- C.
Six
- D.
Eight
Correct Answer
A. Three.Explanation
When executing a GSA task order above the micropurchase threshold but not exceeding the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT), the contracting officer (CO) is required to provide the request for quotations (RFQ) to at least three contractors. This ensures a competitive bidding process and allows for a fair evaluation of proposals. By soliciting quotes from multiple contractors, the CO can compare prices, services, and other factors to make an informed decision and obtain the best value for the government.Rate this question:
-
- 17.
(203) When shall a contracting officer (CO) provide unsuccessful offerors additional information after awarding a General Services Administration (GSA) task order above the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT)?
- A.
When mandated to provide a debrief by GSA
- B.
Upon request due to the award being based on factors other than price.
- C.
Upon request due to the award being based solely on price.
- D.
The CO does not have provide additional information.
Correct Answer
B. Upon request due to the award being based on factors other than price.Explanation
When a General Services Administration (GSA) task order above the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) is awarded based on factors other than price, the contracting officer (CO) is required to provide additional information to unsuccessful offerors upon request. This is because the award decision was not solely based on the price, and therefore, unsuccessful offerors may seek clarification or feedback on the factors that influenced the decision.Rate this question:
-
- 18.
(203) When executing a federal supply schedule (FSS) order, what is a circumstance in which a contracting officer (CO) can justify limiting sources?
- A.
An urgent and compelling need exists and following the procedures would result in delays.
- B.
The CO has been directed by leadership ordered to choose a certain contractor.
- C.
The local contractor knows the base processes better.
- D.
The CO wanted to award to the previous contractor.
Correct Answer
A. An urgent and compelling need exists and following the procedures would result in delays.Explanation
The correct answer is "An urgent and compelling need exists and following the procedures would result in delays." This means that if there is a situation where there is an urgent and compelling need for a particular product or service, and following the normal procedures would cause delays in meeting that need, the contracting officer can justify limiting sources and choosing a specific contractor. This allows for flexibility in the procurement process to ensure that critical needs are met in a timely manner.Rate this question:
-
- 19.
(203) When placing a federal supply schedule (FSS) order above the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) that is supported by limiting sources, the justification must be posted on www.fbo.gov within
- A.
5 days
- B.
7 days
- C.
10 days
- D.
14 days
Correct Answer
D. 14 daysExplanation
When placing a federal supply schedule (FSS) order above the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) that is supported by limiting sources, the justification must be posted on www.fbo.gov within 14 days. This allows for transparency and ensures that other potential suppliers have access to the information regarding the limited sources used for the order. By posting the justification within this timeframe, it allows for fair competition and provides an opportunity for other suppliers to potentially challenge the decision if they believe they could also meet the requirements.Rate this question:
-
- 20.
(203) Usually, who can approve limited sources justifications exceeding the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) but less than $700,000?
- A.
The commander.
- B.
The contracting officer.
- C.
A general or flag officer equivalent.
- D.
The command contracting director.
Correct Answer
B. The contracting officer.Explanation
The contracting officer is the correct answer because they have the authority to approve limited sources justifications exceeding the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) but less than $700,000. The contracting officer is responsible for the acquisition process and has the authority to make decisions regarding contract awards and justifications. The commander, general or flag officer equivalent, and command contracting director may have oversight or advisory roles in the process, but the contracting officer has the final approval authority in this situation.Rate this question:
-
- 21.
(204) A lease versus purchase determination is required when equipment will be leased for more than
- A.
60 days.
- B.
45 days.
- C.
30 days.
- D.
14 days.
Correct Answer
A. 60 days.Explanation
A lease versus purchase determination is required when equipment will be leased for more than 60 days. This means that if the equipment will be leased for a period of 60 days or less, there is no need to assess whether it is better to lease or purchase the equipment. However, if the lease duration exceeds 60 days, it becomes necessary to evaluate the costs, benefits, and other factors associated with leasing versus purchasing the equipment.Rate this question:
-
- 22.
(204) When considering a lease versus purchase, the purchase method is appropriate when
- A.
Equipment is to be used on an “as-needed” basis.
- B.
Purchase cost will exceed cumulative leasing costs.
- C.
Cumulative leasing costs will exceed purchase costs
- D.
Circumstances require the immediate and short-term use of equipment.
Correct Answer
C. Cumulative leasing costs will exceed purchase costsExplanation
The correct answer is that the purchase method is appropriate when cumulative leasing costs will exceed purchase costs. This means that if the total cost of leasing the equipment over a certain period of time is higher than the cost of purchasing it outright, then it would be more cost-effective to buy the equipment instead of leasing it. This could be due to factors such as the length of time the equipment will be needed, the frequency of use, and the availability of funds for purchasing.Rate this question:
-
- 23.
(205) What Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) part prescribes policy for contracting with small businesses?
- A.
12
- B.
17
- C.
19
- D.
26
Correct Answer
C. 19Explanation
Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) part 19 prescribes policy for contracting with small businesses. This part of the FAR specifically addresses the requirements and procedures for promoting the utilization of small businesses in federal contracting. It provides guidance on various programs and initiatives aimed at ensuring small businesses have fair opportunities to compete for and win government contracts. By prescribing these policies, FAR part 19 helps to promote small business participation in federal procurement and supports the government's goal of fostering economic growth and development within the small business sector.Rate this question:
-
- 24.
(205) Which socioeconomic program is aimed to help a small business located on an Indian reservation?
- A.
Historically underutilized business zone (HUBZone).
- B.
Small disadvantaged business (SDB).
- C.
Women-owned small business (WOSB).
- D.
Small disadvantaged veteran-owned small business (SDVOSB).
Correct Answer
A. Historically underutilized business zone (HUBZone).Explanation
The correct answer is Historically underutilized business zone (HUBZone). This program is aimed at helping small businesses located in economically distressed areas, including Indian reservations. The program provides various benefits such as preferential access to federal contracting opportunities, set-aside contracts, and financial assistance to promote economic development in these areas.Rate this question:
-
- 25.
(205) Which is not a required criterion for a small business to qualify as a historically underutilized business zone (HUBZone)?
- A.
Be located in a HUBZone
- B.
Have at least 35 percent of its employees reside in a HUBZone.
- C.
Be at least 51 percent owned and controlled by one or more United States (US) citizens
- D.
Be at least 51 percent owned by one or more citizens who live in a HUBZone.
Correct Answer
D. Be at least 51 percent owned by one or more citizens who live in a HUBZone.Explanation
To qualify as a historically underutilized business zone (HUBZone), a small business must meet several criteria. These include being located in a HUBZone, having at least 35 percent of its employees residing in a HUBZone, and being at least 51 percent owned and controlled by one or more US citizens. However, it is not a requirement for the business to be owned by citizens who live in a HUBZone. This means that as long as the business meets the other criteria, it can be owned by US citizens who do not necessarily live in a HUBZone.Rate this question:
-
- 26.
(205) Which is not a type of historically underutilized business zone (HUBZone) contract?
- A.
HUBZone set-aside.
- B.
HUBZone sole source.
- C.
HUBZone full and open.
- D.
Competitive HUBZone set-aside.
Correct Answer
C. HUBZone full and open.Explanation
The HUBZone program is a government initiative aimed at promoting economic development in historically underutilized business zones. It provides opportunities for small businesses located in these zones to win federal contracts. The HUBZone set-aside contract is specifically reserved for HUBZone-certified businesses. The HUBZone sole source contract allows agencies to award contracts directly to HUBZone-certified businesses without competition. The competitive HUBZone set-aside contract is open to all qualified HUBZone-certified businesses, but they must compete against each other for the contract. Therefore, the HUBZone full and open contract is not a type of HUBZone contract since it does not specify any preference or restriction for HUBZone-certified businesses.Rate this question:
-
- 27.
(205) What should a contracting officer (CO) do if he or she only receives one acceptable offer from a qualified historically underutilized business zone (HUBZone) small business?
- A.
Extend the deadline for offers.
- B.
Award to the acceptable offer.
- C.
Contact the Small Business Administration (SBA) for guidance
- D.
Cancel the solicitation and re-advertise when there is expectation that more offers will be received.
Correct Answer
B. Award to the acceptable offer.Explanation
If a contracting officer (CO) only receives one acceptable offer from a qualified historically underutilized business zone (HUBZone) small business, they should award the contract to the acceptable offer. This means that the CO has determined that the offer meets all the necessary requirements and is suitable for the contract. There is no need to extend the deadline for offers, contact the Small Business Administration (SBA) for guidance, or cancel the solicitation and re-advertise.Rate this question:
-
- 28.
(205) Which is a factor in which a contracting officer (CO) can award a sole-source contract to a service-disabled veteran-owned small business (SDVOSB)?
- A.
Award cannot be made at a fair and reasonable price
- B.
The requirement is already being performed by an 8(a) participant.
- C.
The anticipated award price of the contract to include options will not exceed $8.5M
- D.
The CO does not have a reasonable expectation that offers would be received from two or more SDVOSB concerns.
Correct Answer
D. The CO does not have a reasonable expectation that offers would be received from two or more SDVOSB concerns.Explanation
The correct answer is "The CO does not have a reasonable expectation that offers would be received from two or more SDVOSB concerns." This factor allows the contracting officer to award a sole-source contract to a service-disabled veteran-owned small business (SDVOSB) when they do not anticipate receiving offers from multiple SDVOSB concerns. This means that there is a lack of competition in the market, and therefore a sole-source contract can be awarded to the SDVOSB.Rate this question:
-
- 29.
(205) One criterion that a woman is presumed economically disadvantaged under the economically disadvantaged women-owned small business (EDWOSB) program is if her personal net worth is less than what dollar amount?
- A.
$750,000.
- B.
$350,000.
- C.
$1 million (M).
- D.
$6M.
Correct Answer
A. $750,000.Explanation
The criterion for a woman to be presumed economically disadvantaged under the EDWOSB program is if her personal net worth is less than $750,000.Rate this question:
-
- 30.
(205) At what dollar amount does the non-manufacturer rule not apply?
- A.
Over $25,000.
- B.
Under $25,000
- C.
Micro-purchase threshold.
- D.
Simplified acquisition threshold (SAT).
Correct Answer
B. Under $25,000Explanation
The non-manufacturer rule does not apply when the dollar amount is under $25,000.Rate this question:
-
- 31.
(206) Designating a competition advocate for each contracting activity is a requirement of the
- A.
Small Business Act (SBA).
- B.
Regulatory Flexibility Act.
- C.
National Defense Authorization Act
- D.
Office of Federal Procurement Policy Act.
Correct Answer
D. Office of Federal Procurement Policy Act.Explanation
The Office of Federal Procurement Policy Act requires the designation of a competition advocate for each contracting activity. This act ensures that competition is promoted in the federal procurement process, which helps to achieve the best value for the government and promotes fairness and transparency in contracting. The competition advocate is responsible for advocating for full and open competition, identifying and eliminating barriers to competition, and ensuring that contracting officers have access to the necessary resources and training to promote competition.Rate this question:
-
- 32.
(206) The advocate for competition prepares and submits an annual report to the agency senior procurement executive describing new initiatives
- A.
Required to limit competition.
- B.
Required to increase the acquisition of commercial items.
- C.
Required to increase the acquisition of non-commercial items
- D.
To ensure non-salient characteristics are included in requirements..
Correct Answer
B. Required to increase the acquisition of commercial items.Explanation
The correct answer is "required to increase the acquisition of commercial items." This is because the advocate for competition is preparing and submitting an annual report to the agency senior procurement executive, and the report is describing new initiatives that are required to increase the acquisition of commercial items. This suggests that the advocate is focused on promoting competition and increasing the acquisition of commercial items in the procurement process.Rate this question:
-
- 33.
(206) Which is not a factor in determining competitive procedures?
- A.
Micro-purchases.
- B.
Market conditions.
- C.
Support of existing systems.
- D.
End of fiscal year constraints
Correct Answer
D. End of fiscal year constraintsExplanation
End of fiscal year constraints are not a factor in determining competitive procedures. Competitive procedures are typically determined based on factors such as market conditions, support of existing systems, and the consideration of micro-purchases. However, the end of the fiscal year does not directly impact the decision-making process for competitive procedures.Rate this question:
-
- 34.
(206) All of the following are examples of competitive procedures except
- A.
Sealed bids
- B.
Two-step sealed bidding.
- C.
Brand-name requirements.
- D.
Competitive proposals.
Correct Answer
C. Brand-name requirements.Explanation
The question asks for an example of a non-competitive procedure. Sealed bids, two-step sealed bidding, and competitive proposals are all examples of competitive procedures where multiple bidders can participate. However, brand-name requirements do not involve competition as they specify a particular brand or product, limiting the options available to bidders. Therefore, brand-name requirements are not considered a competitive procedure.Rate this question:
-
- 35.
(206) Which of the following exceptions to full and open competition must be supported by a determination and finding (D&F)?
- A.
Section 8(a) competition.
- B.
Set aside for small business concerns
- C.
Establishing or maintaining alternative sources.
- D.
Set aside for local firms during a major disaster or emergency
Correct Answer
C. Establishing or maintaining alternative sources.Explanation
Establishing or maintaining alternative sources is an exception to full and open competition that must be supported by a determination and finding (D&F). This means that if an agency wants to award a contract to a specific source without competition, they must provide a written justification explaining why it is necessary to establish or maintain alternative sources for the procurement. This exception allows agencies to ensure a reliable supply chain or to maintain competition in the marketplace.Rate this question:
-
- 36.
(206) What action should a contracting officer (CO) take if only one acceptable offer is received from a responsible small business concern?
- A.
Cancel the requirement.
- B.
Make an award to that firm.
- C.
Dissolve the small business set-aside
- D.
Resolicit using full and open competition.
Correct Answer
B. Make an award to that firm.Explanation
If only one acceptable offer is received from a responsible small business concern, the contracting officer should make an award to that firm. This is because the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) states that if only one offer is received in response to a small business set-aside, the contracting officer may make an award to that firm if the price is reasonable. This promotes the goal of supporting small businesses and encourages competition within the small business sector.Rate this question:
-
- 37.
(206) In what situation would purchases automatically be reserved for small business concerns?
- A.
Less or equal to the micro-purchase threshold.
- B.
Between the micro-purchase threshold and the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT).
- C.
Between the SAT and simplified procedures for certain commercial items amount.
- D.
Above the simplified procedures for certain commercial items amount.
Correct Answer
B. Between the micro-purchase threshold and the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT).Explanation
Purchases are automatically reserved for small business concerns when they fall between the micro-purchase threshold and the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT). This means that if the purchase amount is greater than the micro-purchase threshold but less than or equal to the SAT, it must be set aside for small businesses. This is done to promote and support small businesses by giving them opportunities to compete for government contracts within a certain price range.Rate this question:
-
- 38.
(206) What Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) Part 6 exception satisfies the requirement for sole-source and brand-name justifications?
- A.
Public interest
- B.
National security.
- C.
Unusual and compelling urgency.
- D.
Only one responsible source will satisfy agency requirements.
Correct Answer
D. Only one responsible source will satisfy agency requirements.Explanation
The correct answer is "Only one responsible source will satisfy agency requirements." This exception under FAR Part 6 allows for sole-source and brand-name justifications when there is only one source that can meet the agency's requirements. In such cases, the agency does not need to go through the competitive bidding process and can directly award the contract to the responsible source. This exception is applicable when there are no other alternatives available and the agency can justify the sole-source procurement.Rate this question:
-
- 39.
(206) At what dollar amount is a streamlined acquisition strategy summary (SASS) required?
- A.
Between the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) and $10M.
- B.
Between the micro-purchase threshold and the SAT.
- C.
Between $150,000 and $650,000
- D.
$650,000 and above.
Correct Answer
A. Between the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) and $10M.Explanation
A streamlined acquisition strategy summary (SASS) is required for acquisitions that fall between the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) and $10M. This means that any acquisition with a dollar amount that is greater than the SAT but less than or equal to $10M will require a SASS. This summary helps to streamline the acquisition process and ensure that it is conducted efficiently and effectively.Rate this question:
-
- 40.
(207) Which is not a reason why a customer would want to limit competition?
- A.
Sole-source.
- B.
Brand-name.
- C.
Single source.
- D.
Customer preferred
Correct Answer
D. Customer preferredExplanation
The reason "Customer preferred" is not a reason why a customer would want to limit competition is because it implies that the customer has a preference for a specific brand or supplier. However, limiting competition typically involves reducing the number of options available to the customer, which goes against the idea of customer preference. Therefore, "Customer preferred" does not align with the concept of limiting competition.Rate this question:
-
- 41.
(207) The difference between a brand-name requirement and single-source requirement is that the brand-name requirement
- A.
Can be provided by multiple sources whereas a single source is actually the purchase of one item
- B.
Can only be provided by only one source and a single source is actually a sole-source requirement
- C.
Is used for purchases under $25,000 whereas single source or one company can fill sole-source requirements.
- D.
Can be provided by multiple sources whereas single source or one company can only fill solesource requirements.
Correct Answer
D. Can be provided by multiple sources whereas single source or one company can only fill solesource requirements.Explanation
The explanation for the given correct answer is that a brand-name requirement can be fulfilled by multiple sources, meaning that different companies can provide the same product or service under that brand name. On the other hand, a single-source requirement means that only one specific company or source can fulfill that requirement. Therefore, a brand-name requirement allows for competition and multiple options, while a single-source requirement restricts the choice to one company or source.Rate this question:
-
- 42.
(207) Brand-name justifications should describe unique capabilities and
- A.
At least three suggested sources.
- B.
The wing commander’s preference.
- C.
The impact on the mission if substituted.
- D.
Alternative brands that may be considered.
Correct Answer
C. The impact on the mission if substituted.Explanation
Brand-name justifications should describe unique capabilities and the impact on the mission if substituted. This means that when justifying the use of a specific brand, it is important to highlight the unique features or capabilities that set it apart from other brands. Additionally, it is crucial to explain how substituting the brand could potentially affect the mission. This ensures that the chosen brand is necessary and essential for the successful completion of the mission.Rate this question:
-
- 43.
(207) Who has the ultimate responsibility for satisfying statutory requirements of a sole-source or brand-name justification?
- A.
Technical expert.
- B.
Contracting officer (CO).
- C.
Competition advocate.
- D.
Requiring activity’s unit commander
Correct Answer
B. Contracting officer (CO).Explanation
The contracting officer (CO) is responsible for satisfying statutory requirements of a sole-source or brand-name justification. As the individual responsible for managing the contracting process, the CO is in charge of ensuring that all procurement actions adhere to legal and regulatory requirements. This includes justifying the use of a sole-source or brand-name procurement method when necessary. The CO must ensure that the justification is valid and properly documented, taking into account factors such as cost, availability, and technical expertise. The technical expert, competition advocate, and requiring activity's unit commander may provide input and support, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the CO.Rate this question:
-
- 44.
(207) Within how many days after contract award must a justification and approval (J&A) be made available to the public through the government-wide point of entry (GPE)?
- A.
7
- B.
14
- C.
30
- D.
45
Correct Answer
B. 14Explanation
Within 14 days after contract award, a justification and approval (J&A) must be made available to the public through the government-wide point of entry (GPE). This is important to ensure transparency and accountability in government contracting processes. By making the J&A available to the public, it allows for scrutiny and oversight, helping to prevent any potential misuse of funds or unethical practices.Rate this question:
-
- 45.
(208) Which statute requires performance and payment bonds for any domestic construction contract expected to exceed $150,000?
- A.
40 United States Code (USC), Chapter 31, Subchapter II, Bonds.
- B.
Competition in Contracting Act.
- C.
Wage Rate Requirements (Construction).
- D.
Contracts for materials, supplies, articles, and equipment exceeding $15,000.
Correct Answer
A. 40 United States Code (USC), Chapter 31, Subchapter II, Bonds. -
- 46.
(208) The penal amount of a performance bond is based on what percentage of the contract price?
- A.
10
- B.
20
- C.
50
- D.
100
Correct Answer
D. 100Explanation
The penal amount of a performance bond is based on 100% of the contract price. This means that if the contractor fails to fulfill their obligations as stated in the contract, they will be liable to pay the full contract price as a penalty. This ensures that the owner of the project is protected financially in case the contractor fails to complete the project or does not meet the specified requirements.Rate this question:
-
- 47.
(208) When the clause Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) 52.228–5, Insurance-Work on a Government Installation, is included in a contract, the contracting officer (CO) requests and receives proof of insurance
- A.
Before the contractor begins work.
- B.
With the offerors bid or proposal.
- C.
Within seven days after work begins
- D.
Within 10 days after work begins
Correct Answer
A. Before the contractor begins work.Explanation
When the clause Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) 52.228-5, Insurance-Work on a Government Installation, is included in a contract, the contracting officer (CO) requests and receives proof of insurance before the contractor begins work. This means that the CO needs to ensure that the contractor has the necessary insurance coverage in place before they start working on the government installation.Rate this question:
-
- 48.
(208) When a contractor is required to obtain insurance for work on a government installation, the minimum acceptable insurance coverage for employer’s liability is
- A.
$20,000
- B.
$100,000
- C.
$200,000
- D.
$500,000
Correct Answer
B. $100,000Explanation
The minimum acceptable insurance coverage for employer's liability when a contractor is required to obtain insurance for work on a government installation is $100,000. This coverage amount is determined to ensure that the contractor has adequate financial protection in case of any employee injuries or accidents that may occur during the project. It is important for the contractor to have this coverage to fulfill their legal and financial obligations towards their employees and to mitigate any potential liabilities.Rate this question:
-
- 49.
(209) A separate synopsis and solicitation must be issued using the Standard Form (SF) 1449 when all of the following conditions are present except
- A.
The acquisition is expected to exceed the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT).
- B.
A paper delivery or performance schedule is used.
- C.
A paper solicitation or contract is being used.
- D.
Streamlined procedures are being used.
Correct Answer
D. Streamlined procedures are being used.Explanation
A separate synopsis and solicitation must be issued using the Standard Form (SF) 1449 when all of the following conditions are present except when streamlined procedures are being used. This means that if streamlined procedures are being used, a separate synopsis and solicitation using SF 1449 is not required. The other conditions listed, such as the acquisition exceeding the simplified acquisition threshold, using a paper delivery or performance schedule, and using a paper solicitation or contract, all require a separate synopsis and solicitation using SF 1449.Rate this question:
-
- 50.
(209) To the maximum extent practicable, public law requires that contracts for the acquisition of commercial items include only those clauses required to implement provisions of law or executive orders, or those clauses
- A.
Required by the apparent low bidder for acceptance of offer
- B.
Determined to be consistent with customary government practice
- C.
Determined to be consistent with customary commercial practice
- D.
Required by public law governing acquisition of than commercial items
Correct Answer
C. Determined to be consistent with customary commercial practiceExplanation
Public law requires that contracts for the acquisition of commercial items include only those clauses determined to be consistent with customary commercial practice. This means that the clauses included in the contract should align with the usual practices followed in the commercial industry. These clauses are necessary to ensure that the contract is fair and reasonable, and that both parties are operating under standard industry practices. By including only clauses consistent with customary commercial practice, the contract can be more efficient and effective in achieving its intended purpose.Rate this question:
-
Quiz Review Timeline +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
-
Current Version
-
Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Feb 28, 2020Quiz Created by
Antonio Ortega
- Acceleration Quizzes
- Acoustic Quizzes
- Chapters Of Physics Quizzes
- Distance Quizzes
- Electrolysis Quizzes
- ESD Quizzes
- Frequency Quizzes
- Light And Reflection Quizzes
- Logic Gate Quizzes
- Magnetic Field Quizzes
- Momentum Quizzes
- Motion Quizzes
- Online Physics Quizzes
- Optics Quizzes
- Physics Of Sound Quizzes
- Practice Physics Quizzes
- Properties Of Matter Quizzes
- Quantum Quizzes
- Quantum Physics Quizzes
- Reflection Quizzes
- Refraction Quizzes
- Secondary 3 Physics Quizzes
- Sound Quizzes
- Speed Of Light Quizzes
- Thermodynamics Quizzes
- Velocity Quizzes
- Work And Energy Quizzes
Back to top