MCQ Snacks "Mini Gt- 1 " ( 05/10/2019)
First mini GT of 2019-20 session by MCQ SNACKS
Total MCQs : 100
Total Time: 75 minutes
Marking: +4/-1
All the very best
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- 1.
Anaesthetic implication in Gaisbock’s syndrome is?
- A.
Postoperative respiratory failure
- B.
Risk of deep vein thrombosis
- C.
Renal dysfunction
- D.
Risk of aspiration
Correct Answer
B. Risk of deep vein thrombosisExplanation
Gaisbock’s syndrome is polycythemia due to reduction in plasma volume.
Anaesthetic implications include cardiovascular problems and risk of deep vein thrombosis.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Facial nerve exits the skull via?
- A.
Foramen ovale
- B.
Stylomastoid foramen
- C.
Foramen rotundum
- D.
Jugular foramen
Correct Answer
B. Stylomastoid foramenExplanation
After traversing a short distance in the facial canal, facial nerve exits the skull via stylomastoid foramen and subdivides to supply the facial muscles.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Choose the incorrect statement about growth factors or genes in embryogenesis
- A.
NODAL- formation of primitive streak and mesoderm
- B.
Homeobox- gives craniocaudal direction
- C.
TGF – formation of intracellular matrix
- D.
None
Correct Answer
C. TGF – formation of intracellular matrixExplanation
TGF – formation of extracellular matrixRate this question:
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- 4.
Below image showing “ Nut cracker phenomena” . Identify the artery marked with the red arrow
- A.
Superior mesenteric artery
- B.
Inferior mesenteric artery
- C.
Coeliac trunk
- D.
Lumbar artery
Correct Answer
A. Superior mesenteric arteryExplanation
The correct answer is the superior mesenteric artery. The image shows a phenomenon known as the "nutcracker phenomenon," which refers to the compression of the left renal vein between the superior mesenteric artery and the aorta. This compression can result in symptoms such as hematuria, flank pain, and varicocele. Therefore, the artery marked with the red arrow in the image is the superior mesenteric artery.Rate this question:
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- 5.
The enzyme used for the mapping of hypersensitive sites in recombinant DNA research is?
- A.
DNase I
- B.
DNA Gyrase
- C.
DNA Ligase
- D.
DNA Polymerase
Correct Answer
A. DNase IExplanation
DNA ligase is used for joining of DNA molecules.
DNA polymerase I is used for synthesis of double stranded cDNA.
Polynucleotide kinase is used for T-32 end labeling of DNA or RNA.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Products from Tryptophan are all except
- A.
Niacin
- B.
Serotonin
- C.
Melatonin
- D.
Melanin
Correct Answer
D. MelaninExplanation
Melanin produced from tyrosineRate this question:
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- 7.
The enzyme catalyzing the production of orotidylic acid is?
- A.
Dihydro orotase
- B.
Aspartyl transcarbamoylase
- C.
Dihydro orotate dehydrogenase
- D.
Orotate phosphoribosyl transferase
Correct Answer
D. Orotate phosphoribosyl transferaseExplanation
In the de novo synthesis of pyrimidines, the enzyme aspartyl transcarbamoylase catalyses the combination of carbamoyl phosphate and aspartate to form carbamoyl aspartate.
Dihydro orotase catalyses the production of dihydro orotic acid.
Dihydro orotate dehydrogenase catalyses the production of orotic acid from dihydro orotic acid.
Orotate phosphoribosyl transferase is the enzyme catalyzing the synthesis of orotidylic acid (Orotidine 5′-monophosphate).Rate this question:
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- 8.
True about hypermagnesemia are all except?
- A.
Hypotension
- B.
Bradycardia
- C.
Lethargy and confusion
- D.
Exaggerated deep tendon reflexes
Correct Answer
D. Exaggerated deep tendon reflexesExplanation
Loss of deep tenson reflexes is the early feature.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Neoplastic dyskeratosis is seen in?
- A.
Darier's disease
- B.
Warty dyskeratoma
- C.
Familial benign pemphigus
- D.
Actinic keratosis
Correct Answer
D. Actinic keratosisExplanation
Benign dyskeratosis is seen in Darier’s disease, Warty dyskeratoma and Familial benign pemphigus.
Neoplastic dyskeratosis is seen in Bowen’s disease, Squamous cell carcinoma and Actinic keratosisRate this question:
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- 10.
Choose the incorrect statement
- A.
Following skin condition is caused by elemental Molybdenum deficiency
- B.
Dory Flop sign is seen in syphilis
- C.
Forcheimer sign is seen in Rubella
- D.
Hanging curtain sign is seen in Pityriasis rosea
Correct Answer
A. Following skin condition is caused by elemental Molybdenum deficiencyExplanation
Image is showing Acrodermatitis enteropathica caused by elemental ZINC deficiencyRate this question:
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- 11.
Hitzelberger’s sign is?
- A.
Reduced corneal sensitivity
- B.
Hypoesthesia of the posterior meatal wall
- C.
Paraesthesia of face
- D.
Delayed blink reflex
Correct Answer
B. Hypoesthesia of the posterior meatal wallExplanation
Hitzelberger’s sign is seen in acoustic neuroma.
It occurs due to involvement of the 7th cranial nerve.
There is early involvement of the sensory fibers which causes hypoesthesia of the posterior meatal wall.
Paraesthesia of face and reduced corneal sensitivity occurs due to involvement of 5th cranial nerve.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Pain in tonsillar fossa and upper neck is characteristic of?
- A.
Eagle's syndrome
- B.
Apert syndrome
- C.
Sickler syndrome
- D.
Usher syndrome
Correct Answer
A. Eagle's syndromeExplanation
Eagle’s syndrome is characterised by pain in tonsillar fossa and upper neck.
Pain radiates of ipsilateral ear.
There is aggravation of pain on swallowing.
It is caused by calcification of stylohyoid ligament / elongation of styloid processRate this question:
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- 13.
Danbury tremor is seen in?
- A.
Mercury poisoning
- B.
Iron poisoning
- C.
Lead poisoning
- D.
Arsenic poisoning
Correct Answer
A. Mercury poisoningExplanation
Danbury tremor is a classical and consistent manifestation of mercury poisoning.
It is a coarse intentional tremor interspersed with jerky movements.
It begins in the hand and progresses to lips, tongue, arms and legs.Rate this question:
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- 14.
‘Paradox gun’ is a?
- A.
Shot gun
- B.
Revolver
- C.
Automated pistol
- D.
Machine gun
Correct Answer
A. Shot gunExplanation
Some shotguns have a small portion of their bore near their muzzle end rifled.
There are called paradox guns.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Choose the incorrect statement
- A.
Rose-Waaler test is a hemagglutination test
- B.
Done in Rheumatoid arthritis
- C.
RA factor can agglutinate red cells coated with globulins
- D.
None
Correct Answer
D. NoneExplanation
The given answer is "None" because all the statements provided are correct. The Rose-Waaler test is indeed a hemagglutination test that is performed in Rheumatoid arthritis. The RA factor, which is an autoantibody, can cause the agglutination of red cells that are coated with globulins. Therefore, there is no incorrect statement among the options provided.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Brazilian purpuric fever is caused by?
- A.
Hemophilus hemolyticus
- B.
Hemophilus aegypticus
- C.
Hemophilus aerophilus
- D.
Hemophilus parainfluenzae
Correct Answer
B. Hemophilus aegypticusExplanation
Brazilian purpuric fever is caused by Haemophilus aegyptius.
It is characterised by conjunctivitis which proceeds to fulminant septicemia in infants and children.
There is high fatality.
It was first recognized in Brazil in 1984.Rate this question:
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- 17.
True about Noroviruses are all except?
- A.
Can spread through air
- B.
Single stranded RNA virus
- C.
Reoviridae family
- D.
Causes gastroenteritis
Correct Answer
C. Reoviridae familyExplanation
Noroviruses are single stranded RNA viruses.
They belong to the Caliciviridae family.
They are responsible for 50% of the gastroenteritis outbreaks worldwide.
It usually spread via faecal-oral route.
But aerosols of the virus if inhaled, settle in the pharynx and is later swallowed.
Researchers at the Université Laval, Québec, Canada have found out that the aerosolized virus preserved its infectivity and integrity during in vitro aerosol studies.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Which statement is false about following lesion?
- A.
Seen in early stages of Lyme disease
- B.
Spreads by tick bite
- C.
Caused by Borrelia recurrentis
- D.
Caused by a spirochaete
Correct Answer
C. Caused by Borrelia recurrentisExplanation
Erythema chronicum migrans is a rash often seen in the early stages of Lyme disease.
It is caused by the spirochete Borrelia burgdorferi.
Lyme disease is a zoonosis which is spread to humans by tick bite
The rash appears a few days after the tick biteRate this question:
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- 19.
Tumour secreting placental alkaline phosphatase is?
- A.
Arrhenoblastoma
- B.
Carcinoid tumors
- C.
Dysgerminoma
- D.
Granulosa cell tumor
Correct Answer
C. DysgerminomaExplanation
Dysgerminoma corresponds to seminoma of the testis.
It is usually seen in young women or children.
It secretes placental alkaline phosphatase.
It does not secrete male of female sex hormones.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What factor influences most the pregnancy rate with intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI)?
- A.
Women's age
- B.
The quality of sperm
- C.
Site of sperm retrieval
- D.
Length of infertility
Correct Answer
A. Women's ageExplanation
Women's age is the most influential factor on the pregnancy rate with intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI). This is because a woman's age directly affects her fertility and the quality of her eggs. As women age, the number and quality of their eggs decline, making it more difficult to achieve a successful pregnancy. Therefore, the older a woman is, the lower her chances of getting pregnant through ICSI.Rate this question:
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- 21.
All are features of mullerian agenesis except
- A.
Absent ovary
- B.
Absent uterus
- C.
Absent vagina
- D.
Absent cervix
Correct Answer
A. Absent ovaryExplanation
Mullerian agenesis, also known as Mayer-Rokitansky-Küster-Hauser syndrome, is a congenital condition characterized by the absence or underdevelopment of the uterus, vagina, cervix, and fallopian tubes. However, the ovaries are typically present and functional in individuals with this syndrome. Therefore, the absence of the ovary is not a feature of Mullerian agenesis, making it the correct answer in this case.Rate this question:
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- 22.
WHO criteria for near miss maternal mortality include all except
- A.
Requirement of vasoactive drugs
- B.
Shock
- C.
Oxygen saturation of < 90% for more than 60 minutes
- D.
Acute thrombocytopenia, platelet counts < 1,00,000
Correct Answer
C. Oxygen saturation of < 90% for more than 60 minutesExplanation
The WHO criteria for near miss maternal mortality include various indicators that suggest severe maternal morbidity. These indicators include the requirement of vasoactive drugs, shock, and acute thrombocytopenia with platelet counts below 1,00,000. However, oxygen saturation of less than 90% for more than 60 minutes is not included in the WHO criteria for near miss maternal mortality. This means that a prolonged period of low oxygen saturation alone does not meet the criteria for near miss maternal mortality according to the WHO.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Following logo represents?
- A.
National disaster management authority
- B.
National human rights authority
- C.
National council of unity and brotherhood
- D.
National defence academy
Correct Answer
A. National disaster management authorityExplanation
Headed by Prime ministerRate this question:
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- 24.
Identify the nodules in slit lamp
- A.
Lisch nodules
- B.
Koeppe nodules
- C.
Dalen Fuchs nodules
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Koeppe nodulesExplanation
KP at inner margin of iris seen in granulomatous anterior uveitisRate this question:
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- 25.
Which vitamin deficiency is most commonly seen in a pregnant mother who is on phenytoin therapy for epilepsy?
- A.
Vitamin B 6
- B.
Vitamin B 12
- C.
Folic acid
- D.
Vitamin A
Correct Answer
C. Folic acidExplanation
Folic acid absorption is decreased and its excretion is increased in those using phenytoin. Other vitamin deficiencies seen in phenytoin users : Vitamin D, Vitamin K. Hence pregnant woman on phenytoin should take folic acid, cholecalciferol and phytonadione supplements.Rate this question:
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- 26.
All of the following are seen in Favre-Goldmann syndrome except?
- A.
Ectopia lentis
- B.
Retinoschisis
- C.
Pigmentary changes similar to retinitis pigmentosa
- D.
Nyctalopia
Correct Answer
A. Ectopia lentisExplanation
Favre-Goldmann syndrome is an autosomal recessive condition.
It usually presents in childhood with nyctalopia.
Central and peripheral retinoschisis is present.
There is marked pigmentary changes similar to retinitis pigmentosa.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Following fundus picture is suggestive of?
- A.
Retinitis pigmentosa
- B.
Coat's disease
- C.
Diabetic retinopathy
- D.
Hypertensive retinopathy
Correct Answer
B. Coat's diseaseExplanation
Coats' disease, is a rare congenital, nonhereditary eye disorder, causing full or partial blindness, characterized by abnormal development of blood vessels behind the retina. Coats' disease can also fall under glaucoma.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Cogan’s syndrome is associated with?
- A.
Keratitis
- B.
Conjunctivitis
- C.
Myopia
- D.
Iritis
Correct Answer
A. KeratitisExplanation
Cogan’s syndrome is seen in middle aged adults.
The features include interstitial keratitis, acute tinnitus, vertigo and deafness.
Treatment is by usage of topical and systemic corticosteroids.
Early treatment is necessary to prevent permanent deafness and blindness.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which ocular condition is this?
- A.
Deep vascularization of cornea
- B.
Superficial vascularization of cornea
- C.
Subconjuctival hemorrhage
- D.
Artificial eye
Correct Answer
B. Superficial vascularization of corneaExplanation
ophtha, toughRate this question:
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- 30.
In case of reimplantation of an amputated digit, which of the following structures is fixed first?
- A.
Nerve
- B.
Bone
- C.
Vein
- D.
Artery
Correct Answer
B. BoneExplanation
Debride the area and clean the wound
Fixation of bone
Repair of extensor tendons
Repair of flexor tendons
Arterial repair
Nerve repair
Venous repair
Closure of the skin woundRate this question:
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- 31.
True statement about involucrum and sequestrum:
- A.
Involucrum is a piece of dead bone
- B.
Sequestrum is a sheath of new bone formation
- C.
Sequestrum is surrounded by involucrum
- D.
Involucrum is surrounded by sequestrum
Correct Answer
C. Sequestrum is surrounded by involucrumExplanation
The correct answer is that sequestrum is surrounded by involucrum. This means that when there is a piece of dead bone (sequestrum), it is encased or surrounded by a sheath of new bone formation (involucrum). This is a common occurrence in conditions such as osteomyelitis, where the body tries to isolate and contain the dead bone by forming new bone around it.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Identify the fracture in x ray
- A.
Malgaigne #
- B.
Jones #
- C.
Lisfranc #
- D.
None
Correct Answer
B. Jones #Explanation
# of fifth metatarsal of footRate this question:
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- 33.
All are true about separation anxiety disorder except:
- A.
The prevalence is 3.5% to 5.4%
- B.
Comorbidity is common
- C.
Prevalence is higher in girls
- D.
Average age of onset is 4 years
Correct Answer
D. Average age of onset is 4 yearsExplanation
Separation anxiety disorder is a common childhood anxiety disorder.
It has a prevalence is 3.5% to 5.4%.
It is more common in girls.
The average age of onset is 7.5 years.
Children have unrealistic worries about separation from a major attachment figure.
Comorbidity is common.
Usually present with school refusal and physical complaints related to anxiety.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which of the following is an X linked disease?
- A.
Friedrich's ataxia
- B.
Fabry's disease
- C.
Osteogenesis imperfecta
- D.
Cystic fibrosis
Correct Answer
B. Fabry's diseaseExplanation
Friedreich’s ataxia is an autosomal recessive disease.
Osteogenesis imperfecta is an autosomal dominant disease.
Cystic fibrosis is autosomal recessive.Rate this question:
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- 35.
A 37 year female Sheena Mehra gives birth to a male child at 31 weeks of gestation. Birth weight of the child was 1.8 kg. The baby cried immediately after birth. On giving routine care to the baby it was observed that baby was having 2 umbilical artery and 1 umbilical vein. Baby developed tachypnoe , subcostal retractions, intercostal retractions and moderate metabolic acidosis at 3 hours of life. spO2 was noted to be 84 % on 2 L supplemental Oxygen. The x ray of the baby was done. Suggest the diagnosis with history and x ray
- A.
Meconium aspiration syndrome
- B.
Hyaline membrane disease
- C.
Diaphragmatic hernia
- D.
Transient tachypnoea of newborn
Correct Answer
B. Hyaline membrane diseaseExplanation
Diffuse ground glass appearance in x ray and history is suggestive of hyaline membrane disease .Rate this question:
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- 36.
The most common type of total anomalous pulmonary venous connection is:
- A.
Supracardiac
- B.
Infracardiac
- C.
Mixed
- D.
All have same frequency in population
Correct Answer
A. SupracardiacExplanation
pedia , mediumRate this question:
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- 37.
The gene NPHS1 encodes?
- A.
Nephrin
- B.
Podocin
- C.
Both
- D.
None
Correct Answer
A. NephrinExplanation
NPHS1 was the first gene to be identified as the cause for focal segmental glomerulosclerosis.
This gene encodes the protein Nephrin, which is an important component of the slit diaphragm.
NPHS2 gene encodes the protein Podocin.Rate this question:
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- 38.
The enzyme deficient in Wolman disease is?
- A.
Aryl sulphatase A
- B.
Alpha galactosidase A
- C.
Galactosylceramidase
- D.
Acid lipase
Correct Answer
D. Acid lipaseExplanation
patho,easyRate this question:
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- 39.
Fibers shown in histo pathology slide is commonly seen in?
- A.
Meningioma
- B.
Pilocytic astrocytoma
- C.
Medullobalstoma
- D.
Rabies
Correct Answer
B. Pilocytic astrocytomaExplanation
Rosenthal fibers in pilocytic astrocytomaRate this question:
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- 40.
The most potent activators of naive T cells?
- A.
Eosinophil
- B.
Macrophages
- C.
B lymphocytes
- D.
Mature dendritic cells
Correct Answer
D. Mature dendritic cellsExplanation
Activation of T cells need 2 sets of signals:
1] T cell receptor complex (TCR with CD4+ or CD8+) on the T cells should bind with the Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) on the Antigen Presenting Cells (APC).
2] Non specific costimulatory signal due to the interaction of the costimulators present on the antigen presenting cells.
Mature dendritic cells have the highest number of costimulators.
Therefore, they are the most potent activators of naive T cells.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which of the following is the marker for granulocytic sarcoma?
- A.
CD 10
- B.
CD 13
- C.
CD 30
- D.
CD 33
Correct Answer
D. CD 33Explanation
CD 33 is the marker for granulocytic sarcoma. Granulocytic sarcoma, also known as chloroma or myeloid sarcoma, is a rare extramedullary tumor composed of immature myeloid cells. CD 33 is a cell surface marker that is typically expressed on myeloid cells, including granulocytes. Therefore, the presence of CD 33 can help identify and diagnose granulocytic sarcoma. CD 10, CD 13, and CD 30 are not specific markers for granulocytic sarcoma.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Pap smear finding is suggestive of?
- A.
Candida
- B.
Actinomycosis
- C.
HIV
- D.
HSV
Correct Answer
B. ActinomycosisExplanation
Fluffy cotton ball appearance in pap smear is characteristic of actinomycosisRate this question:
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- 43.
Which of the following is true regarding Maraviroc?
- A.
Bind to transmembrane glycoprotein
- B.
Not active orally
- C.
Targets the CXCR4 receptor
- D.
Impairs immune surveillance
Correct Answer
D. Impairs immune surveillanceExplanation
Maraviroc is a CCR5 receptor inhibitor.
It interferes with the attachment of HIV virus to the host cell.
It has no effect on the strains of HIV which are tropic for CXCR4 receptor.
It is given orally.
Impaired immune surveillance can result due to blocking of human chemokine receptor CCR5.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Most potent fluoroquinolone against Mycobacterium leprae is?
- A.
Levofloxacin
- B.
Ofloxacin
- C.
Moxifloxacin
- D.
Ciprofloxacin
Correct Answer
C. MoxifloxacinExplanation
Ciprofloxacin has poor activity against Mycobacterium leprae.
Ofloxacin, Pefloxacin, Moxifloxacin and Sparfloxacin have high level of activity against Mycobacterium leprae.
Among them, Moxifloxacin is the most potent.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Shortest acting non benzodiazepine hypnotic is?
- A.
Zaleplon
- B.
Zolpidem
- C.
Zopiclone
- D.
Eszoplicone
Correct Answer
A. ZaleplonExplanation
Zaleplon is the shortest acting non benzodiazepine hypnotic.
It has selective action on benzodiazepine receptors containing alpha 1 subunit.
It has rapid hepatic clearance with a half life of one hour.
Morning sedation is absent due to shortness of action.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Amylin analogue is
- A.
Sitagliptin
- B.
Liraglutide
- C.
Nateglinide
- D.
Pramlintide
Correct Answer
D. PramlintideExplanation
Amylin (Islet Amyloid Polypeptide) is produced by pancreatic beta cells.
Pramlintide is an amylin analogue.
It is given as subcutaneous injection before meals.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Which is a true statement regarding inhibin?
- A.
Increases the secretion of GnRH.
- B.
Molecular weight is between 5000 and 10,000
- C.
It is secreted by hypothalamus
- D.
It is a glycoprotein.
Correct Answer
D. It is a glycoprotein.Explanation
Inhibin is secreted by the sertoli cells in males and by the granulosa cells in females.
It inhibits the secretion of Gonadotrophin Releasing Hormone.
It is a glycoprotein with molecular weight between 10,000 and 30,000.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Regarding somatomedin, which is true?
- A.
Reduced glucose oxidation in fat
- B.
Increases chondrogenesis
- C.
Activity is increased in protein deficiency
- D.
Activity is increased by glucocorticoids
Correct Answer
B. Increases chondrogenesisExplanation
Somatomedin increases glucose oxidation in fat.
Activity of somatomedin is reduced by protein deficiency and glucocorticoids.
It has insulin like effect on tissues and causes lipolysis and increased glucose and amino acid transport by muscle.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Most important mechanism which gets triggered in the first few hours after large increase in salt and water intake is?
- A.
Small increase in arterial pressure
- B.
Suppression of angiotensin II formation
- C.
Activation of low pressure receptor reflexes
- D.
Stimulation of natriuretic systems
Correct Answer
C. Activation of low pressure receptor reflexesExplanation
As sodium intake is increased, sodium output initially lags slightly behind the intake.
This time delay causes small increase in cumulative sodium balance.
This leads to slight increase in extracellular fluid volume.
This increase in extracellular fluid volume triggers various mechanisms in the body to increase sodium excretion.
On intake of large quantities of salt and water, signals from the stretch receptors of the right atrium and the pulmonary blood vessels go to the brain stem.
This will inhibit sympathetic nerve activity to the kidney.
This in turn leads to decrease in tubular sodium reabsorption.
This mechanism is most important in the first few hours after large increase in salt and water intake.Rate this question:
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- 50.
40 year old female came to the OPD with complaints of with depressed mood, insomnia, loss of appetite and lack of interest in surroundings for the past 1 year. These symptoms appeared after loss in a business deal 1 year ago. Which is correct regarding the management?
- A.
Selective Serotonin Re uptake Inhibitors (SSRI’s) are the most effective drugs
- B.
Antidepressants should be given based on the side effect profile
- C.
No treatment is required as it is due to loss in a business deal
- D.
Combination therapy with 2 or more antidepressants
Correct Answer
B. Antidepressants should be given based on the side effect profile -
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