# Sm Consultants, Campus Recruitment Drive

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| By Siddharth Mohanty
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Siddharth Mohanty
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 95
Questions: 55 | Attempts: 95  Settings  All questions are of Multiple Choice type
Total Number of questions is 55
Total time allowed is 60 minutes
+4 marks for every correct answer
-1 marks for every incorrect answer
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• 1.

### What are the values of digits A and B if the number 79A856776B is divisible by 8 and 9?

• A.

1,0

• B.

9,6

• C.

9,8

• D.

None of these

C. 9,8
Explanation
The number is divisible by 8 if the last three digits are divisible by 8. In this case, B can be any number from 0 to 9. The number is divisible by 9 if the sum of its digits is divisible by 9. The sum of the digits in the given number is 7+9+A+8+5+6+7+7+6+B = 55+A+B. For this sum to be divisible by 9, A and B must be 9 and 8 respectively. Therefore, the values of digits A and B are 9 and 8.

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• 2.

### A piece of string is 40 cm long. It is cut into 3 pieces. The longest piece is 3 times as long as the middle-size piece and the shortest piece is 23 cm shorter than the longest piece. Find the length of the shortest piece

• A.

27

• B.

5

• C.

4

• D.

9

C. 4
Explanation
Let's assume the length of the middle-sized piece is x cm.
According to the given information, the longest piece is 3 times as long as the middle-sized piece, so its length is 3x cm.
The shortest piece is 23 cm shorter than the longest piece, so its length is (3x - 23) cm.
We know that the sum of the lengths of all three pieces is 40 cm.
Therefore, we can write the equation as: x + 3x + (3x - 23) = 40
Simplifying the equation, we get 7x - 23 = 40
Adding 23 to both sides, we get 7x = 63
Dividing both sides by 7, we get x = 9
So, the length of the shortest piece is (3x - 23) = (3*9 - 23) = 4 cm.

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• 3.

### Two boats, travelling at 5 km/hr and 10 km/hr head directly towards each other. They begin at a distance of 20km from each other. How far apart are they(in km) one minute before they collided?

• A.

1/12

• B.

1/6

• C.

1/4

• D.

1/3

C. 1/4
Explanation
The two boats are traveling towards each other at a combined speed of 15 km/hr (5 km/hr + 10 km/hr). In one minute, they would cover a distance of 15/60 = 1/4 km. Therefore, they would be 1/4 km apart one minute before they collided.

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• 4.

### 40% of the employees of a certain company are men and 75% of men earn more than Rs 25000 per year. If 45% of company’s employees earn more than Rs 25000 per year, what fraction of the women employed by the company earn Rs 25000 per year or less?

• A.

2/11

• B.

1/4

• C.

1/3

• D.

3/4

D. 3/4
Explanation
The question states that 40% of the employees are men and 75% of men earn more than Rs 25000 per year. This means that 60% of the employees are women. If 45% of the total employees earn more than Rs 25000 per year, then the remaining 55% earn Rs 25000 per year or less. Since 60% of the employees are women, it can be inferred that 55% of the women earn Rs 25000 per year or less. Therefore, the fraction of women employed by the company who earn Rs 25000 per year or less is 55% divided by 60%, which simplifies to 11/12 or 3/4.

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• 5.

### If a simply supported beam of span l carries over its full span a load varying linearly from zero at either end to w/unit length at midspan, then maximum bending moment occurs at

• A.

Quarter points and is equal to wl2/8

• B.

Quarter points and is equal to wl2/12

• C.

Midspan and is equal to wl2/8

• D.

​​​​​​​Midspan and is equal to wl2/12

D. ​​​​​​​Midspan and is equal to wl2/12
Explanation
The maximum bending moment in a simply supported beam occurs at the midspan. This is because the load is varying linearly from zero at either end to w/unit length at midspan. At the midspan, the load is at its maximum value, causing the maximum bending moment. The formula for calculating the maximum bending moment is wl^2/12, where w is the load and l is the span of the beam. Therefore, the correct answer is Midspan and is equal to wl^2/12.

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• 6.

### Young’s modulus of elasticity for a perfectly rigid body is

• A.

Zero

• B.

Unity

• C.

Infinity

• D.

None of these

C. Infinity
Explanation
The correct answer is "Infinity" because Young's modulus of elasticity measures the stiffness of a material. A perfectly rigid body has an infinite stiffness, meaning it cannot be deformed under any applied force. Therefore, its Young's modulus is infinity.

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• 7.

### Slenderness ratio of a 5m long column hinged at both ends and having a circular cross section with diameter 16 cm is

• A.

31.25

• B.

62.5

• C.

100

• D.

125

D. 125
Explanation
The slenderness ratio of a column is defined as the ratio of its effective length to its least radius of gyration. In this case, the effective length of the column is 5m and the least radius of gyration can be calculated using the formula r = √(I/A), where I is the moment of inertia and A is the cross-sectional area. For a circular cross section, the moment of inertia is πr^4/4 and the area is πr^2. Plugging in the given diameter of 16 cm, the radius is 8 cm. Therefore, the least radius of gyration is 8 cm and the slenderness ratio is 5m / 0.08m = 125.

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• 8.

### A simply supported beam with rectangular cross section is subjected to central concentrated load. If the width and depth of the beam are doubled, then the deflection at the center of the beam will be reduced to

• A.

50%

• B.

25%

• C.

12.5%

• D.

6.25%

D. 6.25%
Explanation
When the width and depth of a simply supported beam with a rectangular cross-section are doubled, the moment of inertia of the beam increases by a factor of 16. The deflection of a beam is inversely proportional to the moment of inertia. Therefore, when the moment of inertia increases by a factor of 16, the deflection at the center of the beam will decrease by a factor of 1/16. This corresponds to a reduction of 6.25%.

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• 9.

### After casting, an ordinary cement concrete on drying

• A.

Shrinks

• B.

Expands

• C.

Remains unchanged

• D.

Can Expand or Shrink

A. Shrinks
Explanation
When ordinary cement concrete is cast and left to dry, it undergoes a process called shrinkage. This means that it contracts and reduces in size. This shrinkage occurs due to the loss of moisture from the concrete, causing it to become compact and decrease in volume. Therefore, the correct answer is that the concrete shrinks after drying.

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• 10.

### Gypsum is added in cement for

• A.

Setting

• B.

Cementing

• C.

Retarding the Setting

• D.

Heat of hydration

C. Retarding the Setting
Explanation
Gypsum is added in cement to retard the setting process. This means that it slows down the hardening of the cement, allowing more time for it to be properly mixed, poured, and shaped before it hardens completely. This is particularly useful in situations where longer workability is required, such as in hot weather or for large construction projects. By retarding the setting, gypsum helps to ensure that the cement can be effectively used and manipulated before it becomes too rigid.

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• 11.

### In the limit state design method of concrete structures, the recommended partial material safety factor (γm) for steel as per IS 456:2000 is

• A.

1.5

• B.

1.15

• C.

1

• D.

0.87

B. 1.15
Explanation
The recommended partial material safety factor (γm) for steel in the limit state design method of concrete structures according to IS 456:2000 is 1.15. This factor is used to account for uncertainties and variations in material properties, construction processes, and loadings, ensuring a sufficient level of safety in the design of concrete structures. A value of 1.15 implies that a safety margin of 15% is applied to the strength of steel used in the design calculations.

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• 12.

### In an under-reinforced concrete beam

• A.

Actual depth of neutral axis is less than the critical depth of neutral axis

• B.

Moment of resistance is less than that of balanced section

• C.

Both of these

• D.

None of these

C. Both of these
Explanation
In an under-reinforced concrete beam, both of these statements are true. The actual depth of the neutral axis is less than the critical depth of the neutral axis, which means that the concrete is not able to resist the tensile forces effectively. Additionally, the moment of resistance is less than that of a balanced section, indicating that the beam is not able to withstand bending moments as well as it should. Therefore, both of these factors contribute to the beam being under-reinforced.

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• 13.

### In a reinforced concrete retaining wall, a shear key is provided if

• A.

Shear stress in the vertical stem is excessive

• B.

Shear force in the toe slab is more than that in heel slab

• C.

Retaining wall is not safe against sliding

• D.

Retaining wall is not safe against overturning

C. Retaining wall is not safe against sliding
Explanation
A shear key is provided in a reinforced concrete retaining wall when the wall is not safe against sliding. A shear key is a horizontal projection or groove provided at the base of the wall, which helps to increase the resistance against horizontal forces that could cause the wall to slide. By providing a shear key, the retaining wall becomes more stable and is able to resist the sliding forces that may act on it. This helps to ensure the overall safety and stability of the retaining wall structure.

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• 14.

### In an RCC beam, side face reinforcement is provided if its depth exceeds

• A.

300 mm

• B.

500 mm

• C.

700 mm

• D.

750 mm

D. 750 mm
Explanation
In an RCC beam, side face reinforcement is provided if its depth exceeds 750 mm. This is because as the depth of the beam increases, there is a higher likelihood of shear forces acting on the side faces. Side face reinforcement helps to resist these shear forces and prevent failure of the beam. Therefore, it is necessary to provide side face reinforcement when the depth exceeds 750 mm to ensure the structural integrity of the beam.

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• 15.

### In a column, splices should be provided at

• A.

The floor levels

• B.

The mid height of columns

• C.

The beam-column joints

• D.

​​​​​​​One fourth height of columns

D. ​​​​​​​One fourth height of columns
Explanation
Splices in columns are important to ensure continuity and strength in the structural system. Placing splices at one fourth height of columns is a common practice because it helps distribute the load evenly and avoids concentration of stress at a single point. This location also allows for easy access during construction and maintenance. It is important to note that splices should not be provided at floor levels or mid-height of columns as these locations can lead to structural weaknesses and potential failure.

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• 16.

### The 2 criteria for the determination of allowable bearing capacity of a foundation are

• A.

Tension failure and compression failure

• B.

Tension failure and settlement

• C.

Bond failure and shear failure

• D.

​​​​​​​Shear failure and settlement

D. ​​​​​​​Shear failure and settlement
Explanation
The allowable bearing capacity of a foundation is determined by considering two criteria: shear failure and settlement. Shear failure refers to the failure of the soil due to excessive shear stress, while settlement refers to the amount of vertical movement or compression the foundation can experience without causing structural damage. These two criteria are important in determining the maximum load that a foundation can safely support without failure or excessive settlement.

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• 17.

### The ultimate bearing capacity of a soil is 300 kN/m2. The depth of a foundation is 1m and unit weight of soil is 20 kN/m3. Choosing a safety factor of 2.5, the net safe bearing capacity is

• A.

100 kN/m2

• B.

​​​​​​112 kN/m2

• C.

80 kN/m2

• D.

100.5 kN/m2

B. ​​​​​​112 kN/m2
Explanation
The ultimate bearing capacity of a soil is the maximum load that the soil can support without failure. In this case, it is given as 300 kN/m2. The net safe bearing capacity is calculated by dividing the ultimate bearing capacity by the safety factor. The safety factor is chosen to provide a margin of safety against failure. In this case, the safety factor is 2.5. Therefore, the net safe bearing capacity is 300 kN/m2 divided by 2.5, which equals 120 kN/m2. However, the question asks for the net safe bearing capacity, which is the net safe bearing capacity minus the unit weight of the soil. The unit weight of the soil is given as 20 kN/m3, and since the depth of the foundation is 1m, the unit weight of the soil can be converted to kN/m2 by multiplying it by the depth. Therefore, the net safe bearing capacity is 120 kN/m2 minus (20 kN/m3 multiplied by 1m), which equals 100 kN/m2. Therefore, the correct answer is 100 kN/m2.

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• 18.

### Negative skin friction in a soil is caused when the pile is constructed through a

• A.

Fill material

• B.

Dense coarse sand

• C.

Over consolidated stiff clay

• D.

Dense fine sand

A. Fill material
Explanation
Negative skin friction occurs when the pile is constructed through fill material. Fill material refers to any material that is used to fill an area or create a level surface, such as soil, gravel, or rocks. When a pile is driven through fill material, the surrounding soil can settle and consolidate over time, causing the pile to experience downward drag or negative skin friction. This can reduce the load-carrying capacity of the pile and potentially lead to settlement or failure of the structure.

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• 19.

### Two soil samples A and B have porosities nA = 40% and nB = 60% respectively. What is the ratio of their void ratios eA : eB ?

• A.

2:3

• B.

3:2

• C.

4:9

• D.

9:4

C. 4:9
Explanation
The ratio of void ratios eA:eB can be determined by using the formula e = n/(1-n), where n is the porosity. For sample A, eA = 0.4/(1-0.4) = 0.4/0.6 = 2/3. For sample B, eB = 0.6/(1-0.6) = 0.6/0.4 = 3/2. Therefore, the ratio of eA to eB is 2/3 : 3/2, which simplifies to 4/9.

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• 20.

### The expression which cannot be used to calculate velocity of open channel flow from regime sections is

• A.

Manning’s Equation

• B.

Kutter’s Equation

• C.

Bernoulli’s Equation

• D.

​​​​​​​Chezy’s Equation

C. Bernoulli’s Equation
Explanation
Bernoulli's Equation is not used to calculate the velocity of open channel flow from regime sections. Bernoulli's Equation is used to analyze the flow of fluid in a pipe or a closed conduit, where the flow is assumed to be steady, incompressible, and inviscid. In open channel flow, the flow occurs in an open channel like a river or a canal, where the flow is affected by the channel's shape, slope, and roughness. Manning's Equation, Kutter's Equation, and Chezy's Equation are specifically developed for open channel flow and are used to calculate the velocity of flow in such scenarios.

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• 21.

### The depth of scour around a bridge pier is independent of

• A.

Flow velocity

• B.

Height of pier

• C.

Soil particle size

• D.

Bed slope

B. Height of pier
Explanation
The depth of scour around a bridge pier is independent of the height of the pier. Scour refers to the erosion of sediment around the bridge pier caused by flowing water. The depth of scour is primarily influenced by factors such as flow velocity, soil particle size, and bed slope. However, the height of the pier does not have a significant impact on the depth of scour.

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• 22.

### Standard EDTA solution is used to determine

• A.

Hardness in water

• B.

Turbidity in water

• C.

Dissolved oxygen in water

• D.

Residual chlorine in water

A. Hardness in water
Explanation
EDTA (ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid) is a chelating agent that forms stable complexes with metal ions, including calcium and magnesium ions that contribute to water hardness. By titrating the water sample with a standardized EDTA solution, the concentration of calcium and magnesium ions can be determined, which in turn allows for the calculation of water hardness. Therefore, the correct answer is hardness in water.

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• 23.

### Electrostatic precipitator are used as pollution control measures for separation of

• A.

SO2

• B.

NOx

• C.

Hydrocarbon

• D.

Particulate Matter

D. Particulate Matter
Explanation
Electrostatic precipitators are pollution control devices used to separate particulate matter from industrial exhaust gases. These devices use an electric field to charge the particles, causing them to adhere to oppositely charged plates or electrodes. This process effectively removes solid particles, such as dust, smoke, and ash, from the gas stream, improving air quality and reducing pollution. Therefore, the correct answer is "Particulate Matter."

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• 24.

### From among the following sewage treatment options, largest requirement for a given discharge will be needed for

• A.

Trickling filter

• B.

Anaerobic pond

• C.

Oxidation Ditch

• D.

Oxidation pond

D. Oxidation pond
Explanation
The oxidation pond requires the largest requirement for a given discharge compared to the other sewage treatment options listed. This is because oxidation ponds are large, shallow bodies of water that use natural processes, such as sunlight and algae growth, to treat wastewater. Due to their size and reliance on natural processes, oxidation ponds require a larger area and longer retention time to effectively treat wastewater and meet discharge requirements. In contrast, trickling filters, anaerobic ponds, and oxidation ditches have different mechanisms and processes that may require less space or time for treatment.

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• 25.

### PH = 4 when compared to pH = 7 will be more acidic by

• A.

3 times

• B.

300 times

• C.

1000 times

• D.

None of these

C. 1000 times
Explanation
A pH value of 4 is three units lower than a pH value of 7. Since the pH scale is logarithmic, each unit represents a tenfold difference in acidity. Therefore, a pH of 4 is 10 times more acidic than a pH of 5, 100 times more acidic than a pH of 6, and 1000 times more acidic than a pH of 7. Hence, the correct answer is 1000 times.

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• 26.

### The minimum diameter of longitudinal bars to be used in an RCC column as per IS 456 is

• A.

10 mm

• B.

12 mm

• C.

16 mm

• D.

20 mm

B. 12 mm
Explanation
According to IS 456, the minimum diameter of longitudinal bars to be used in an RCC column is 12 mm. This is because a minimum diameter of 12 mm ensures sufficient strength and durability of the column. Smaller diameter bars may not provide adequate reinforcement, while larger diameter bars may lead to congestion and difficulty in placing concrete. Therefore, 12 mm is the recommended minimum diameter for longitudinal bars in an RCC column.

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• 27.

### The unit weight of steel is

• A.

7850 kg/m3

• B.

7890 kg/m3

• C.

9810 kg/m3

• D.

9860 kg/m3

A. 7850 kg/m3
Explanation
The unit weight of steel is 7850 kg/m3. Unit weight refers to the weight of a substance per unit volume. In this case, it means that for every 1 cubic meter of steel, it weighs 7850 kilograms. This value is a commonly accepted and well-known standard for the unit weight of steel.

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• 28.

### The method of finding out the difference in elevation between two points for eliminating the effect of curvature and refraction, is

• A.

Fly Levelling

• B.

Reciprocal Levelling

• C.

Differential Levelling

• D.

None of these

B. Reciprocal Levelling
Explanation
Reciprocal leveling is the method used to determine the difference in elevation between two points by taking reciprocal readings from each point to the other. This method helps eliminate the effects of curvature and refraction, which can distort the accuracy of the measurements. By taking reciprocal readings, any errors caused by these effects are balanced out, resulting in a more precise determination of the elevation difference. This technique is commonly used in surveying and construction projects to ensure accurate measurements of elevation.

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• 29.

### The reduced bearing of a line is N 87° W. Its whole circle bearing is

• A.

273o

• B.

87o

• C.

93o

• D.

3o

A. 273o
Explanation
The reduced bearing of a line is given as N 87° W. In order to find the whole circle bearing, we need to convert this reduced bearing to a standard compass bearing. N 87° W means that the line is 87° west of north. Since a whole circle is 360°, we can subtract 87° from 360° to find the whole circle bearing. Therefore, the correct answer is 273°.

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• 30.

### If speed of motion of a vehicle is V in Km/hr for a mixed traffic condition and R is radius of curve , the super elevation e equals to

• A.

V2/127R

• B.

V2/225R

• C.

V2/25R

• D.

V2/325R

B. V2/225R
Explanation
The correct answer is V2/225R. The super elevation of a vehicle on a curved road is directly proportional to the square of the speed of motion of the vehicle and inversely proportional to the radius of the curve. Therefore, the super elevation can be calculated by dividing the square of the speed of motion (V2) by 225 times the radius of the curve (R).

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• 31.

### The minimum grade of concrete for RCC construction as per IS 456 is

• A.

M10

• B.

M15

• C.

M20

• D.

M25

C. M20
Explanation
The minimum grade of concrete for RCC construction as per IS 456 is M20. This means that the concrete mix should have a minimum compressive strength of 20 megapascals (MPa) after 28 days of curing. M20 grade concrete is commonly used for residential and commercial buildings where moderate strength is required. It provides a good balance between cost and strength, making it suitable for most general construction purposes.

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• 32.

### Le-Chatelier's apparatus is used for testing

• A.

Soundness of cement

• B.

Hardness of cement

• C.

Strength of cement

• D.

Durability of cement

A. Soundness of cement
Explanation
Le-Chatelier's apparatus is used for testing the soundness of cement. Soundness refers to the ability of cement to retain its volume after setting and hardening. This apparatus measures the expansion of cement when it is subjected to the autoclave test, which involves subjecting the cement to high pressure and temperature conditions. If the cement expands excessively, it indicates unsoundness and potential future damage. Therefore, Le-Chatelier's apparatus is specifically designed to assess the soundness or stability of cement.

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• 33.

### An enoscope is used to determine

• A.

Spot speed

• B.

Average speed

• C.

Travel time

• D.

None of these

A. Spot speed
Explanation
An enoscope is a device used to measure spot speed, which refers to the instantaneous speed of a vehicle at a specific point in time. It is different from average speed, which calculates the overall speed of a vehicle over a given distance or time. Additionally, an enoscope is not used to determine travel time, as it is solely focused on measuring spot speed. Therefore, the correct answer is spot speed.

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• 34.

### Wheels of a rolling stock in railways are provided flanges on

• A.

Outer side

• B.

Inner side

• C.

Both sides

• D.

Neither side

B. Inner side
Explanation
The wheels of a rolling stock in railways are provided with flanges on the inner side. Flanges are the raised edges on the wheel that help to keep the train on the tracks and prevent it from derailing. By having the flanges on the inner side, they can effectively guide the train along the track and provide stability during turns and curves. This design ensures that the wheels stay securely on the rails and maintain proper alignment, enhancing the safety and efficiency of the railway system.

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• 35.

### Which one of the following is true for Indian Railways?

• A.

Permanent way can not exist without ballast

• B.

Sleeper density is related to number of sleepers per km

• C.

Bull headed rails are normally used in metros

• D.

Broad gauge length is 1.762 m

B. Sleeper density is related to number of sleepers per km
Explanation
The statement "Sleeper density is related to the number of sleepers per km" is true for Indian Railways. Sleeper density refers to the number of sleepers (wooden or concrete supports) that are laid per kilometer of railway track. It is an important factor in determining the stability and strength of the track. Higher sleeper density provides better support and reduces the risk of track deformation and accidents. Therefore, maintaining an appropriate sleeper density is crucial for the safe and efficient operation of Indian Railways.

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• 36.

### The stress in wall of a cylinder in a direction normal to its longitudinal axis due to a force acting along the circumference is known as

• A.

Yield stress

• B.

Longitudinal Stress

• C.

Hoop Stress

• D.

Circumferential Stress

C. Hoop Stress
Explanation
Hoop stress refers to the stress in the wall of a cylinder that is perpendicular to its longitudinal axis and is caused by a force acting along the circumference. It is named "hoop" stress because it is similar to the stress experienced by a hoop or ring when it is subjected to external forces. Hoop stress is an important consideration in the design and analysis of cylindrical structures, such as pipes and pressure vessels, as it helps determine the structural integrity and ability to withstand internal or external pressure.

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• 37.

### Choose the word which is nearly same in meaning to the word "Deleterious"

• A.

Delaying

• B.

Deleting

• C.

Harmful

• D.

Experimental

C. Harmful
Explanation
The word "deleterious" means causing harm or damage. Among the given options, the word "harmful" is the closest in meaning to "deleterious".

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• 38.

### Choose the word which is nearly opposite in meaning to the word "Amalgamate"

• A.

Equip

• B.

Separate

• C.

Generate

• D.

Materialize

B. Separate
Explanation
The word "amalgamate" means to combine or merge, while "separate" means to divide or disconnect. These two words are nearly opposite in meaning, as they represent opposite actions. Therefore, "separate" is the word that is nearly opposite in meaning to "amalgamate."

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• 39.

### Select the word out of 4 which does not relate to the other 3

• A.

Stigmatise

• B.

Vilify

• C.

Consecrate

• D.

Scandalise

C. Consecrate
Explanation
The words "stigmatise," "vilify," and "scandalise" all have negative connotations, as they involve criticizing, defaming, or causing harm to someone's reputation. However, "consecrate" stands out as it has a positive meaning. It means to declare something sacred or holy, often associated with religious or ceremonial practices. Unlike the other words, "consecrate" does not involve any form of criticism or harm towards others.

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• 40.

### A card is taken out of a pack of 52 cards numbered 2 to 53. The probability that the number on the card is a prime number less than 20 is

• A.

1 / 13

• B.

2 / 13

• C.

3 / 13

• D.

4 / 13

B. 2 / 13
Explanation
There are 8 prime numbers less than 20: 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, and 19. Out of the 52 cards, there are 18 cards with prime numbers less than 20 (2 cards each for numbers 2, 3, 5, 7, and 13, and 1 card each for numbers 11, 17, and 19). Therefore, the probability of drawing a card with a prime number less than 20 is 18/52, which simplifies to 9/26 or approximately 2/13.

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• 41.

### M % N means M is to the right of N at a distance of 1m. M @ N means M is to the left of N at a distance of 1m. M \$ N means M is to the north of N at a distance of 1m. M # N means M is to the south of N at a distance of 1m. A % B # C % D, then D is in which direction with respect to A?

• A.

North

• B.

South - East

• C.

North - West

• D.

South - West

C. North - West
Explanation
D is in the North-West direction with respect to A. This can be determined by analyzing the given symbols. % indicates that A is to the right of B, and # indicates that D is to the south of C. Since D is to the south of C and C is to the right of B, it can be inferred that D is in the North-West direction with respect to A.

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• 42.

### K is sister of S. S is married to M. M is father of R. Q is son of P. S is mother-in-law of P. M has only one son and no daughter. K is married to T. N is daughter of K. How is P related to M?

• A.

Uncle

• B.

Son

• C.

Daughter in Law

• D.

Grandson

C. Daughter in Law
Explanation
P is the daughter-in-law of M. This is because S is married to M, making S the daughter-in-law of M. Since K is the sister of S, K is also the daughter-in-law of M. Therefore, P, who is the son of Q and the son-in-law of S, is the daughter-in-law of M.

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• 43.

### The minimum CBR value of Granular Sub-base (GSB) for road construction as per MORTH guidelines is

• A.

8%

• B.

11%

• C.

20%

• D.

30%

D. 30%
Explanation
The minimum CBR value of Granular Sub-base (GSB) for road construction as per MORTH guidelines is 30%. This means that the GSB material should have a minimum California Bearing Ratio (CBR) value of 30% to be suitable for road construction. The CBR value is a measure of the strength and stiffness of the material, and a higher value indicates better performance and durability. Therefore, according to MORTH guidelines, a minimum CBR value of 30% is required for the GSB material used in road construction.

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• 44.

### As per IRC 37, the Design methodology of flexible pavements is based on

• A.

Mathematical Analysis

• B.

Empirical Formulae

• C.

A compromise of pure theory and pure empirical formula

• D.

None of these

C. A compromise of pure theory and pure empirical formula
Explanation
The correct answer is "A compromise of pure theory and pure empirical formula." This means that the design methodology of flexible pavements is not solely based on mathematical analysis or empirical formulae, but rather a combination of both. It suggests that a balance is achieved by incorporating theoretical principles and practical experiences to develop an effective design approach for flexible pavements.

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• 45.

### Maximum number of passenger cars that can pass a given point on a road during one hour under the most ideal road way and traffic conditions, is known as

• A.

Traffic density

• B.

Basic capacity of traffic lane

• C.

Possible capacity of traffic lane

• D.

None of these

B. Basic capacity of traffic lane
Explanation
The basic capacity of a traffic lane refers to the maximum number of passenger cars that can pass a given point on a road during one hour under the most ideal road way and traffic conditions. It represents the optimal flow rate that the lane can handle without causing congestion or delays. Traffic density refers to the number of vehicles occupying a specific length of road, while the possible capacity of a traffic lane may vary depending on factors such as weather conditions or road construction. Therefore, the correct answer is the basic capacity of a traffic lane.

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• 46.

### The smallest angle of a triangle is equal to two thirds of the smallest angle of a quadrilateral. The ratio between the angles of the quadrilateral is 3:4:5:6. The largest angle of the triangle is twice its smallest angle. What is the sum, in degrees, of the second largest angle of the triangle and the largest angle of the quadrilateral?

• A.

120

• B.

180

• C.

240

• D.

145

B. 180
Explanation
Let's assume the smallest angle of the triangle is x degrees. According to the given information, the smallest angle of the quadrilateral is (2/3)x degrees.

The ratio between the angles of the quadrilateral is 3:4:5:6, which means the angles can be represented as 3x, 4x, 5x, and 6x degrees.

The largest angle of the triangle is twice its smallest angle, so it is 2x degrees.

The sum of the second largest angle of the triangle and the largest angle of the quadrilateral is (4x + 6x) + (5x + 6x) = 20x degrees.

We need to find the value of 20x that equals 180 degrees.

20x = 180
x = 9

Therefore, the sum of the second largest angle of the triangle and the largest angle of the quadrilateral is 20x = 20 * 9 = 180 degrees.

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• 47.

### Rajan was not happy that Sajan decided to do the project work on his own. On observing his unhappiness Sajan explained to Rajan that he preferred to work independently.  Which of the following is logically correct and can be inferred from the above sentences?

• A.

Rajan has decided to work only in a group

• B.

Rajan and Sajan were formed into a group against their wishes

• C.

Sajan has decided to give in to Rajan's request to work with him

• D.

Rajan had believed that he and Sajan would be working together

D. Rajan had believed that he and Sajan would be working together
Explanation
Rajan's unhappiness suggests that he had an expectation or belief that he and Sajan would be working together on the project. This indicates that Rajan had believed that he and Sajan would be working together.

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• 48.

### If y = 5x2 + 3, then the tangent at x=0,y=3

• A.

Passes through origin

• B.

Is parallel to x axis

• C.

Has a slope of +1

• D.

Is perpendicular to x axis

B. Is parallel to x axis
Explanation
The given equation is a quadratic function in the form y = ax^2 + b. In this case, y = 5x^2 + 3. The tangent at x=0, y=3 is the line that touches the curve at that point. Since the coefficient of x^2 is positive (a=5), the graph of the function opens upwards and is concave up. This means that the tangent line will be parallel to the x-axis and not intersect it. Therefore, the correct answer is "is parallel to x-axis."

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• 49.

### Evaluate

• A.

- ꝏ

• B.

0

• C.

1

• D.

C. 1
Explanation
The expression "Evaluate -" is asking us to find the value of the negative symbol. In this case, the negative symbol is followed by the number 1. When we have a negative symbol before a number, it means we need to find the opposite of that number. The opposite of 1 is -1. Therefore, the correct answer is -1.

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• 50.

### A conventional flow duration curve is a plot between

• A.

Flow and percentage time flow is exceed

• B.

Duration of flooding and ground elevation

• C.

Duration of water supply in a city and proportion of area receiving supply exceeding this duration

• D.

Flow rate and duration of time taken to empty a reservoir at that flow rate

A. Flow and percentage time flow is exceed
Explanation
A conventional flow duration curve is a plot between flow and the percentage of time that the flow is exceeded. This curve is used to analyze and understand the frequency and duration of different flow rates in a river or stream. By plotting the flow against the percentage of time that flow is exceeded, it provides valuable information about the variability and extremes of flow conditions over a specific period of time. This information is important for water resource management, flood control, and designing infrastructure such as dams and reservoirs.

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