Which term is used interchangeably with negative variation?
A.
Non-correlation
B.
Direct correlation
C.
Inverse correlation
D.
Positive correlation
Correct Answer C. Inverse correlation
Explanation C. Other terms for negative variation are indirect correlation, inverse correlation, and negative correlation. See Lesson: Designing an Experiment.
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2.
A human kidney is known to measure 125 grams. What measurement tool is most likely used to determine this value?
A.
Barometer
B.
Thermometer
C.
Electric balance
D.
Graduated cylinder
Correct Answer C. Electric balance
Explanation C. Because the units are in grams, this measurement is the mass of the kidney. The mass of an object is measured by using a balance such as an electric balance. See Lesson: Designing an Experiment.
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3.
Three different dispersants that are used to break up oil in water are evaluated for their effectiveness. Dispersant A has a concentration of 10m, dispersant B has a concentration of 7m, and dispersant C has a concentration of 3m. Each dispersant is separately poured into a solution of water and oil. The amount of time it takes each dispersant to disperse the oil is recorded. Which of the following statements describes the positive correlation observed in this study?
A.
Oil remains suspended in solution despite dispersant addition.
B.
As more dispersant is added to the water, more oil is dispersed.
C.
Dispersant C is the least effective at dispersing oil in the solution of water.
D.
When a high concentration of dispersant is added, less oil disperses in water.
Correct Answer B. As more dispersant is added to the water, more oil is dispersed.
Explanation B. A positive correlation means that one variable increases as another increases. Thus, as more dispersant is added, the amount of oil dispersed also increases. See Lesson: Designing an Experiment.
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4.
Which of the following pairs of elements contains two elements in the same period?
A.
Argon and neon
B.
Zinc and cadmium
C.
Beryllium and aluminum
D.
Magnesium and aluminum
Correct Answer D. Magnesium and aluminum
Explanation D. Magnesium and aluminum are the only pair located in the same period (row) of the periodic table, period 3. See Lesson: Scientific Notation.
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5.
Atom X has an atomic number of 10 and a mass of 20 amu. Atom Y has 10 protons and 12 neutrons. Which of the following describes the relationship between these atoms?
A.
They are different elements.
B.
They are isotopes of the same element.
C.
They have the same atomic number and the same atomic mass.
D.
They have different atomic numbers and different atomic masses.
Correct Answer B. They are isotopes of the same element.
Explanation B. Both atoms can be identified as neon because the atomic number, which equals the number of protons, is 10 for both. However, they have different masses. The mass of Atom Y can be determined by adding the numbers of protons and neutrons (10 + 12) to get 22, which is different from the mass of Atom X. Because they are the same element with different masses, Atom X and Atom Y are isotopes. See Lesson: Scientific Notation.
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6.
Which of the following describes a neutral atom of tin-120?
A.
50 protons, 70 neutrons, 50 electrons
B.
50 protons, 120 neutrons, 50 electrons
C.
50 protons, 120 neutrons, 70 electrons
D.
70 protons, 120 neutrons, 70 electrons
Correct Answer A. 50 protons, 70 neutrons, 50 electrons
Explanation A. The atomic number for tin is 50, which means all atoms of tin have 50 protons. To determine the number of neutrons, subtract the number of protons from the mass number: 120 – 50 = 70 neutrons. Because the atom is neutral, it has 50 electrons to balance the charge of the protons. See Lesson: Scientific Notation.
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7.
What metric prefix corresponds to an equivalent value of 1,000?
A.
Centi-
B.
Deci-
C.
Kilo-
D.
Micro-
Correct Answer C. Kilo-
Explanation C. In the metric system, the prefix kilo indicates 1,000 times the base unit. For example, 1 kilogram equals 1,000 grams. See Lesson: Temperature and the Metric System.
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8.
A nurse converts a recorded value of 180 pounds to ounces. What unit of measurement does this correspond to?
A.
Length
B.
Temperature
C.
Weight
D.
Volume
Correct Answer C. Weight
Explanation C. Ounces and pounds are units in the English system that are used to describe weight measurements. See Lesson: Temperature and the Metric System.
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9.
How many meters are in 2,500 millimeters?
A.
0.25
B.
2.5
C.
25
D.
250
Correct Answer B. 2.5
Explanation B. Meters are larger than millimeters. Multiplying 2,500 millimeters the factor of 0.001 yields 2.5 meters. If using the staircase method, the decimal would need to move three places to the left. See Lesson: Temperature and the Metric System.
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10.
How many hydrogen atoms are bonded to oxygen in water?
A.
1
B.
2
C.
3
D.
4
Correct Answer B. 2
Explanation B. In the molecular structure of water, a partially negative oxygen atom is bonded to two partially positive hydrogen atoms. See Lesson: An Introduction to Biology.
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11.
In the taxonomic system, a class is grouped into which level?
A.
Order
B.
Family
C.
Species
D.
Phylum
Correct Answer D. Phylum
Explanation D. In a taxonomic system, each level is found in the level above it. Thus, the class level is found in the phylum and kingdom levels. See Lesson: An Introduction to Biology.
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12.
Which metabolic pathway generates the most ATP?
A.
Glycolysis
B.
Citric acid cycle
C.
Gluconeogenesis
D.
Oxidative phosphorylation
Correct Answer D. Oxidative phosphorylation
Explanation D. Both the electron transport chain and oxidative phosphorylation are major energy producers during cellular respiration. Collectively, these metabolic pathways produce upwards of 32 ATP per glucose molecule. See Lesson: An Introduction to Biology.
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13.
Which is a characteristic of prokaryotes?
A.
They are classified as animal cells.
B.
These are known to be single-celled organisms.
C.
The cytoplasm contains a membrane-bound nucleus.
D.
Flagella and pili are attached to their outer cell surface.
Correct Answer B. These are known to be single-celled organisms.
Explanation B. Prokaryotic cells are unicellular organisms that lack a nucleus. See Lesson: Cell Structure, Function, and Type.
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14.
A cell processes the conversion of carbohydrates to ATP to help perform various biological functions. Where does this conversion occur in the cell?
A.
Vacuole
B.
Lysosome
C.
Mitochondria
D.
Golgi apparatus
Correct Answer C. Mitochondria
Explanation C. The biological process of converting food sources into energy takes place in the mitochondria of the cell. Mitochondria are the cell’s powerhouses that supply ATP (a form of energy) to the cell. See Lesson: Cell Structure, Function, and Type.
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15.
Which discovery is Robert Hooke credited with?
A.
Finding the first cell
B.
Developing the cell theory
C.
Describing organelles in a cell
D.
Identifying prokaryotes in nature
Correct Answer A. Finding the first cell
Explanation A. English scientist Robert Hooke is credited with discovering the first cell in a piece of cork. He described the cell as a resembling a tiny box or honeycomb shape. See Lesson: Cell Structure, Function, and Type.
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16.
What phase is the cell cycle part of?
A.
Interphase
B.
Metaphase
C.
Prophase
D.
Telophase
Correct Answer A. Interphase
Explanation A. Before mitosis or meiosis occurs, interphase must happen. This is when the cell cycle takes place. See Lesson: Cellular Reproduction, Cellular Respiration, and Photosynthesis.
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17.
Which organism could survive without cellular respiration?
A.
Cyanobacteria
B.
Human
C.
Plant
D.
Racoon
Correct Answer A. Cyanobacteria
Explanation A. Bacteria like cyanobacteria can participate in a wide variety of fermentation pathways. This is because these organisms are capable of generating energy anaerobically. See Lesson: Cellular Reproduction, Cellular Respiration, and Photosynthesis.
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18.
A scientist is watching a colony of bacteria on a plate, and the colony is growing. Which process is most likely responsible for this growth?
A.
Mitosis
B.
Binary fission
C.
Photosynthesis
D.
Sexual reproduction
Correct Answer B. Binary fission
Explanation B. Bacteria are able to reproduce asexually using binary fission. See Lesson: Cellular Reproduction, Cellular Respiration, and Photosynthesis.
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19.
The physical appearance or _____ of an organism is determined by a set of alleles.
A.
Genotype
B.
Phenotype
C.
Transcription
D.
Translation
Correct Answer B. Phenotype
Explanation B. The phenotype is the physical appearance of an organism, and the genotype is the set of alleles. See Lesson: Genetics and DNA.
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20.
What would be the probability of a short pea plant (ss) and a tall pea plant (Ss) producing a heterozygous tall pea plant?
A.
25%
B.
50%
C.
75%
D.
100%
Correct Answer B. 50%
Explanation B. Two of the offspring would be heterozygous tall (Ss), and the other two offspring would be homozygous short (ss). See Lesson: Genetics and DNA.
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21.
An RNA copy of a gene used as a blueprint for a protein is called the _____.
A.
MRNA
B.
Pre-mRNA
C.
RRNA
D.
TRNA
Correct Answer A. MRNA
Explanation A. A copy of a gene used as a blueprint for a protein is mRNA. See Lesson: Genetics and DNA.
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22.
In which state of matter does a piece of copper metal have a definite shape and volume?
A.
Gas
B.
Liquid
C.
Plasma
D.
Solid
Correct Answer D. Solid
Explanation D. In a solid, strong cohesive forces prevent the particles from moving too far from each other. Therefore, a solid cannot flow to take the shape of its container, and it cannot expand to take the volume of the container. See Lesson: States of Matter.
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23.
Which of the following describes a sample that is boiling?
A.
The energy of the particles is increasing.
B.
The particles are getting closer together.
C.
The temperature of the substance is increasing.
D.
The cohesive forces between particles are getting stronger.
Correct Answer A. The energy of the particles is increasing.
Explanation A. When a substance is boiling, liquid particles gain energy and move farther apart as they turn into gas. See Lesson: States of Matter.
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24.
Compare the melting points of three metals: gold (1063°C), lead (328°C), and mercury (-38.9°C). Which of the following statements is true regarding the states of matter of these elements at room temperature (around 23°C)?
A.
All three metals are solid at room temperature.
B.
All three metals are liquid at room temperature.
C.
Gold is solid at room temperature; lead and mercury are liquid at room temperature.
D.
Gold and lead are solid at room temperature; mercury is liquid at room temperature.
Correct Answer D. Gold and lead are solid at room temperature; mercury is liquid at room temperature.
Explanation D. Because their melting points are higher than room temperature, gold and lead are solid. Because its melting point is lower than room temperature, mercury is liquid. See Lesson: States of Matter.
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25.
Some _____ properties of matter are color, solubility, mass, odor, hardness, density, and boiling point.
A.
Biological
B.
Chemical
C.
Physical
D.
Reactive
Correct Answer C. Physical
Explanation C. None of the properties listed indicate a chemical change, so they are physical properties. See Lesson: Properties of Matter.
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26.
Smelling dinner cooking from a different room is an example of _____.
A.
Deposition
B.
Diffusion
C.
Osmosis
D.
Sublimation
Correct Answer B. Diffusion
Explanation B. In this scenario, the molecules are spreading from an area of higher concentration (the kitchen) to an area of lower concentration (another room). This is an example of diffusion. See Lesson: Properties of Matter.
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27.
_____ is the diffusion of water molecules through a membrane in the direction of higher solute concentration.
A.
Melting
B.
Osmosis
C.
Polarity
D.
Sublimation
Correct Answer B. Osmosis
Explanation B. Osmosis is the diffusion of water molecules through a membrane in the direction of higher solute concentration. See Lesson: Properties of Matter.
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28.
The first and second energy levels of a neutral atom are full, and the third energy level contains three electrons. To which group does this element belong?
A.
Group 3
B.
Group 8
C.
Group 10
D.
Group 13
Correct Answer D. Group 13
Explanation D. Elements in group 13 all have three valence electrons. See Lesson: Chemical Bonds.
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29.
What type of bond forms between nitrogen and oxygen, and why?
A.
Ionic, because electrons are shared
B.
Covalent, because electrons are shared
C.
Ionic, because electrons are transferred
D.
Covalent, because electrons are transferred
Correct Answer B. Covalent, because electrons are shared
Explanation B. Nitrogen and oxygen are both nonmetals, which means they will share electrons in a covalent bond. See Lesson: Chemical Bonds.
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30.
Which of the following type of bond forms between two atoms that have similar electronegativities?
A.
Ionic bond
B.
Polar covalent bond
C.
Nonpolar covalent bond
D.
Any of the bond types listed above could form.
Correct Answer C. Nonpolar covalent bond
Explanation C. In a nonpolar covalent bond, electrons are shared equally because neither atom pulls significantly harder on them. See Lesson: Chemical Bonds.
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31.
If barium metal (Ba) and aluminum chloride (AlCl3) react in a single-replacement reaction, what product(s) form?
A.
BaAlCl3
B.
AlBaCl3
C.
Al + BaCl2
D.
AlCl3 + Ba
Correct Answer C. Al + BaCl2
Explanation C. Barium is a metal that could replace aluminum in a single-replacement reaction. The products for single-replacement reactions include an element (Al) that is replaced and a compound (BaCl2). See Lesson: Chemical Solutions.
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32.
In the following single-replacement reaction, ________ replaces _________.
Cl2 + 2NaI → 2NaCl + I2
A.
Sodium, iodine
B.
Chlorine, iodine
C.
Chlorine, sodium
D.
Sodium, chlorine
Correct Answer B. Chlorine, iodine
Explanation B. In this reaction, chlorine (Cl2) is an element in the reaction that replaces iodine in the compound sodium iodide (NaI). This allows chlorine to form a compound with sodium (NaCl) and leaves iodine (I2) as an element. See Lesson: Chemical Solutions.
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33.
What type of reaction is described by the following equation?
2Na(s) + ZnCl2(aq) → Zn(s) + 2NaCl(aq)
A.
Synthesis
B.
Combustion
C.
Single-replacement
D.
Double-replacement
Correct Answer C. Single-replacement
Explanation C. Sodium replaces zinc in the compound zinc chloride (ZnCl2), which produces a new compound, sodium chloride (NaCl), and zinc metal. See Lesson: Chemical Solutions.
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34.
What solution has a pH of 7?
A.
Aniline
B.
Pyridine
C.
Pure water
D.
Sodium hydroxide
Correct Answer C. Pure water
Explanation C. A pH of 7 is a neutral solution, which is how pure water is classified. See Lesson: Acids and Bases.
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35.
A researcher identifies an unknown solution to have a pH of 3. What characteristic does the researcher most likely write down about this solution?
A.
Sour in taste
B.
Weak electrolyte
C.
Minimally corrosive
D.
Slippery to the touch
Correct Answer A. Sour in taste
Explanation A. Because the solution has a pH of 3, it is acidic. One characteristic of acid solutions is that they are sour in taste. See Lesson: Acids and Bases.
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36.
Bleach has a pH of 13. This indicates that bleach is a
A.
Weak acid.
B.
Weak base.
C.
Strong acid.
D.
Strong base.
Correct Answer D. Strong base.
Explanation D. Bleach is a strong base because its pH value is very close to the highest value on the pH scale, 14. The pH scale is used as an indicator and to determine the strength of an acid or a base. See Lesson: Acids and Bases.
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37.
Which process could serve as a way to consistently measure time?
A.
The growth of a tree
B.
The phases of the moon
C.
The chirping of a cricket
D.
The water height of a river
Correct Answer B. The phases of the moon
Explanation B. Consistently measuring time requires a process that is consistently periodic. Only the phases of the moon occur at regular intervals. See Lesson: Nature of Motion.
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38.
A catapult flings a rock straight up from ground level with an initial velocity of 32 m/s. How long will the rock take to return to the ground? (The acceleration due to gravity is 9.8 m/s2.)
A.
0.15 seconds
B.
3.3 seconds
C.
6.5 seconds
D.
9.8 seconds
Correct Answer C. 6.5 seconds
39.
A train moving on a straight portion of the track has a constant velocity (24, –36) m/s. How far does it go in 25 seconds?
A.
1.7 m
B.
300 m
C.
1,100 m
D.
47,000 m
Correct Answer C. 1,100 m
Explanation C. Because the velocity is constant (the track is straight), the train’s speed is the magnitude of the vector (24, –36) in meters per second.
To calculate how far it went, multiply the speed and the travel time: 43 m/s × 25 s = 1,100 meters. See Lesson: Nature of Motion.
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40.
Which term best describes the motion of a planet moving at a nonzero speed and a fixed distance from a star?
A.
Linear
B.
Nonlinear
C.
Stationary
D.
Rotational
Correct Answer D. Rotational
Explanation D. If a planet has a nonzero speed and is a constant distance from a star, it must be moving in a circular orbit. Although that motion is nonlinear, the most descriptive term is rotational. See Lesson: Friction.
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41.
What direction is the force of air resistance on a car traveling south?
A.
East
B.
North
C.
South
D.
West
Correct Answer B. North
Explanation B. Air resistance is a type of friction, and the force it exerts is in the direction opposite to the velocity. Thus, the air-resistance force is in the northern direction. See Lesson: Friction.
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42.
Which of the following best explains why a block on a sloped surface remains stationary rather than sliding down the surface?
A.
The block undergoes centrifugal force.
B.
The block experiences a net upward force.
C.
The block is not subject to a gravitational force.
D.
The block experiences a friction force that cancels other forces.
Correct Answer D. The block experiences a friction force that cancels other forces.
Explanation D. Absent friction, the block would experience a net force due to gravity that would cause it to slide down the sloped surface. In this case, the friction force cancels any other forces, causing the block to remain stationary. See Lesson: Friction.
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43.
Which of the following affects the speed of a mechanical wave in a material?
A.
The wave’s source
B.
The material’s density
C.
The material’s refractive index
D.
The wave’s peak-to-peak amplitude
Correct Answer B. The material’s density
Explanation B. The speed of a mechanical wave in a material depends on the material’s density and compressibility. See Lesson: Waves and Sounds.
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44.
Which two atoms are the same element?
A.
One atom with 4 protons, 4 neutrons, and 3 electrons, and one atom with 3 protons, 4 neutrons, and 3 electrons
B.
One atom with 3 protons, 4 neutrons, and 3 electrons, and one atom with 3 protons, 3 neutrons, and 3 electrons
C.
One atom with 3 protons, 4 neutrons, and 3 electrons, and one atom with 4 protons, 3 neutrons, and 3 electrons
D.
One atom with 4 protons, 4 neutrons, and 3 electrons, and one atom with 3 protons, 3 neutrons, and 4 electrons
Correct Answer B. One atom with 3 protons, 4 neutrons, and 3 electrons, and one atom with 3 protons, 3 neutrons, and 3 electrons
Explanation B. Two atoms are the same element if they have the same number of protons. Only choice B fits this definition. See Lesson: Waves and Sounds.
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45.
Which characteristic of sound waves is most closely associated with a sound’s pitch?
A.
Amplitude
B.
Frequency
C.
Wavelength
D.
Wave speed
Correct Answer B. Frequency
Explanation B. The human ear and brain interpret the frequency of a sound wave as pitch: higher frequencies yield higher pitches, and lower frequencies yield lower pitches. See Lesson: Waves and Sounds.
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46.
The gasoline in automobiles can be considered what type of energy?
A.
Electrical
B.
Kinetic
C.
Potential
D.
Thermal
Correct Answer C. Potential
Explanation C. The gasoline, which is a form of stored, potential energy, is converted into kinetic energy when it is burned. See Lesson: Kinetic Energy.
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47.
A carpenter’s tool falls off a rooftop and strikes the ground with a certain kinetic energy. If it fell from a roof that was four times higher, how would this new kinetic energy (just before impact) compare to the original roof?
A.
The kinetic energy would be 2 times greater.
B.
The kinetic energy would be 4 times greater.
C.
The kinetic energy would be 8 times greater.
D.
The kinetic energy would be 16 times greater.
Correct Answer B. The kinetic energy would be 4 times greater.
Explanation B. The kinetic energy is 4 times greater because during free-fall all potential energy is converted to kinetic energy (ignoring wind resistance), and the potential energy is directly related to the height. See Lesson: Kinetic Energy.
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48.
Which situation is impossible?
A.
An electric current in empty space
B.
A north magnetic pole in empty space
C.
A positive electric charge in empty space
D.
An electromagnetic wave in empty space
Correct Answer B. A north magnetic pole in empty space
Explanation B. Electric charges—positive or negative—can exist individually and separately from each other. Therefore, a positive electric charge and an electric current can both exist in empty space. Electromagnetic waves, which result from accelerated charge, can also exist in empty space. Magnetic poles, however, always come in pairs: a north pole and a south pole. See Lesson: Electricity and Magnetism.
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49.
A voltage source does which of the following?
A.
It creates a resistance that impedes the flow of charge
B.
It creates a magnetic field that causes electromagnetic induction.
C.
It creates an electric field that drives charge from one terminal to the other.
D.
It creates a magnetic field that drives charge from one terminal to the other.
Correct Answer C. It creates an electric field that drives charge from one terminal to the other.
Explanation C. A voltage source creates an electric potential difference that drives charge from one terminal to the other. That electric potential difference is due to the electric field from the source. See Lesson: Electricity and Magnetism.
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50.
If an engineer converts magnetic fields into an electric potential difference, what is he employing?
A.
Ohm’s law
B.
Electric flux
C.
Coulomb’s law
D.
D Electromagnetic induction
Correct Answer D. D Electromagnetic induction
Explanation D. Electromagnetic induction is the creation of an electric force (or electric potential difference) in a conductor by using a changing magnetic field. See Lesson: Electricity and Magnetism.
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