2A651H CDC Pre Test Ure's [2018]

100 Questions | Total Attempts: 80

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2A651H CDC Pre Test Ure

Air Force, CDC, Volume 1, Volume 2, Volume 3, Volume 4, Volume 5, URE, EOC, Test, Pre test, 2018, 2017, 2019,2020, 2A651,


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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
     (001) Which functions form a maintenance group?
    • A. 

      Operations, aircraft maintenance, flying.

    • B. 

      Maintenance, operations, quality assurance.

    • C. 

      Quality assurance (QA), support, aircraft maintenance.

    • D. 

      Maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and QA.

  • 2. 
    (001) Who monitors flying and maintenance schedules and maintains visibility of fleet health indicators?
    • A. 

      Operations Support Center.

    • B. 

      Logistics Support Squadron.

    • C. 

      Operations Support Squadron.

    • D. 

      Maintenance Operations Center.

  • 3. 
    (001) When you are assigned to an equipment maintenance squadron as an engine troop, to what flight will you most likely be attached?
    • A. 

      Maintenance.

    • B. 

      Accessories

    • C. 

      Fabrication

    • D. 

      Munitions

  • 4. 
     (001) When you are assigned to an aircraft maintenance squadron as an engine troop, to what flight will you most likely be attached?
    • A. 

      Debrief.

    • B. 

      Training.

    • C. 

      Specialist.

    • D. 

      Deployment.

  • 5. 
    (002) What does the fifth position of the Air Force specialty code (AFSC) 3A652 represent?
    • A. 

      Career field subdivision.

    • B. 

      Specific AFSC.

    • C. 

      Career field

    • D. 

      Skill level.

  • 6. 
    (002) What type of training is provided to help you learn the knowledge portion of your job?
    • A. 

      On-the-job training.

    • B. 

      Task qualifications training

    • C. 

      Career development course

    • D. 

      Noncommissioned Officer Academy (NCOA)

  • 7. 
    (002) How many months must you have in the Air Force before you may attend the Airman Leadership School (ALS)?
    • A. 

      24

    • B. 

      36

    • C. 

      48

    • D. 

      60

  • 8. 
    (003) Which program’s purpose is to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for all Air Force employees?
    • A. 

      Flight-line safety.

    • B. 

      Operational Risk Management (ORM).

    • C. 

      Maintenance Safety Data Sheets (MSDS).

    • D. 

      Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH).

  • 9. 
    Air Force occupational safety and health (AFOSH) standards are located within Air Force publication series
    • A. 

      91

    • B. 

      66

    • C. 

      127

    • D. 

      161

  • 10. 
    (003) Which Air Force instruction defines quality maintenance and requires maintenance personnel to display integrity and comply with all written guidance?
    • A. 

      00-5-1

    • B. 

      00-20-1

    • C. 

      21-101

    • D. 

      36-2108

  • 11. 
    (004) Prior to starting any maintenance on the aircraft, what can you do to ensure that it is safe to proceed?
    • A. 

      Lock and pin the work stands.

    • B. 

      Check the intake for foreign object damage (FOD).

    • C. 

      Review the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 781K.

    • D. 

      Check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft.

  • 12. 
    (004) How far does a propeller’s axis of rotation extend?
    • A. 

      10 feet to the front and 15 feet from the rear.

    • B. 

      15 feet to the front and 10 feet from the rear.

    • C. 

      10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear.

    • D. 

      5 feet to the front and 1 foot from the rear.

  • 13. 
    (004) To avoid the engine exhaust blast, what is the minimum distance to the rear of the aircraft?
    • A. 

      100 feet

    • B. 

      200 feet

    • C. 

      300 feet

    • D. 

      400 feet

  • 14. 
    (004) When approaching or leaving a helicopter with the blades rotating, all personnel need to remain in full view of the
    • A. 

      Ground man.

    • B. 

      Crew chief.

    • C. 

      Pilot.

    • D. 

      Scanner.

  • 15. 
    (005) Foreign object damage (FOD) is normally caused by
    • A. 

      People

    • B. 

      Mechanical failure

    • C. 

      Animals

    • D. 

      Weather

  • 16. 
    (006) Toxic materials are easiest to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions when they are in the form of
    • A. 

      Aerosols.

    • B. 

      Liquids.

    • C. 

      Solids.

    • D. 

      Gases.

  • 17. 
    (007) Who is responsible for providing you with training on how to wear, use, and maintain personal protective equipment?
    • A. 

      Safety.

    • B. 

      Hospital.

    • C. 

      Supervisor.

    • D. 

      Environmental.

  • 18. 
    (007) A common method for disposing of hazardous waste is
    • A. 

      Dilution.

    • B. 

      Incineration.

    • C. 

      Land disposal.

    • D. 

      Biodegradation.

  • 19. 
    (007) For hazardous waste disposal, it is unlikely the Air Force can justify
    • A. 

      Biodegradation.

    • B. 

      Land disposal.

    • C. 

      Chemico-physical treatment.

    • D. 

      Incineration.

  • 20. 
    (008) A specialized function of the supply mission is
    • A. 

      Repair.

    • B. 

      Service.

    • C. 

      Disposal.

    • D. 

      Retrieval.

  • 21. 
    (008) From what perspective does the Global Logistics Support Center (GLSC) manage supply?
    • A. 

      Base system.

    • B. 

      Weapons system.

    • C. 

      Inventory system.

    • D. 

      Geographical system.

  • 22. 
    (008) What system has the purpose of establishing a firm control over assets to make sure they are repaired at base level or sent to a repair facility as fast as possible?
    • A. 

      Depot-level Repair System.

    • B. 

      Repair Cycle Support System.

    • C. 

      Standard Base Supply System.

    • D. 

      Precious Metals Recovery System.

  • 23. 
    (008) Selected equipment items, when returned to depot because of their design characteristics function or application, are predetermined to require
    • A. 

      Overhaul.

    • B. 

      Retest OK.

    • C. 

      Time change

    • D. 

      Repair cycle support.

  • 24. 
    (008) Which supply document provides a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by the Standard Base Supply System (SBSS)?
    • A. 

      Daily Document Register (D04).

    • B. 

      Repair Cycle Asset Management Listing (D23).

    • C. 

      Priority Monitor Report (D18).

    • D. 

      Due-out Validation Listing (M30).

  • 25. 
    (008) How many priority systems does Base Supply use when responding to a customer’s supply needs?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 26. 
    (009) Which is a two-part form that is attached to items requiring maintenance shop processing?
    • A. 

      DD Form 1574.

    • B. 

      AFTO Form 350.

    • C. 

      AF IMT 2005.

    • D. 

      AFTO Form 349.

  • 27. 
    (009) Which publication provides a block-by-block explanation of how to document the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 350 tag?
    • A. 

      TO 00–5–1.

    • B. 

      AFMAN 23–110.

    • C. 

      AFI 91–301.

    • D. 

      TO 00–20–2.

  • 28. 
    (010) If you are temporary duty (TDY) and both the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) and Standard Base Supply System (SBSS) are not available, what form would you use to order an engine part?
    • A. 

      DD Form 1574.

    • B. 

      AF IMT 2005.

    • C. 

      AFTO Form 349.

    • D. 

      AFTO Form 350.

  • 29. 
    (011) Serviceable items, when received from supply and ready to use, each have an attached Department of Defense (DD) Form
    • A. 

      1575

    • B. 

      1577-3

    • C. 

      1577-2

    • D. 

      1574

  • 30. 
    (012) Which item is one that a storage time period must be assigned to ensure that it will perform satisfactorily over a specified period of time?
    • A. 

      Supply.

    • B. 

      Shelf-life.

    • C. 

      Inspection.

    • D. 

      Bench stock.

  • 31. 
    (012) When a bench stock item has a type I shelf-life, it means the item
    • A. 

      Has an assigned shelf-life period that may be extended.

    • B. 

      Should be returned to supply after expiration date.

    • C. 

      Should be inspected or tested.

    • D. 

      Has a definite nonextendible period of shelf-life.

  • 32. 
    (013) In the case of a failure trend that may contribute to accidents, deficiency reports (DR) are forwarded to
    • A. 

      Wing commander.

    • B. 

      Higher headquarters.

    • C. 

      Job control.

    • D. 

      Logistics commander.

  • 33. 
    (013) Within how many hours must Category I deficiency reports (DR) be forwarded to the originating point?
    • A. 

      24

    • B. 

      8

    • C. 

      72

    • D. 

      12

  • 34. 
    (014) When should new equipment account custodians receive training?
    • A. 

      Within 30 days of signing for the account.

    • B. 

      Before signing for the account.

    • C. 

      Within 15 days of signing for the account.

    • D. 

      Within 10 days of signing for the account.

  • 35. 
    (015) The first section of a technical order (TO) number identifies the
    • A. 

      Sectionalization of the TO.

    • B. 

      Type of instructions found in the TO.

    • C. 

      Category and the aircraft mission type in the TO.

    • D. 

      Model and series of the equipment covered by the TO.

  • 36. 
    (016) Which technical order (TO) describes the Air Force TO system?
    • A. 

      00-5-1

    • B. 

      00-5-2

    • C. 

      00-20-1

    • D. 

      00-25-1

  • 37. 
    (017) Which type of technical manual is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action?
    • A. 

      General Equipment.

    • B. 

      General System.

    • C. 

      Fault Isolation.

    • D. 

      Job Guide.

  • 38. 
    (017) Which type of manual is used by maintenance personnel as a means of isolating and rectifying system or component malfunctions?
    • A. 

      Job Guide.

    • B. 

      Fault Isolation.

    • C. 

      Fault Reporting.

    • D. 

      Illustrated Parts Breakdown.

  • 39. 
    (017) What section of the Illustrated Parts Breakdown (IPB) contains definitions of the codes used in the IPB?
    • A. 

      Introduction.

    • B. 

      Numerical index.

    • C. 

      Group assembly parts list.

    • D. 

      Reference designation index.

  • 40. 
    (018) What time compliance technical order (TCTO) category is issued to correct hazardous safety conditions that can result in a fatality or serious injury to personnel?
    • A. 

      Record.

    • B. 

      Urgent action.

    • C. 

      Routine action.

    • D. 

      Immediate action.

  • 41. 
    (018) What time compliance technical order (TCTO) category has alternately spaced red diagonals and Xs and red diagonals bordering the first page?
    • A. 

      Record.

    • B. 

      Urgent action.

    • C. 

      Routine action.

    • D. 

      Immediate action.

  • 42. 
    (021) In the reliability centered maintenance (RCM) approach, which preventative maintenance task is a scheduled inspection to detect a potential failure condition?
    • A. 

      Hard time.

    • B. 

      Lubrication.

    • C. 

      On condition.

    • D. 

      Failure finding.

  • 43. 
    (019) Which technical order (TO) covers all information concerning the Air Force TO system?
    • A. 

      00-5-1

    • B. 

      00-5-2

    • C. 

      00-20-1

    • D. 

      00-20-2

  • 44. 
    (019) Who originates technical orders?
    • A. 

      Section supervisor.

    • B. 

      Contracting squadron.

    • C. 

      Equipment manufacturer.

    • D. 

      Maintenance group commander.

  • 45. 
    (020) Who makes sure the Air Force technical order (AFTO) information management tool (IMT) Form 22 is valid and warrants submission?
    • A. 

      Initiator.

    • B. 

      Commander.

    • C. 

      Supervisor of initiator.

    • D. 

      Product improvement office.

  • 46. 
    (020) Which Air Force technical order (AFTO) information management tool (IMT) Form 22 recommendation would you submit that, if not corrected, could cause personnel injury or damage to equipment or property?
    • A. 

      Routine.

    • B. 

      Urgent.

    • C. 

      Emergency.

    • D. 

      Special.

  • 47. 
    (022) The primary goal of the engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D) program is to prevent or limit damage to turbine engines by
    • A. 

      Tracking serially controlled components and modules.

    • B. 

      Reviewing past engine accident investigation reports.

    • C. 

      Documenting engine overspeed and overtemperature conditions.

    • D. 

      Early detection of performance degradation and/or failures.

  • 48. 
    (022) Within the engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D) program, to whom do flight-line personnel transfer collected data for analysis?
    • A. 

      Product center engineers.

    • B. 

      Flight-line expediter.

    • C. 

      Depot-level engine maintenance shops.

    • D. 

      Base engine maintenance shop.

  • 49. 
    (022) Which technicians provide maintenance activity data to the engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D) program?
    • A. 

      Propulsion and depot.

    • B. 

      Depot and nondestructive inspection.

    • C. 

      Propulsion and nondestructive inspection.

    • D. 

      Environmental health and nondestructive inspection.

  • 50. 
    (023) Centralized repair facilities (CRF) provide support for whom?
    • A. 

      War fighters.

    • B. 

      Test cell personnel.

    • C. 

      Flight-line mechanics.

    • D. 

      Back shop mechanics.

  • 51. 
    (023) What drives the creation of a centralized rotable pool (CRP)?
    • A. 

      Equipment cost and repair time.

    • B. 

      Number of available spare engines.

    • C. 

      Number of assigned maintenance personnel.

    • D. 

      Customer wait time and transportation constraints.

  • 52. 
    (023) When a centralized repair facility (CRF) ships a replacement asset to a deployed unit, who is responsible for ensuring all appropriate documentation is completed?
    • A. 

      Supply personnel.

    • B. 

      Deployed unit personnel.

    • C. 

      Transportation personnel.

    • D. 

      CRF personnel.

  • 53. 
    (024) Depot maintenance provides support to base-level technicians by
    • A. 

      Notifying maintenance personnel of upcoming time compliance technical orders (TCTO).

    • B. 

      Providing technical assistance and performing repairs beyond their capability.

    • C. 

      Ensuring replacement parts are ordered in a timely manner.

    • D. 

      Providing the most current TO updates to the field.

  • 54. 
    (024) Depot level support includes depot field teams (DFT) and
    • A. 

      Contract field teams (CFT).

    • B. 

      Base jet engine run crews.

    • C. 

      Oil analysis teams.

    • D. 

      Slide engineers.

  • 55. 
    (025) A primary objective of the engine reporting system is to
    • A. 

      Schedule engine replacement times.

    • B. 

      Track parts replacement on jet engines.

    • C. 

      Report all engine-related discrepancies.

    • D. 

      Maintain accurate and timely engine inventories.

  • 56. 
    (026) For how many categories of reporting does the comprehensive engine management system (CEMS) establish and maintain records?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      5

  • 57. 
    (026) On which Air Force technical order (AFTO) form should you record the removal and replacement of engine accessories?
    • A. 

      25

    • B. 

      44

    • C. 

      95

    • D. 

      349

  • 58. 
    (026) To document information concerning the status of engine time compliance technical orders (TCTO), use Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form
    • A. 

      25

    • B. 

      95

    • C. 

      98

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 59. 
    (027) What is the purpose of the Lead the Fleet/Pacer programs?
    • A. 

      Prevent unscheduled removal of engines.

    • B. 

      Accelerate the flying rate of all the unit’s installed engines.

    • C. 

      Determine distress modes of an engine and its subsystems in the field.

    • D. 

      Identify engines requiring time compliance technical order (TCTO) maintenance.

  • 60. 
    (027) Which is not a Lead the Fleet/Pacer program objective?
    • A. 

      Evaluate the engine controls and accessories to include engine monitoring systems.

    • B. 

      Accurately update scheduled maintenance requirements.

    • C. 

      Reducing customer wait time for serviceable assets.

    • D. 

      Detect any unique durability problems that might force special scheduled inspections.

  • 61. 
    (028) Carrying a handtool in your pocket is potentially hazardous because it could cause
    • A. 

      Injury to you.

    • B. 

      Torn clothing.

    • C. 

      Electrical shock.

    • D. 

      Damage to the tool.

  • 62. 
    (028) You should wear eye protection when you work
    • A. 

      With tools that may cause flying particles.

    • B. 

      Where there is a fire hazard.

    • C. 

      Around any type of fluid.

    • D. 

      On any type of job.

  • 63. 
    (029) Which technical order (TO) covers calibration procedures for torque wrenches?
    • A. 

      1–1A–8 series.

    • B. 

      1–1A–14 series.

    • C. 

      32–1–101series.

    • D. 

      33K6 series.

  • 64. 
    (029) If you must torque a sequence of three or more bolts,
    • A. 

      Use maximum torque.

    • B. 

      Torque from left to right.

    • C. 

      Use a staggered sequence.

    • D. 

      Overtorque, loosen, and retorque.

  • 65. 
    (029) The length of a torque extension is determined by the distance between the center of the square drive and the center of the
    • A. 

      Lock.

    • B. 

      Broached opening

    • C. 

      Grip

    • D. 

      Shaft index line

  • 66. 
    (029) If you were tasked to measure the clearance between two surfaces, what type of gauge would you use?
    • A. 

      Steel-rule.

    • B. 

      Micrometer.

    • C. 

      Dial-indicator.

    • D. 

      Thickness gauge.

  • 67. 
    (030) The longest calibrated movement between the spindle and anvil of an outside micrometer is
    • A. 

      1 inch

    • B. 

      2 inches

    • C. 

      3 inches

    • D. 

      4 inches

  • 68. 
    (031) Where is the contact point on a dial indicator located?
    • A. 

      On the dial face.

    • B. 

      At the end of the anvil.

    • C. 

      At the end of the thimble.

    • D. 

      At the end of a pivoted lever.

  • 69. 
    (031) What feature is common to all dial indicators?
    • A. 

      Construction of indicator.

    • B. 

      Construction of indicating hand.

    • C. 

      Ability to amplify movement greatly.

    • D. 

      Ability to amplify movement slightly.

  • 70. 
    (032) The Fluke 8025A multimeter control that is used to set the meter to check for alternating current (AC) and direct current (DC) is the
    • A. 

      Touch-hold push-button switch.

    • B. 

      Function selector rotary switch.

    • C. 

      Range-mode pushbutton switch.

    • D. 

      Volts, ohms, diode test input jack.

  • 71. 
    (032) What is the maximum voltage that can be measured if the range button is set at 30 on the Fluke 8025A multimeter?
    • A. 

      28

    • B. 

      30

    • C. 

      32

    • D. 

      34

  • 72. 
    (033) For a borescope inspection and for a maximum benefit, which is not necessary for the inspector to have?
    • A. 

      Experience.

    • B. 

      Flexiblity.

    • C. 

      Integrity.

    • D. 

      Ability.

  • 73. 
    (034) A rigid borescope requires
    • A. 

      A direct and lateral straight shot at the inspection area.

    • B. 

      More skill to operate compared to a flexscope.

    • C. 

      More skill to operate compared to a flexscope.

    • D. 

      An angle shot at the inspection area.

  • 74. 
    (034) When operating a borescope, what part of the borescope illuminates the interior of the area you are inspecting?
    • A. 

      Control unit.

    • B. 

      Light guide tube.

    • C. 

      Distal tip light guides.

    • D. 

      Bending section lever.

  • 75. 
    (034) Which factor is not considered for borescope operator certification?
    • A. 

      Experience.

    • B. 

      Maturity.

    • C. 

      Rank.

    • D. 

      Age.

  • 76. 
    (034) Which type of borescope misuse causes a poor field of view (black spots)?
    • A. 

      Setting the light source selector switch on high.

    • B. 

      Operation of the bending section with the brake on.

    • C. 

      Application of lateral (pinching) pressure to the fiber bundle.

    • D. 

      Inserting tools in the working channel with the brake on.

  • 77. 
    (035) What type of bolt should be used where shearing stress occurs?
    • A. 

      Clevis.

    • B. 

      Eyebolt.

    • C. 

      Hexhead.

    • D. 

      Internal wrenching.

  • 78. 
    (035) Which nuts should never be used in areas where the temperature exceeds 250°F?
    • A. 

      Plain nuts.

    • B. 

      Wing nuts.

    • C. 

      Metallic self-locking nuts.

    • D. 

      Nonmetallic self-locking nuts.

  • 79. 
    (035) The shank of a screw is defined as the
    • A. 

      Combination of the body and the threads.

    • B. 

      Threaded portion of a screw.

    • C. 

      Portion extending from the top of the head to the bottom of the grip.

    • D. 

      Threadless portion of a screw.

  • 80. 
    (035) What type of washer is used to prevent corrosion of dissimilar metals?
    • A. 

      Plain.

    • B. 

      Lock.

    • C. 

      Star.

    • D. 

      Tab.

  • 81. 
    (036) What type of pin is used in joints that carry shear loads and where the absence of clearance is essential?
    • A. 

      Flathead.

    • B. 

      Tapered.

    • C. 

      Cotter.

    • D. 

      Shear.

  • 82. 
    (037) When you are lock wiring two units together, the first unit holes should be between what o’clock positions?
    • A. 

      3 and 6 o’clock.

    • B. 

      2 and 6 o’clock.

    • C. 

      5 and 12 o’clock.

    • D. 

      9 and 12 o’clock.

  • 83. 
    (037) When lock wiring, how many twists per inch are required to produce the proper stiffness?
    • A. 

      6 to 8.

    • B. 

      8 to 10.

    • C. 

      10 to 12.

    • D. 

      12 to 14.

  • 84. 
    (038) Why is it necessary to carefully remove support clamps when disconnecting tubes?
    • A. 

      Allows for ease of removal.

    • B. 

      Aids in further inspections.

    • C. 

      Prevents nicking and scratching.

    • D. 

      Prevents possible static electricity.

  • 85. 
    (038) Why should dust caps be installed over tube ends rather than inside them?
    • A. 

      Provides a tighter fit.

    • B. 

      Prevents nicking of inner tube surface.

    • C. 

      Avoids possibility of leaving caps installed.

    • D. 

      Provides less contact with corrosive lubricants.

  • 86. 
    (038) Never use oil as an aid to installing what kind of hoses?
    • A. 

      Hydraulic.

    • B. 

      Pneumatic.

    • C. 

      Self-sealing.

    • D. 

      High-pressure.

  • 87. 
    (039) What box in the AFTO Form 781H shows the highest symbol in the AFTO Form 781A’s?
    • A. 

      Box 4.

    • B. 

      Box 5.

    • C. 

      Box 6.

    • D. 

      Box 7.

  • 88. 
    (040) What area of a Line Replacement Unit (LRU) is most susceptible to Electrostatic Discharge (ESD)?
    • A. 

      Case.

    • B. 

      Pins.

    • C. 

      Wires.

    • D. 

      Caps.

  • 89. 
    (040) What must be done to a component after removing it from the engine?
    • A. 

      Preserve with fuel.

    • B. 

      Wrap in barrier paper.

    • C. 

      Preserve with engine oil.

    • D. 

      Cap and plug all openings.

  • 90. 
    (041) What is used to seal male flared-type fuel drain fittings on an engine being prepared for air shipment?
    • A. 

      Caps.

    • B. 

      Plugs.

    • C. 

      Plastic wrap.

    • D. 

      Barrier paper.

  • 91. 
    (042) The requirements for storing engines in a metal container is to maintain
    • A. 

      Nitrogen pressure.

    • B. 

      Engine dehydration.

    • C. 

      Warehouse facilities.

    • D. 

      Ventilatory plugs and caps.

  • 92. 
    (042) Which container does not require warehouse facilities?
    • A. 

      Shroud.

    • B. 

      Fiberglass reinforced plastic.

    • C. 

      Prefabricated.

    • D. 

      Flexible environment control.

  • 93. 
    (042) To release the internal air pressure in a shipping container/module, you must remove the
    • A. 

      Parting surface nuts.

    • B. 

      Parting surface bolts.

    • C. 

      Filler valve on the side end of the container.

    • D. 

      Filler valve on the front end of the container.

  • 94. 
    (043) What color is a serviceable humidity indicator on a shipping container?
    • A. 

      Red.

    • B. 

      Blue.

    • C. 

      Green.

    • D. 

      Lavender.

  • 95. 
    (043) What should you use to check for pressure leaks on an engine/module shipping container?
    • A. 

      Oil.

    • B. 

      Dry nitrogen.

    • C. 

      A leak detector.

    • D. 

      A soap-water solution.

  • 96. 
    (044) Prior to removing a shipping container lid, what warning must be observed?
    • A. 

      Ensure pressure is below 5 psi before loosening bolts.

    • B. 

      Ensure humidity indicator is blue.

    • C. 

      Release all pressure before removing lid.

    • D. 

      Loosen bolts in a staggered pattern to prevent warping.

  • 97. 
    (044) How many pins secure the adapters to the shipping container support?
    • A. 

      2.

    • B. 

      4.

    • C. 

      6.

    • D. 

      8.

  • 98. 
    (045) During the "over 180 days" preservation period, the fuel system is maintained full of
    • A. 

      Fuel.

    • B. 

      MIL-L-7808

    • C. 

      Calibration fluid.

    • D. 

      MIL-L-6081 (grade 1010).

  • 99. 
    (045) To prepare the engine fuel system for service after depreservation, you must flush the system with
    • A. 

      Oil.

    • B. 

      Fuel.

    • C. 

      PD-680.

    • D. 

      Calibration fluid.

  • 100. 
    (046) When metal is attacked by chemical corrosion, it will start
    • A. 

      Deep within the metal.

    • B. 

      On the surface of the metal.

    • C. 

      Throughout the metal all at once.

    • D. 

      Just under the surface of the metal.