How Much Do You Know About Trauma? Trivia Quiz

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How Much Do You Know About Trauma? Trivia Quiz - Quiz

How much do you know about trauma? According to our classes, we got to understand that trauma is a serious injury to the body. There are basically two types of trauma, which include blood force trauma and penetrating trauma. Take up this extensive trivia quiz and see what you know about these injuries and how to care for a patient with it.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The ______ consists of eight bones that encase and protect the brain
    • A. 

      Skull

    • B. 

      Cerebrum

    • C. 

      Cranial vault

    • D. 

      Cribiform plate

  • 2. 
    Which of the following statements regarding the nasal septum is most correct?
    • A. 

      It may be slightly deviated to one side or the other

    • B. 

      The nasal septum is comprised mainly of cartilage

    • C. 

      Inflammation of the nasal septum is common during infection

    • D. 

      The nasal septum separates the oropharynx and nasopharynx

  • 3. 
    Cerebrospinal fuild is manufactured in the _______ of the brain and serves to_______
    • A. 

      Subdural space, prevent infection

    • B. 

      Cortex, protect the brain injury

    • C. 

      Ventricles, cushion and protect the bain

    • D. 

      Subarachnoid space, oxygenate the brain

  • 4. 
    When assessing a patient with maxillofacial trauma, it is most important to
    • A. 

      Gently palpate the maxilla, mandible, and zygoma to elicit creipitus

    • B. 

      Protect the cervical spine and monitor the patient's neurologic status

    • C. 

      Apply a cervical collar and determine if the patient has visual disturbances

    • D. 

      Have the patient open his of her mouth and assess for dental malocclusion

  • 5. 
    General care for an eye injury involves
    • A. 

      Applying direct pressure to the globe

    • B. 

      Irrigating the eye with sterile saline solution

    • C. 

      Covering both eyes to minimize further injury

    • D. 

      Applying a cold compress to the eyeball

  • 6. 
    A patient with a dysconjugate gaze following an occular injury
    • A. 

      Most likely has a concomitant basilar skull fracture

    • B. 

      Should have ice applied to the eyes to prevent blindness

    • C. 

      Has discoordination between the movements of both eyes

    • D. 

      Should be treated by irrigating both eyes for 20 minutes

  • 7. 
    Alkali or strong acid burns to the eye should be irrigated for an absolute minimum of ______minutes.
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      15

    • C. 

      20

    • D. 

      30

  • 8. 
    A ruptured tympanic membrane
    • A. 

      Commonly results in permanent hearing loss

    • B. 

      Is characterized by CSF leakage from the ears

    • C. 

      Commonly leads to an infection of the middle ear

    • D. 

      Is extremely painful but typically heals spontaneously

  • 9. 
    The primary risk associated with oral and dental injuries is
    • A. 

      Malocclusion

    • B. 

      Intraoral infection

    • C. 

      Permanent tooth loss

    • D. 

      Airway compromise

  • 10. 
    Death following a head injury is almost always the result of 
    • A. 

      An epidural hematoma

    • B. 

      Trauma to the brain

    • C. 

      Airway compromise

    • D. 

      Spinal cord transection

  • 11. 
    What type of skull fracture is most common following high energy direct trauma to a small surface area of the head with a blunt object.
    • A. 

      Depressed fracture

    • B. 

      Open fracture

    • C. 

      Basilar fracture

    • D. 

      Nondisplaced fracture

  • 12. 
    When an unrestrained passenger's head strikes the windshield of a motor vehicle following rapid deceleration.
    • A. 

      The anterior portion of the brain sustains stretching or tearing injuries and the posterior portion of the brain sustains compression injuries

    • B. 

      The head falls back against the headrest or seat and the brain collides with the rear of the skull, resulting in direct injury to the occipital lobe

    • C. 

      The brain initially strikes the rear of the skull, resulting in direct bruising, and then rebounds and strikes the front part of the skull

    • D. 

      Compression injuries occur to the anterior portion of the brain and stretching or tearing injuries occur to the posterior portion of the brain

  • 13. 
    Decerebrate posturing is characterized by
    • A. 

      Flexion of the arms and extension of the legs

    • B. 

      Inward flexion of the wrists and flexed knees

    • C. 

      Extension of the arms and extension of the legs

    • D. 

      Pulling in of the arms toward the core of the body

  • 14. 
    Common clinical findings associated with a subdural hematoma including all of the following, except
    • A. 

      Rapidly increasing ICP

    • B. 

      An underlying skull fracture

    • C. 

      A fluctuating level of consciousness

    • D. 

      Unilateral hemiparesis or slurred speech

  • 15. 
    Chronic subdural hematomas are most commonly seen in the patients who
    • A. 

      Are less than 2 years of age

    • B. 

      Have alcoholism

    • C. 

      Are prone to hypoglycemia

    • D. 

      Have high cholesterol

  • 16. 
    When assessing the severity of a traumatic brain injury, the single most important assessment parameter is the patient's
    • A. 

      Initial GSC score

    • B. 

      Blood pressure

    • C. 

      Level of consciousness

    • D. 

      Response to verbal stimuli

  • 17. 
    The most effective method for decreasing morbidity and mortality associate dwith spinal cord injury is
    • A. 

      Rapid transportation to a trauma center

    • B. 

      Public education and prevention strategies

    • C. 

      Minimizing scene time to 10 minutes or less

    • D. 

      Routine use of spinal motion restriction precautions

  • 18. 
    The spine
    • A. 

      Is the major structural component of the axial skeleton

    • B. 

      Is comprised of irregular bones that are all fused together

    • C. 

      Consists of 23 bones articulating to form the spinal column

    • D. 

      Provides support and strength for the appendicular skeleton

  • 19. 
    Because of its weight-bearing capacity, the _______ spine is especially susceptible to injury.
    • A. 

      Cervical

    • B. 

      Thoracic

    • C. 

      Lumbar

    • D. 

      Coccygeal

  • 20. 
    As the body ages, the intervertebral discs
    • A. 

      Calcify and become more rigid

    • B. 

      Enlarge and result in increased height

    • C. 

      Are not able to protect the spinal cord

    • D. 

      Lose water content and become thinner

  • 21. 
    The ________ is a continuation of the central nervous system and exits the skull through the ________
    • A. 

      Vagus nerve, spinal cord

    • B. 

      Spinal cord, foramen magnum

    • C. 

      Brain stem, verebral foramen

    • D. 

      Medullar, cauda equina

  • 22. 
    Beta receptor stimulation results in all of the following effects, except
    • A. 

      Positive cardiac inotropy

    • B. 

      Positive cardiac chronotropy

    • C. 

      Vascular smooth muscle contraction

    • D. 

      Relaxation of bronchiole smooth muscle

  • 23. 
    A compression or burst fracture of the cervical spine would most likely occur following
    • A. 

      A direct blow to the occipital region of the skull

    • B. 

      Rapid acceleration following a motor vehicle crash

    • C. 

      Axial loading after a patient falls and lands feet first

    • D. 

      A significant fall in which the patient lands head first

  • 24. 
    In contrast to secondary spinal cord injury, primarily spinal cord injury occurs
    • A. 

      From progressive swelling

    • B. 

      At the moment of impact

    • C. 

      From penetrating mechanisms

    • D. 

      Within 24 hours of the injury

  • 25. 
    A complete spinal cord injury to the upper cervical spine
    • A. 

      Results in quadriplegia but the patient usually retains his or her ability to breathe spontaneously

    • B. 

      Is not compatible with life and results in immediate death due to cardiopulmonary failure

    • C. 

      Will result in permanent loss of all cord mediated functions below the level of the injury

    • D. 

      Results in neurologic dysfunction that is considered to be permanent if it lasts longer than 24 hours

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