3DX7X CDC Volume 2

70 Questions | Total Attempts: 136

SettingsSettingsSettings
Please wait...
3DX7X Quizzes & Trivia

.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    1. (201) Which deployment planning process develops predetermined responses to potential crises, determines forces required to achieve objectives, prepares deployment plans, and continually evaluates selected courses of action (COA)?
    • A. 

      A. Deliberate planning

    • B. 

      B. Crisis action planning

    • C. 

      C. Mobilization planning

    • D. 

      D. Force rotational planning

  • 2. 
    (201) Which War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volume provides a consolidated reference source for general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces in time of war?
    • A. 

      A. Volume 1

    • B. 

      B. Volume 2

    • C. 

      C. Volume 3

    • D. 

      D. Volume 4

  • 3. 
    (202) Who initiates the requirements or deployment sourcing process?
    • A. 

      A. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) Center.

    • B. 

      B. Installation Deployment Officer (IDO).

    • C. 

      C. Unit Deployment Monitor (UDM).

    • D. 

      D. Joint Staff.

  • 4. 
    (202) Which type of Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET) tasking is a service providing a force or capability in place of another service’s core mission?
    • A. 

      A. Standard unit type code (UTC).

    • B. 

      B. Joint force/capability.

    • C. 

      C. In-lieu-of (ILO).

    • D. 

      D. Ad hoc.

  • 5. 
    (203) Which of these is not an area measured and reported by Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS)?
    • A. 

      A. Training.

    • B. 

      B. Personnel.

    • C. 

      C. Facility condition.

    • D. 

      D. Equipment condition.

  • 6. 
    (203) Which of the following is not a readiness category measured by Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART)?
    • A. 

      A. Training.

    • B. 

      B. Personnel.

    • C. 

      C. Home station mission.

    • D. 

      D. Equipment condition.

  • 7. 
    (203) The Governing guidance for Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) reporting is AFI
    • A. 

      A. 10–201.

    • B. 

      B. 10–244.

    • C. 

      C. 10–401.

    • D. 

      D. 10–403.

  • 8. 
     (204) Which document provides detailed information and instructions on Designated Operational Capability (DOC) statements?
    • A. 

      A. AFI 10–201.

    • B. 

      B. AFI 10–244.

    • C. 

      C. AFI 10–401.

    • D. 

      D. AFI 10–403.

  • 9. 
    (204) Who develops logistics details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for unit type codes (UTC)?
    • A. 

      A. Pilot Units.

    • B. 

      B. Joint Planners.

    • C. 

      C. Logistics Readiness Squadron.

    • D. 

      D. Each unit is responsible for building its own LOGDET.

  • 10. 
    (205) Which is not an initial capability of the open the airbase force module?
    • A. 

      A. Force protection.

    • B. 

      B. Airfield operations.

    • C. 

      C. Force accountability.

    • D. 

      D. Explosive Ordinance Disposal (EOD).

  • 11. 
     (205) The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and Control module are
    • A. 

      A. force protection and logistics.

    • B. 

      B. intelligence and force protection.

    • C. 

      C. secure communications and intelligence.

    • D. 

      D. secure communications and force accountability.

  • 12. 
    (205) Which force module facilitates integration of open the airbase and command and control force module capabilities to enable the airfield to generate air support to accomplish its assigned mission?
    • A. 

      A. Robust the airbase.

    • B. 

      B. Operate the airbase.

    • C. 

      C. Establish the airbase.

    • D. 

      D. Generate the mission.

  • 13. 
    (205) Within how many days after open the airbase does the operate the airbase force module arrive, and when is delivery estimated to be complete?
    • A. 

      A. 2 days, 7 days.

    • B. 

      B. 2 days, 14 days.

    • C. 

      C. 7 days, 14 days.

    • D. 

      D. 14 days, 30 days.

  • 14. 
    (205) Which force module contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 days after the deployed location is established?
    • A. 

      A. Generate the mission.

    • B. 

      B. Establish the airbase.

    • C. 

      C. Operate the airbase.

    • D. 

      D. Robust the airbase.

  • 15. 
    (206) The Contingency Response Wing headquarters is located at
    • A. 

      A. Scott AFB, IL.

    • B. 

      B. Travis AFB, CA.

    • C. 

      C. Peterson AFB, CO.

    • D. 

      D. Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ.

  • 16. 
    (206) What is the typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group commander?
    • A. 

      A. O–4.

    • B. 

      B. O–5.

    • C. 

      C. O–6.

    • D. 

      D. O–7.

  • 17. 
    (206) Which force module supported by Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) is established within 48 hours and supports 50 to150 users in a café environment?
    • A. 

      A. Command and control.

    • B. 

      B. Operate the airbase.

    • C. 

      C. Robust the airbase.

    • D. 

      D. Open the airbase.

  • 18. 
    (206) In the operate the air base module, what is the maximum distance an extended site can be located from the base Network Control Center Deployed (NCC-D)?
    • A. 

      A. 2 kilometers (km).

    • B. 

      B. 4 km.

    • C. 

      C. 8 km.

    • D. 

      D. 16 km.

  • 19. 
    (207) Which is not a division of the Air and Space Operations Center?
    • A. 

      A. Strategy.

    • B. 

      B. Combat plans.

    • C. 

      C. Combat support.

    • D. 

      D. Combat operations.

  • 20. 
    (207) Which of the following is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS)?
    • A. 

      A. MQ–9 Reaper.

    • B. 

      B. RQ–11B Raven.

    • C. 

      C. MQ–1B Predator.

    • D. 

      D. RQ–4B Global Hawk.

  • 21. 
    (208) Which of the following is not a career field assigned to engineering installation units?
    • A. 

      A. 3D0X3, Cyber Surety.

    • B. 

      B. 3D1X2, Cyber Transport Systems.

    • C. 

      C. 3D1X3, RF Transmission Systems.

    • D. 

      D. 3D1X7, Cable and Antenna Systems.

  • 22. 
    (208) Which Engineering Installation (EI) unit has the only flight assigned that supports a 72 hour rapid response force during crisis providing specialized engineering support in telecommunications and electromagnetic spectrum field analysis?
    • A. 

      A. 38 Engineering Squadron (ES).

    • B. 

      B. 38 Contracting Squadron (CONS).

    • C. 

      C. 38 Operations Support Squadron (OSS).

    • D. 

      D. 85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS).

  • 23. 
    (208) All armed forces broadcasting affiliates merged under the American Forces Network (AFN) in
    • A. 

      A. 1942.

    • B. 

      B. 1954.

    • C. 

      C. 1988.

    • D. 

      D. 1998.

  • 24. 
    (209) What Methods and Procedures Technical Order (MPTO) defines project management as the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project objectives?
    • A. 

      A. MPTO 00–33A–1001.

    • B. 

      B. MPTO 00–33A–1002.

    • C. 

      C. MPTO 00–33A–2001.

    • D. 

      D. MPTO 00–33A–2002.

  • 25. 
    (209) The five phases of Project Management are initiate,
    • A. 

      A. funding, execute, close, and control.

    • B. 

      B. plan, execute, monitor, and control.

    • C. 

      C. plan, execute, close, and control.

    • D. 

      D. plan, control, close, and support.