Defensor Fortis - Volume 2
5 level
Questions and Answers
- 1.
In relations to mental preparedness to employ force, when personnel fear becoming the victim of close-range aggression or may have concerns about inflicting injury or death, this fear can cause.
- A.
Selfishness.
- B.
Higher awareness
- C.
Insecurity and isolation
- D.
Tentativeness and hesitation.
Correct Answer
D. Tentativeness and hesitation.Explanation
When personnel fear becoming the victim of close-range aggression or may have concerns about inflicting injury or death, it is natural for them to feel insecure and isolated. This fear can lead to tentativeness and hesitation in their actions, as they may be unsure of how to proceed or reluctant to take decisive action. This can be a result of their mental preparedness being affected by the fear, causing them to second-guess themselves and be cautious in their approach.Rate this question:
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- 2.
What level of force does the US Supreme Court hold as reasonable under the 4th Amendment as it pertains to law enforcement and security personnel in the context of making an arrest or other seizure of a person? Law enforcement and security personnel
- A.
Have to apply the minimum force needed to apprehend the subject.
- B.
Have to apply the least intrusive force to apprehend the subject.
- C.
Must only use deadly force when the subject resist apprehension.
- D.
Do not have to apply the least intrusive force alternative, only a reasonable one to apprehend the subject.
Correct Answer
D. Do not have to apply the least intrusive force alternative, only a reasonable one to apprehend the subject.Explanation
Law enforcement and security personnel are not required to use the least intrusive force alternative, but rather a reasonable amount of force to apprehend a subject. This means that they are allowed to use force that is necessary and appropriate given the circumstances, but it does not have to be the least intrusive option available. The key is that the force used must be reasonable in relation to the situation at hand.Rate this question:
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- 3.
In which situation would you not be authorized to use deadly force?
- A.
Protect inherently dangerous property.
- B.
Protect assets vital to national security.
- C.
Keep someone from breaking into a government vehicle.
- D.
Protect others from imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm.
Correct Answer
C. Keep someone from breaking into a government vehicle.Explanation
In this situation, you would not be authorized to use deadly force to keep someone from breaking into a government vehicle. Deadly force is typically only authorized when there is an imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm to oneself or others. While protecting assets vital to national security and others from imminent danger would potentially justify the use of deadly force, protecting inherently dangerous property does not necessarily meet the threshold for the use of deadly force.Rate this question:
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- 4.
What are the standing rules of engagement (ROE) for US forces?
- A.
Permits defenders to open fire upon all identified enemy targets.
- B.
Permits defenders to fire weapons in self-defense, nation defense, or unit defense.
- C.
Prohibits defenders to fire weapons in self-defense, nation defense, or unit defense.
- D.
Requires defenders to get authorization before firing upon identified enemy targets.
Correct Answer
B. Permits defenders to fire weapons in self-defense, nation defense, or unit defense.Explanation
The standing rules of engagement (ROE) for US forces permit defenders to fire weapons in self-defense, nation defense, or unit defense. This means that if US forces are under attack or facing a threat, they are authorized to use their weapons to protect themselves, their nation, or their unit. This allows them to respond to enemy targets and engage in defensive actions without needing prior authorization.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What are the two distinct categories of rules of engagement (ROE)?
- A.
See first and act first.
- B.
First in and fit to fight.
- C.
Defense of others and operationally fortified.
- D.
Self-defense and mission accomplishment.
Correct Answer
D. Self-defense and mission accomplishment.Explanation
The two distinct categories of rules of engagement (ROE) are self-defense and mission accomplishment. Self-defense refers to the rules that allow military personnel to use force to protect themselves or their unit from immediate threat or harm. Mission accomplishment, on the other hand, pertains to the rules that outline the objectives and goals that need to be achieved during a military operation. These two categories ensure that military personnel are able to defend themselves while also fulfilling their mission objectives.Rate this question:
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- 6.
What should not be confused with rules of engagement (ROE) during peacetime operations within a US territory?
- A.
Law of armed conflict.
- B.
Rules for use of force.
- C.
Operational orders.
- D.
Operations plans.
Correct Answer
B. Rules for use of force.Explanation
During peacetime operations within a US territory, the rules of engagement (ROE) dictate the circumstances and limitations under which military force can be used. The law of armed conflict, operational orders, and operations plans are all separate concepts that are distinct from ROE. The law of armed conflict refers to the legal framework governing the conduct of armed forces during armed conflicts, while operational orders and operations plans are strategic and tactical plans for military operations. Therefore, the correct answer is that rules for use of force should not be confused with ROE during peacetime operations within a US territory.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Operations plans.
- A.
Words are chosen carefully during a conversation.
- B.
Words occur naturally during a conversation.
- C.
The communicator reads it directly from a form.
- D.
The communicator is in a hurry.
Correct Answer
A. Words are chosen carefully during a conversation.Explanation
In a conversation, the choice of words is important as they can have a significant impact on the message being conveyed. The communicator carefully selects words to ensure that the intended meaning is effectively communicated and understood by the listener. This approach allows for clear and concise communication, minimizing the risk of misunderstandings or misinterpretations.Rate this question:
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- 8.
How do you place a suspect on foot into the final challenge position?
- A.
Command, subject to “HALT,” bring your M4 carbine to port arms or your M9 pistol to ready pistol and contact BDOC for further direction to disposition of the individual.
- B.
Command subject to slowly place identification on the ground then turn around and walk approximately six paces away from you.
- C.
Command, “RAISE YOUR HANDS ABOVE YOUR HEAD, SPREAD YOUR FINGERS, AND SPREAD YOUR FEET, and POINT YOUR TOES OUTWARD. “
- D.
Command, “RAISE YOUR HANDS ABOVE YOUR HEAD, SPREAD YOUR FINGERS, DROP TO YOUR KNEES, and CROSS YOUR FEET.”
Correct Answer
C. Command, “RAISE YOUR HANDS ABOVE YOUR HEAD, SPREAD YOUR FINGERS, AND SPREAD YOUR FEET, and POINT YOUR TOES OUTWARD. “Explanation
The correct answer is to command the suspect to raise their hands above their head, spread their fingers, spread their feet, and point their toes outward. This position helps to ensure that the suspect is in a vulnerable and controlled position, making it easier for the authorities to approach and apprehend them safely.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Prior to applying handcuffs, you gain positive control of a subject by grasping the
- A.
Back of the neck.
- B.
Wrist of the farthest hand.
- C.
Ring or middle finger.
- D.
Wrist of the nearest hand.
Correct Answer
C. Ring or middle finger.Explanation
To gain positive control of a subject before applying handcuffs, it is necessary to grasp the ring or middle finger. This allows the person applying the handcuffs to have a firm grip on the subject's hand, ensuring that they cannot escape or resist arrest easily. Grasping the back of the neck, wrist of the farthest hand, or wrist of the nearest hand may not provide the same level of control and could allow the subject to potentially break free or pose a threat to the arresting officer.Rate this question:
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- 10.
When conducting a search of an individual, for quickness, your search should be
- A.
Complete and simple.
- B.
Systematic and simple.
- C.
Complete and thorough.
- D.
Systematic and thorough.
Correct Answer
D. Systematic and thorough.Explanation
When conducting a search of an individual, it is important to be systematic and thorough. Being systematic means following a logical and organized approach to the search, ensuring that no important information is missed. Being thorough means leaving no stone unturned and exploring all possible sources of information. By being systematic and thorough, you increase the chances of finding accurate and comprehensive results in your search for an individual.Rate this question:
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- 11.
What type of search is primarily used on suspects who do not appear dangerous, violent, or so drunk they cannot stand under their own power?
- A.
Wall.
- B.
Prone.
- C.
Kneeling.
- D.
Standing.
Correct Answer
D. Standing.Explanation
Standing is the correct answer because it implies that the search is conducted on suspects who are not perceived as physically threatening or incapacitated. This type of search is typically less invasive and is commonly used when there is no immediate danger or need to restrain the suspect. It allows the officer to ensure the safety of themselves and others while also respecting the rights and dignity of the individual being searched.Rate this question:
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- 12.
When compared to deadly force, non-lethal force is subject to what type of standards?
- A.
Same standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force.
- B.
Lower standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force.
- C.
Higher standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force.
- D.
Different standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force.
Correct Answer
A. Same standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force.Explanation
Non-lethal force is subject to the same standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force. This means that the use of non-lethal force must be justified based on the same criteria as the use of deadly force. The decision to use non-lethal force must be reasonable and based on the circumstances at hand. This ensures that non-lethal force is not used excessively or inappropriately, and that it is only used when necessary to protect oneself or others.Rate this question:
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- 13.
What is the level of force necessary to compel a subject’s compliance and is neither likely nor intended to cause death?
- A.
Minimum use of force.
- B.
Maximum use of force.
- C.
Transitional use of force.
- D.
Intermediate use of force.
Correct Answer
D. Intermediate use of force.Explanation
The level of force necessary to compel a subject's compliance and is neither likely nor intended to cause death is referred to as intermediate use of force. This means that it is a level of force that is stronger than minimum use of force but not as extreme as maximum use of force. It is a level of force that is used when necessary to gain compliance from a subject without causing harm or death.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What combative technique is used to protect your head from strikes while in the ready stance?
- A.
T-position.
- B.
Shrimping.
- C.
Comb blocks.
- D.
Standup to base.
Correct Answer
C. Comb blocks.Explanation
Comb blocks are a combative technique used to protect the head from strikes while in the ready stance. This technique involves using the forearms and hands to create a protective barrier around the head, blocking and deflecting incoming strikes. By using comb blocks, one can effectively defend against punches, kicks, and other strikes aimed at the head, reducing the risk of injury.Rate this question:
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- 15.
How do you attain weapons retention during a rear mount?
- A.
By grabbing your weapon with your weapons side (WS) hand.
- B.
By grabbing your weapon with your support side (SS) hand.
- C.
By rolling onto support side (SS), keeping holstered weapon away from suspect.
- D.
By rolling onto your Weapons Side (WS), keeping holstered weapon pinned against the ground.
Correct Answer
D. By rolling onto your Weapons Side (WS), keeping holstered weapon pinned against the ground.Explanation
To attain weapons retention during a rear mount, the correct technique is to roll onto your Weapons Side (WS) and keep your holstered weapon pinned against the ground. This helps to secure the weapon and prevent it from being accessed or taken by the suspect. Rolling onto the support side (SS) or grabbing the weapon with the SS hand may not provide the same level of retention and control.Rate this question:
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- 16.
To ensure the safety of the patrol officer and for legal precautions , what should you do before placing suspect in a Security Forces (SF) vehicle for transporting?
- A.
Advise the suspect of rights.
- B.
Handcuff the suspect’s hands in the front.
- C.
Search or frisk the suspect for weapons and contraband.
- D.
Have a second SF member ride in the back with the suspect.
Correct Answer
C. Search or frisk the suspect for weapons and contraband.Explanation
Before placing a suspect in a Security Forces (SF) vehicle for transporting, it is important to search or frisk the suspect for weapons and contraband. This is necessary to ensure the safety of the patrol officer and to prevent any potential harm or danger during transportation. By conducting a search or frisk, any hidden weapons or contraband can be identified and confiscated, reducing the risk of harm to everyone involved. This step is crucial for legal precautions as well, as it helps to maintain the integrity of the legal process and ensures that the suspect is not able to harm themselves or others during transportation.Rate this question:
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- 17.
What are the minimum requirements any time you are transporting a member of the opposite sex?
- A.
Have an additional patrol officer as a passenger.
- B.
Have a family member or friend ride in the front seat.
- C.
Notify Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) of ending mileage.
- D.
Have a second patrol officer follow you to Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC).
Correct Answer
A. Have an additional patrol officer as a passenger.Explanation
The minimum requirement when transporting a member of the opposite sex is to have an additional patrol officer as a passenger. This is to ensure the safety and professionalism of the situation, as having another officer present can help prevent any potential misconduct or false accusations. It also provides a witness in case any issues or conflicts arise during the transportation.Rate this question:
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- 18.
To whom do you release civilians who commit a minor offense in areas with concurrent jurisdiction?
- A.
US Marshal.
- B.
Military sponsor.
- C.
Local law enforcement.
- D.
Air Force Office of Special Investigations AFOSI.
Correct Answer
B. Military sponsor.Explanation
In areas with concurrent jurisdiction, civilians who commit a minor offense are released to their military sponsor. This means that if a civilian is affiliated with the military in some way, such as being a dependent or a contractor, their military sponsor is responsible for their actions. The military sponsor will handle the situation and ensure that appropriate actions are taken, such as counseling or disciplinary measures, if necessary. This allows for a more streamlined process and ensures that the civilian's actions are addressed within the military framework.Rate this question:
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- 19.
What type of mandatory training is needed if you are armed with an expandable baton?
- A.
Annual refresher.
- B.
Quarterly refresher.
- C.
Initial and annual refresher.
- D.
Initial and semiannual refresher.
Correct Answer
C. Initial and annual refresher.Explanation
If someone is armed with an expandable baton, they would need to undergo initial training to learn how to properly and safely use the weapon. This initial training would cover the basics and ensure that the person understands the proper techniques and protocols. After the initial training, they would then need to undergo an annual refresher to reinforce their skills and knowledge, as well as stay up to date with any changes or updates in procedures. Therefore, the correct answer is "Initial and annual refresher."Rate this question:
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- 20.
How long should a direct pepper spray burst at the subject’s facial area last?
- A.
1 second.
- B.
3 seconds.
- C.
5 seconds.
- D.
7 seconds.
Correct Answer
A. 1 second.Explanation
The correct answer is 1 second because pepper spray is a highly potent irritant and a short burst of 1 second is typically enough to incapacitate an attacker. Using the spray for a longer duration may cause excessive harm to the subject and can be considered excessive force.Rate this question:
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- 21.
How many barbed projectiles (probes) does the electronic control device (ECD) neuro- muscular incapacitation (NMI) system use when fired?
- A.
One
- B.
Two
- C.
Three
- D.
Four
Correct Answer
B. TwoExplanation
The electronic control device (ECD) neuro-muscular incapacitation (NMI) system uses two barbed projectiles (probes) when fired. These probes are designed to attach to the target's clothing or skin, delivering an electric shock that temporarily incapacitates the individual. Having two probes increases the chances of successful attachment and ensures that the electrical current flows effectively through the target's body, maximizing the device's effectiveness.Rate this question:
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- 22.
How do you read a grid map in order to find a grid coordinate?How do you read a grid map in order to find a grid coordinate?
- A.
From top to bottom, left to right.
- B.
From right to left, top to bottom.
- C.
From left to right, bottom to top.
- D.
From bottom to top, left to right.
Correct Answer
C. From left to right, bottom to top.Explanation
To find a grid coordinate on a grid map, you read the map from left to right and from bottom to top. This means you start at the left side of the map and move horizontally to the right, and then move vertically from the bottom of the map to the top. This reading direction ensures that you cover all the grid cells in a systematic manner and can accurately determine the grid coordinate.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which agency assumes lead responsibilities for terrorist and high-risk incidents within US territories?
- A.
Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI).
- B.
Federal Bureau of Investigations (FBI).
- C.
Department of Justice (DOJ).
- D.
Department of State (DOS).
Correct Answer
C. Department of Justice (DOJ).Explanation
The Department of Justice (DOJ) assumes lead responsibilities for terrorist and high-risk incidents within US territories. The DOJ is responsible for enforcing federal laws, preventing and controlling crime, and ensuring public safety. It has various agencies, such as the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), that play a crucial role in investigating and combating terrorism. The DOJ's expertise and jurisdiction make it the appropriate agency to take the lead in handling such incidents.Rate this question:
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- 24.
What must be established at each incident site?
- A.
Cordon and entry control point (ECP).
- B.
Secondary ECP.
- C.
Cordon and operational rally point.
- D.
Evacuation point.
Correct Answer
A. Cordon and entry control point (ECP).Explanation
At each incident site, it is necessary to establish a cordon and entry control point (ECP). This is important for maintaining the security and safety of the area. The cordon helps to restrict access to the incident site, preventing unauthorized individuals from entering and potentially interfering with the response efforts. The entry control point is where authorized personnel can gain access to the site after being properly identified and screened. By establishing a cordon and ECP, responders can effectively manage the incident and ensure that only authorized personnel are allowed access, minimizing the risk of further harm or disruption.Rate this question:
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- 25.
What type of search consists of searching all areas of a vehicle without disassembling any part of the vehicle?
- A.
Simple.
- B.
Partial.
- C.
Complete.
- D.
Plainview.
Correct Answer
A. Simple.Explanation
A simple search involves searching all areas of a vehicle without the need to disassemble any part of it. This means that the search is conducted by visually inspecting the vehicle and its compartments, without the need for any additional tools or techniques. This type of search is typically conducted when there is a need to quickly assess the presence of any visible items or evidence within the vehicle.Rate this question:
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- 26.
How should you mark the boundary of mass parking and temporary restricted areas?
- A.
Flat markers.
- B.
Lights and cones.
- C.
Elevated markers.
- D.
Posted SF personnel.
Correct Answer
C. Elevated markers.Explanation
Elevated markers should be used to mark the boundary of mass parking and temporary restricted areas. This is because elevated markers are more visible and can be easily spotted from a distance, ensuring that drivers are aware of the boundaries and do not enter these areas. Flat markers may not be as noticeable, lights and cones can be easily moved or knocked over, and relying on posted SF personnel may not be feasible or practical in all situations. Therefore, elevated markers are the most effective option for marking these boundaries.Rate this question:
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- 27.
What type of search consists of a much more detailed search and may often require partial or total disassembly of the vehicle?
- A.
Simple.
- B.
Partial.
- C.
Complete.
- D.
Plainview.
Correct Answer
C. Complete.Explanation
A complete search refers to a thorough and detailed examination of a vehicle, which may involve partial or total disassembly of the vehicle. This type of search is conducted to ensure that no hidden or concealed items or evidence are missed. It is a comprehensive and meticulous process that leaves no stone unturned in the search for any relevant information or evidence.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What must the SF on-scene commander (OSC) evaluate before making the decision on how to search an area?
- A.
How to employ different types of searching techniques.
- B.
Items to be searched, local law enforcement availability, and area.
- C.
Situation, terrain, weather, light, and number of searchers available.
- D.
D. Number of patrols available, weather, and if the unit commander concurs.
Correct Answer
C. Situation, terrain, weather, light, and number of searchers available.Explanation
The SF on-scene commander (OSC) must evaluate the situation, terrain, weather, light, and number of searchers available before making the decision on how to search an area. These factors are crucial in determining the most effective and efficient searching techniques to employ. The situation will provide information on the urgency and nature of the search, while the terrain and weather will affect the accessibility and visibility of the area. The amount of available light will also impact search operations. Finally, the number of searchers available will determine the manpower and resources that can be allocated to the search.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which of the following is not a reason to make an entry without search authority?
- A.
To secure an unlocked door.
- B.
To prevent injury to persons.
- C.
To render aid to someone in danger.
- D.
To prevent serious damage to property.
Correct Answer
A. To secure an unlocked door.Explanation
Making an entry without search authority is not a reason to secure an unlocked door. The other options - preventing injury to persons, rendering aid to someone in danger, and preventing serious damage to property - are all valid reasons to make an entry without search authority. However, securing an unlocked door does not fall under the category of emergency situations or immediate threats that would justify entering without search authority.Rate this question:
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- 30.
When processing a crime scene, when would you normally cover the body of a deceased person?
- A.
Before it has been fully processed for evidence.
- B.
After it has been fully processed for evidence.
- C.
After the coroner pronounces them dead.
- D.
After the body has been photographed.
Correct Answer
B. After it has been fully processed for evidence.Explanation
When processing a crime scene, it is important to prioritize the collection of evidence. Covering the body of a deceased person should typically be done after it has been fully processed for evidence. This ensures that all potential evidence, such as fingerprints, DNA, or trace evidence, has been collected before the body is covered. This allows investigators to thoroughly examine the body for any possible clues or evidence that may aid in solving the crime.Rate this question:
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- 31.
What are the two types of sketches normally made of the crime scene?
- A.
Rough and refine.
- B.
Partial and refined.
- C.
Rough and finished.
- D.
Partial and complete.
Correct Answer
C. Rough and finished.Explanation
The correct answer is "Rough and finished." In crime scene investigations, rough sketches are typically made first to provide a general overview of the scene, including the location of evidence and important objects. These sketches are often hand-drawn and may not be to scale. Once the rough sketch is complete, a more detailed and accurate finished sketch is created. The finished sketch includes precise measurements, scale, and additional details that accurately represent the crime scene. This type of sketch is often used as evidence in court proceedings.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What document establishes the rules of evidence for the military?
- A.
Federal Rules of Evidence.
- B.
Manual for Courts Martial.
- C.
Federal Statutes of Evidence.
- D.
Uniform Code of Military Justice.
Correct Answer
B. Manual for Courts Martial.Explanation
The Manual for Courts Martial establishes the rules of evidence for the military. It is a comprehensive document that outlines the procedures and standards for presenting and evaluating evidence in military courts. The Manual provides guidance on admissibility, authentication, privilege, and other important aspects of evidence. It is a crucial resource for military judges, attorneys, and other personnel involved in the military justice system.Rate this question:
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- 33.
From whom must you obtain approval before disposing of crime scene evidence?
- A.
Staff Judge Advocate (SJA).
- B.
Defense Force Commander (DFC).
- C.
Federal Bureau of Investigations (FBI).
- D.
Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI).
Correct Answer
A. Staff Judge Advocate (SJA).Explanation
The correct answer is Staff Judge Advocate (SJA). The SJA is responsible for providing legal advice and guidance to military personnel, including the proper handling and disposal of crime scene evidence. As such, they must grant approval before any evidence can be disposed of. The Defense Force Commander (DFC) may have authority over the overall investigation, but the SJA is specifically responsible for the legal aspects of evidence handling. The FBI and AFOSI may be involved in the investigation, but they do not have the final authority to approve the disposal of evidence.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) article covers the wrongful use and possession of a controlled substance?
- A.
Article 92.
- B.
Article 108.
- C.
Article 112a.
- D.
Article 123a.
Correct Answer
C. Article 112a.Explanation
Article 112a of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) covers the wrongful use and possession of a controlled substance. This article specifically addresses the illegal use, possession, distribution, and introduction of controlled substances into the military. It outlines the penalties and punishments for such offenses, which may include imprisonment, dishonorable discharge, and forfeiture of pay and allowances. This article is crucial in maintaining discipline and ensuring the integrity of the military by prohibiting the use and possession of illegal drugs.Rate this question:
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- 35.
When dealing with controlled substances, how is wrongfulness defined? An action done
- A.
To show inability to take full responsibility for actions.
- B.
Without legal justification or authorization.
- C.
With full medical justification and authorization.
- D.
With legal authorization and personal justification.
Correct Answer
B. Without legal justification or authorization.Explanation
Wrongfulness when dealing with controlled substances is defined as an action done without legal justification or authorization. This means that the action is not permitted by law and does not have the necessary permission or authorization from the appropriate authorities.Rate this question:
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- 36.
What agency has primary jurisdiction for serious child abuse or neglect involving infliction of serious bodily harm?
- A.
Family Advocacy Officer (FAO).
- B.
Federal Bureau of Investigations (FBI).
- C.
Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC).
- D.
Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI).
Correct Answer
D. Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI).Explanation
The Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI) has primary jurisdiction for serious child abuse or neglect involving infliction of serious bodily harm. AFOSI is responsible for investigating and preventing criminal activities within the Air Force, including child abuse cases. They have specialized agents and resources to handle such serious offenses and ensure the safety and well-being of children in the Air Force community.Rate this question:
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- 37.
What form will be completed in all instances where an apprehension is made?
- A.
AF Form 1109.
- B.
AF Form 1297.
- C.
AF Form 1920.
- D.
AF Form 3545.
Correct Answer
D. AF Form 3545.Explanation
The correct answer is AF Form 3545. This form is used for documenting apprehensions in all instances. It is a standard form used by the Air Force to record and report apprehensions. It includes information such as the date, time, and location of the apprehension, as well as details about the individual being apprehended. By completing this form, the Air Force ensures that all apprehensions are properly documented and can be reviewed and tracked as needed.Rate this question:
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- 38.
What is conducted during a domestic dispute/violence call to assess the immediate danger to family members and need for medical assistance or protective custody?
- A.
Rights advisement.
- B.
Complete search.
- C.
Interrogation.
- D.
Interview.
Correct Answer
D. Interview.Explanation
During a domestic dispute/violence call, an interview is conducted to assess the immediate danger to family members and determine the need for medical assistance or protective custody. This involves gathering information from the individuals involved, witnesses, or any other relevant parties to understand the situation better and make informed decisions regarding the safety and well-being of those involved. An interview allows for a comprehensive evaluation of the circumstances and helps authorities determine the appropriate course of action.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Which of the following is not one of the three types of child abuse?
- A.
Neglect.
- B.
Sexual abuse.
- C.
Mental abuse.
- D.
Physical abuse.
Correct Answer
C. Mental abuse.Explanation
The question asks to identify the type of child abuse that is not one of the three types mentioned. The three types of child abuse listed are neglect, sexual abuse, and physical abuse. Mental abuse is not listed among them, making it the correct answer. Mental abuse refers to the emotional or psychological harm inflicted on a child, such as constant criticism, humiliation, or rejection. While it is a form of child abuse, it is not included in the options provided in the question.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Child pornography and child prostitution are examples of what type of child abuse?
- A.
Neglect.
- B.
Sexual.
- C.
Mental.
- D.
Physical.
Correct Answer
B. Sexual.Explanation
Child pornography and child prostitution involve the sexual exploitation of children, which is a form of sexual abuse. These activities violate the rights and well-being of children, causing significant harm and trauma. By categorizing them as examples of sexual abuse, it highlights the predatory and harmful nature of these actions towards children.Rate this question:
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- 41.
What type of child abuse is exemplified by not providing nourishment, deprivation of necessities, and not providing appropriate shelter, or clothing?
- A.
Neglect.
- B.
Sexual.
- C.
Mental.
- D.
Physical.
Correct Answer
A. Neglect.Explanation
Neglect is the correct answer because it refers to the failure of a caregiver to provide for a child's basic needs, such as nourishment, necessities, shelter, and clothing. This type of child abuse involves the caregiver's inaction or lack of attention towards the child's well-being, which can have severe physical, emotional, and developmental consequences. Neglect can be intentional or unintentional, but it is always harmful to the child's overall health and development.Rate this question:
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- 42.
What characteristics you can show at your initial contact with a sexual assault/rape victim can make a difference in the emotional state of the victim?
- A.
Your tact and poise.
- B.
Your ability to cope.
- C.
Your physical appearance.
- D.
Your tone of voice and manners.
Correct Answer
A. Your tact and poise.Explanation
Showing tact and poise when initially contacting a sexual assault/rape victim can make a difference in their emotional state. Tact refers to being sensitive and careful in your approach, while poise refers to maintaining composure and professionalism. By displaying these characteristics, you can create a safe and supportive environment for the victim, helping them feel more comfortable and validated. This can positively impact their emotional well-being, as they may be more likely to trust and open up to someone who demonstrates tact and poise.Rate this question:
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- 43.
What is defined as a threat or attempt to strike another, whether successful or not, provided the target is aware of the danger?
- A.
Aggravated Assault.
- B.
Simple Assault.
- C.
Assault.
- D.
Battery.
Correct Answer
C. Assault.Explanation
Assault is defined as a threat or attempt to strike another person, whether successful or not, as long as the target is aware of the danger. This means that even if the actual physical contact or harm does not occur, the act of threatening or attempting to strike someone can still be considered assault. Aggravated Assault refers to a more serious form of assault, usually involving a weapon or causing severe injury. Simple Assault is a less severe form of assault, typically involving minor injuries or threats. Battery, on the other hand, refers specifically to the intentional physical contact or harm caused to another person.Rate this question:
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- 44.
What type of assault is punishable in all states as a felony and is committed when a defendant tends to do more than merely frighten the victim
- A.
Aggravated assault.
- B.
Simple assault.
- C.
Assault
- D.
Battery
Correct Answer
A. Aggravated assault.Explanation
Aggravated assault is the correct answer because it is a type of assault that is punishable in all states as a felony. Unlike simple assault, which involves merely frightening the victim, aggravated assault involves the defendant intending to cause serious harm or injury to the victim. It is considered a more severe offense and carries harsher penalties. Battery, on the other hand, refers to the actual physical contact or harm caused to the victim.Rate this question:
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- 45.
What are the four phases of the judicial process in which you must brief all victims and witnesses on in the victim/witness assistance program?
- A.
Notification, response, confinement, and release.
- B.
Response, investigation, prosecution, and confinement
- C.
Report, investigation, administrative action, confinement.
- D.
Initial contact, administrative, prosecution, and confinement.
Correct Answer
B. Response, investigation, prosecution, and confinementExplanation
The correct answer is "Response, investigation, prosecution, and confinement." In the judicial process, the first phase is the response, where the authorities take action upon receiving a report or complaint. This is followed by the investigation phase, where evidence is gathered and analyzed to determine the facts of the case. The prosecution phase involves bringing the case to court and presenting evidence against the accused. Finally, the confinement phase refers to the period of incarceration or punishment for the convicted individual.Rate this question:
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- 46.
What type of crowd is identified as individuals or small groups with nothing in common to bind them together?
- A.
Casual.
- B.
Sighting.
- C.
Agitated.
- D.
Mob-like.
Correct Answer
A. Casual.Explanation
Casual is the correct answer because it refers to individuals or small groups who have nothing in common to bind them together. This suggests that they are not connected or united in any way, indicating a lack of common interests or purpose. The other options, such as sighting, agitated, and mob-like, do not accurately describe a crowd without any common bond.Rate this question:
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- 47.
The use of the riot baton is based on whose appraisal of the situation and his or her choice of force option?
- A.
Fire chief
- B.
Flight chief.
- C.
Commander
- D.
Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI).
Correct Answer
C. CommanderExplanation
The use of the riot baton is based on the commander's appraisal of the situation and his or her choice of force option. The commander is responsible for assessing the circumstances and determining the appropriate level of force required to maintain order and control during a riot. They have the authority to authorize the use of riot batons if they believe it is necessary to protect lives and property and restore peace.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Which riot control formation is used as an offensive formation to penetrate and split crowds into smaller groups?
- A.
Line.
- B.
Wedge
- C.
Circular.
- D.
Diamond.
Correct Answer
B. WedgeExplanation
The correct answer is Wedge. A wedge formation is used as an offensive formation in riot control to penetrate and split crowds into smaller groups. This formation involves a group of officers forming a triangle shape with the point of the triangle facing towards the crowd. The wide base of the triangle helps to push through the crowd, while the point of the triangle helps to divide and disperse the crowd. This formation is effective in creating openings and breaking up large groups of protesters.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Which Force Protection (FP) measure is taken to render a threat or hazard incapable of interfering with AF operations?
- A.
Deter
- B.
Detect.
- C.
Negate
- D.
Preempt
Correct Answer
C. NegateExplanation
Negate is the correct answer because it refers to the force protection measure taken to render a threat or hazard incapable of interfering with AF operations. This means that by negating the threat or hazard, it is effectively neutralized or eliminated, ensuring that it does not pose any danger or disruption to the operations of the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Which control authority is exercised through the subordinate joint force commanders or functional component commanders?
- A.
Military Control (MILCON).
- B.
Tactical Control (TACON).
- C.
Operational Control (OPCON).
- D.
Administrative Control (ADCON).
Correct Answer
C. Operational Control (OPCON).Explanation
Operational Control (OPCON) is the correct answer because it refers to the control authority exercised through subordinate joint force commanders or functional component commanders. This means that the higher-level commander has the authority to delegate operational control to these subordinate commanders, allowing them to direct and coordinate military operations within their assigned areas or functions. Tactical Control (TACON) refers to control authority over forces or tactical units for specific tactical missions or tasks, while Administrative Control (ADCON) refers to the authority to organize, administer, and support military forces. Military Control (MILCON) is not a recognized term in this context.Rate this question:
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