Defensor Fortis - Volume 2

100 Questions | Total Attempts: 48

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Defensor Fortis - Volume 2

5 level


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    In relations to mental preparedness to employ force, when personnel fear becoming the victim of close-range aggression or may have concerns about inflicting injury or death, this fear can cause.
    • A. 

      Selfishness.

    • B. 

      Higher awareness

    • C. 

      Insecurity and isolation

    • D. 

      Tentativeness and hesitation.

  • 2. 
    What level of force does the US Supreme Court hold as reasonable under the 4th Amendment as it pertains to law enforcement and security personnel in the context of making an arrest or other seizure of a person? Law enforcement and security personnel
    • A. 

      Have to apply the minimum force needed to apprehend the subject.

    • B. 

      Have to apply the least intrusive force to apprehend the subject.

    • C. 

      Must only use deadly force when the subject resist apprehension.

    • D. 

      Do not have to apply the least intrusive force alternative, only a reasonable one to apprehend the subject.

  • 3. 
    In which situation would you not be authorized to use deadly force?
    • A. 

      Protect inherently dangerous property.

    • B. 

      Protect assets vital to national security.

    • C. 

      Keep someone from breaking into a government vehicle.

    • D. 

      Protect others from imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm.

  • 4. 
    What are the standing rules of engagement (ROE) for US forces?
    • A. 

      Permits defenders to open fire upon all identified enemy targets.

    • B. 

      Permits defenders to fire weapons in self-defense, nation defense, or unit defense.

    • C. 

      Prohibits defenders to fire weapons in self-defense, nation defense, or unit defense.

    • D. 

      Requires defenders to get authorization before firing upon identified enemy targets.

  • 5. 
    What are the two distinct categories of rules of engagement (ROE)?
    • A. 

      See first and act first.

    • B. 

      First in and fit to fight.

    • C. 

      Defense of others and operationally fortified.

    • D. 

      Self-defense and mission accomplishment.

  • 6. 
    What should not be confused with rules of engagement (ROE) during peacetime operations within a US territory?
    • A. 

      Law of armed conflict.

    • B. 

      Rules for use of force.

    • C. 

      Operational orders.

    • D. 

      Operations plans.

  • 7. 
    Operations plans.
    • A. 

      Words are chosen carefully during a conversation.

    • B. 

      Words occur naturally during a conversation.

    • C. 

      The communicator reads it directly from a form.

    • D. 

      The communicator is in a hurry.

  • 8. 
    How do you place a suspect on foot into the final challenge position?
    • A. 

      Command, subject to “HALT,” bring your M4 carbine to port arms or your M9 pistol to ready pistol and contact BDOC for further direction to disposition of the individual.

    • B. 

      Command subject to slowly place identification on the ground then turn around and walk approximately six paces away from you.

    • C. 

      Command, “RAISE YOUR HANDS ABOVE YOUR HEAD, SPREAD YOUR FINGERS, AND SPREAD YOUR FEET, and POINT YOUR TOES OUTWARD. “

    • D. 

      Command, “RAISE YOUR HANDS ABOVE YOUR HEAD, SPREAD YOUR FINGERS, DROP TO YOUR KNEES, and CROSS YOUR FEET.”

  • 9. 
    Prior to applying handcuffs, you gain positive control of a subject by grasping the
    • A. 

      Back of the neck.

    • B. 

      Wrist of the farthest hand.

    • C. 

      Ring or middle finger.

    • D. 

      Wrist of the nearest hand.

  • 10. 
    When conducting a search of an individual, for quickness, your search should be
    • A. 

      Complete and simple.

    • B. 

      Systematic and simple.

    • C. 

      Complete and thorough.

    • D. 

      Systematic and thorough.

  • 11. 
    What type of search is primarily used on suspects who do not appear dangerous, violent, or so drunk they cannot stand under their own power?
    • A. 

      Wall.

    • B. 

      Prone.

    • C. 

      Kneeling.

    • D. 

      Standing.

  • 12. 
    When compared to deadly force, non-lethal force is subject to what type of standards?
    • A. 

      Same standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force.

    • B. 

      Lower standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force.

    • C. 

      Higher standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force.

    • D. 

      Different standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force.

  • 13. 
    What is the level of force necessary to compel a subject’s compliance and is neither likely nor intended to cause death?
    • A. 

      Minimum use of force.

    • B. 

      Maximum use of force.

    • C. 

      Transitional use of force.

    • D. 

      Intermediate use of force.

  • 14. 
    What combative technique is used to protect your head from strikes while in the ready stance?
    • A. 

      T-position.

    • B. 

      Shrimping.

    • C. 

      Comb blocks.

    • D. 

      Standup to base.

  • 15. 
    How do you attain weapons retention during a rear mount?
    • A. 

      By grabbing your weapon with your weapons side (WS) hand.

    • B. 

      By grabbing your weapon with your support side (SS) hand.

    • C. 

      By rolling onto support side (SS), keeping holstered weapon away from suspect.

    • D. 

      By rolling onto your Weapons Side (WS), keeping holstered weapon pinned against the ground.

  • 16. 
    To ensure the safety of the patrol officer and for legal precautions , what should you do before placing suspect in a Security Forces (SF) vehicle for transporting?
    • A. 

      Advise the suspect of rights.

    • B. 

      Handcuff the suspect’s hands in the front.

    • C. 

      Search or frisk the suspect for weapons and contraband.

    • D. 

      Have a second SF member ride in the back with the suspect.

  • 17. 
    What are the minimum requirements any time you are transporting a member of the opposite sex?
    • A. 

      Have an additional patrol officer as a passenger.

    • B. 

      Have a family member or friend ride in the front seat.

    • C. 

      Notify Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) of ending mileage.

    • D. 

      Have a second patrol officer follow you to Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC).

  • 18. 
    To whom do you release civilians who commit a minor offense in areas with concurrent jurisdiction?
    • A. 

      US Marshal.

    • B. 

      Military sponsor.

    • C. 

      Local law enforcement.

    • D. 

      Air Force Office of Special Investigations AFOSI.

  • 19. 
    What type of mandatory training is needed if you are armed with an expandable baton?
    • A. 

      Annual refresher.

    • B. 

      Quarterly refresher.

    • C. 

      Initial and annual refresher.

    • D. 

      Initial and semiannual refresher.

  • 20. 
    How long should a direct pepper spray burst at the subject’s facial area last?
    • A. 

      1 second.

    • B. 

      3 seconds.

    • C. 

      5 seconds.

    • D. 

      7 seconds.

  • 21. 
    How many barbed projectiles (probes) does the electronic control device (ECD) neuro- muscular incapacitation (NMI) system use when fired?
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Three

    • D. 

      Four

  • 22. 
    How do you read a grid map in order to find a grid coordinate?How do you read a grid map in order to find a grid coordinate?
    • A. 

      From top to bottom, left to right.

    • B. 

      From right to left, top to bottom.

    • C. 

      From left to right, bottom to top.

    • D. 

      From bottom to top, left to right.

  • 23. 
    Which agency assumes lead responsibilities for terrorist and high-risk incidents within US territories?
    • A. 

      Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI).

    • B. 

      Federal Bureau of Investigations (FBI).

    • C. 

      Department of Justice (DOJ).

    • D. 

      Department of State (DOS).

  • 24. 
    What must be established at each incident site?
    • A. 

      Cordon and entry control point (ECP).

    • B. 

      Secondary ECP.

    • C. 

      Cordon and operational rally point.

    • D. 

      Evacuation point.

  • 25. 
    What type of search consists of searching all areas of a vehicle without disassembling any part of the vehicle?
    • A. 

      Simple.

    • B. 

      Partial.

    • C. 

      Complete.

    • D. 

      Plainview.

  • 26. 
    How should you mark the boundary of mass parking and temporary restricted areas?
    • A. 

      Flat markers.

    • B. 

      Lights and cones.

    • C. 

      Elevated markers.

    • D. 

      Posted SF personnel.

  • 27. 
    What type of search consists of a much more detailed search and may often require partial or total disassembly of the vehicle?
    • A. 

      Simple.

    • B. 

      Partial.

    • C. 

      Complete.

    • D. 

      Plainview.

  • 28. 
    What must the SF on-scene commander (OSC) evaluate before making the decision on how to search an area?
    • A. 

      How to employ different types of searching techniques.

    • B. 

      Items to be searched, local law enforcement availability, and area.

    • C. 

      Situation, terrain, weather, light, and number of searchers available.

    • D. 

      D. Number of patrols available, weather, and if the unit commander concurs.

  • 29. 
    Which of the following is not a reason to make an entry without search authority?
    • A. 

      To secure an unlocked door.

    • B. 

      To prevent injury to persons.

    • C. 

      To render aid to someone in danger.

    • D. 

      To prevent serious damage to property.

  • 30. 
    When processing a crime scene, when would you normally cover the body of a deceased person?
    • A. 

      Before it has been fully processed for evidence.

    • B. 

      After it has been fully processed for evidence.

    • C. 

      After the coroner pronounces them dead.

    • D. 

      After the body has been photographed.

  • 31. 
    What are the two types of sketches normally made of the crime scene?
    • A. 

      Rough and refine.

    • B. 

      Partial and refined.

    • C. 

      Rough and finished.

    • D. 

      Partial and complete.

  • 32. 
    What document establishes the rules of evidence for the military?
    • A. 

      Federal Rules of Evidence.

    • B. 

      Manual for Courts Martial.

    • C. 

      Federal Statutes of Evidence.

    • D. 

      Uniform Code of Military Justice.

  • 33. 
    From whom must you obtain approval before disposing of crime scene evidence?
    • A. 

      Staff Judge Advocate (SJA).

    • B. 

      Defense Force Commander (DFC).

    • C. 

      Federal Bureau of Investigations (FBI).

    • D. 

      Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI).

  • 34. 
    Which Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) article covers the wrongful use and possession of a controlled substance?
    • A. 

      Article 92.

    • B. 

      Article 108.

    • C. 

      Article 112a.

    • D. 

      Article 123a.

  • 35. 
    When dealing with controlled substances, how is wrongfulness defined? An action done
    • A. 

      To show inability to take full responsibility for actions.

    • B. 

      Without legal justification or authorization.

    • C. 

      With full medical justification and authorization.

    • D. 

      With legal authorization and personal justification.

  • 36. 
    What agency has primary jurisdiction for serious child abuse or neglect involving infliction of serious bodily harm?
    • A. 

      Family Advocacy Officer (FAO).

    • B. 

      Federal Bureau of Investigations (FBI).

    • C. 

      Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC).

    • D. 

      Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI).

  • 37. 
    What form will be completed in all instances where an apprehension is made?
    • A. 

      AF Form 1109.

    • B. 

      AF Form 1297.

    • C. 

      AF Form 1920.

    • D. 

      AF Form 3545.

  • 38. 
    What is conducted during a domestic dispute/violence call to assess the immediate danger to family members and need for medical assistance or protective custody?
    • A. 

      Rights advisement.

    • B. 

      Complete search.

    • C. 

      Interrogation.

    • D. 

      Interview.

  • 39. 
    Which of the following is not one of the three types of child abuse?
    • A. 

      Neglect.

    • B. 

      Sexual abuse.

    • C. 

      Mental abuse.

    • D. 

      Physical abuse.

  • 40. 
    Child pornography and child prostitution are examples of what type of child abuse?
    • A. 

      Neglect.

    • B. 

      Sexual.

    • C. 

      Mental.

    • D. 

      Physical.

  • 41. 
    What type of child abuse is exemplified by not providing nourishment, deprivation of necessities, and not providing appropriate shelter, or clothing?
    • A. 

      Neglect.

    • B. 

      Sexual.

    • C. 

      Mental.

    • D. 

      Physical.

  • 42. 
    What characteristics you can show at your initial contact with a sexual assault/rape victim can make a difference in the emotional state of the victim?
    • A. 

      Your tact and poise.

    • B. 

      Your ability to cope.

    • C. 

      Your physical appearance.

    • D. 

      Your tone of voice and manners.

  • 43. 
    What is defined as a threat or attempt to strike another, whether successful or not, provided the target is aware of the danger?
    • A. 

      Aggravated Assault.

    • B. 

      Simple Assault.

    • C. 

      Assault.

    • D. 

      Battery.

  • 44. 
    What type of assault is punishable in all states as a felony and is committed when a defendant tends to do more than merely frighten the victim
    • A. 

      Aggravated assault.

    • B. 

      Simple assault.

    • C. 

      Assault

    • D. 

      Battery

  • 45. 
    What are the four phases of the judicial process in which you must brief all victims and witnesses on in the victim/witness assistance program?
    • A. 

      Notification, response, confinement, and release.

    • B. 

      Response, investigation, prosecution, and confinement

    • C. 

      Report, investigation, administrative action, confinement.

    • D. 

      Initial contact, administrative, prosecution, and confinement.

  • 46. 
    What type of crowd is identified as individuals or small groups with nothing in common to bind them together?
    • A. 

      Casual.

    • B. 

      Sighting.

    • C. 

      Agitated.

    • D. 

      Mob-like.

  • 47. 
     The use of the riot baton is based on whose appraisal of the situation and his or her choice of force option?
    • A. 

      Fire chief

    • B. 

      Flight chief.

    • C. 

      Commander

    • D. 

      Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI).

  • 48. 
    Which riot control formation is used as an offensive formation to penetrate and split crowds into smaller groups?
    • A. 

      Line.

    • B. 

      Wedge

    • C. 

      Circular.

    • D. 

      Diamond.

  • 49. 
    Which Force Protection (FP) measure is taken to render a threat or hazard incapable of interfering with AF operations?
    • A. 

      Deter

    • B. 

      Detect.

    • C. 

      Negate

    • D. 

      Preempt

  • 50. 
    Which control authority is exercised through the subordinate joint force commanders or functional component commanders?
    • A. 

      Military Control (MILCON).

    • B. 

      Tactical Control (TACON).

    • C. 

      Operational Control (OPCON).

    • D. 

      Administrative Control (ADCON).

  • 51. 
    Which type of lighting is a low illumination light used in nuclear restricted areas?
    • A. 

      Area lighting

    • B. 

      Boundary lighting.

    • C. 

      Special Purpose lighting.

    • D. 

      Very near infrared (VNIR).

  • 52. 
    How many feet apart would you display restricted area signs along restricted area boundaries?
    • A. 

      50 feet.

    • B. 

      75 feet.

    • C. 

      100 feet.

    • D. 

      125 feet.

  • 53. 
    What type of force is required at all installations supporting protection level (PL) 1, 2, or 3 resources?
    • A. 

      Security patrols

    • B. 

      Fire teams (FT).

    • C. 

      Alarm fire team (AFT)

    • D. 

      Security response team (SRT).

  • 54. 
    The letter “E” next to an unblocked number on a restricted area badge identify that an individual is authorized to
    • A. 

      Educate personnel in those restricted areas.

    • B. 

      Escort personnel into those restricted areas.

    • C. 

      Exclude personnel into those restricted areas.

    • D. 

      Employee personnel for those restricted areas

  • 55. 
    What type of sentries controls the entry into aircraft when the aircraft is carrying specific protection level (PL)1 assets?
    • A. 

      Close-in-sentry CIS)

    • B. 

      Flight line sentry (FLS).

    • C. 

      Installation Controller (EC)

    • D. 

      Close-boundary sentry (CBS).

  • 56. 
    How often must the approving authority review all permanent security deviations?
    • A. 

      Monthly

    • B. 

      Every six months

    • C. 

      Every year.

    • D. 

      Every two years.

  • 57. 
    What form is used to document security deviation and is submitted through command channels?
    • A. 

      AF Form 116

    • B. 

      AF Form 1315

    • C. 

      DD Form 1805.

    • D. 

      DD Form 2708.

  • 58. 
    At what level does the nuclear roadmap focuses primarily on the stewardship of the nuclear mission?
    • A. 

      Tactical.

    • B. 

      Financial.

    • C. 

      Operational

    • D. 

      Administrative.

  • 59. 
    What concept was designed to prevent a lone individual from having complete knowledge of the entire nuclear weapons launch function?
    • A. 

      Roadmap.

    • B. 

      Two-person.

    • C. 

      No-lone zone.

    • D. 

      Split knowledge.

  • 60. 
     In the case of a nuclear security system, three potential adversary groups of primary concern are criminals, protestors, and
    • A. 

      Vandals.

    • B. 

      Terrorists

    • C. 

      Psychotics.

    • D. 

      Trespassers.

  • 61. 
    Which nuclear weapons facility is the largest storage facility for nuclear weapons in the world?
    • A. 

      Lob Nur Nuclear (LUN) site in China

    • B. 

      Aldermaston Central Facility (ACF) in the United Kingdom

    • C. 

      Semipalatinsk Nuclear (SN) site in the Soviet Union/Russia.

    • D. 

      Kirtland Underground Munitions Maintenance Storage Complex (KUMMSC), USA

  • 62. 
    Vegetation in clear zones will not exceed how many inches in height inside restricted areas containing nuclear weapons storage facilities?
    • A. 

      24 inches

    • B. 

      16 inches.

    • C. 

      8 inches.

    • D. 

      4 inches.

  • 63. 
     Up to how many persons can be escorted inside an exclusion area per escort official?
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      6

    • C. 

      8

    • D. 

      10

  • 64. 
    Who ensures that the host installation meets Two-Person Concept (TPC) requirements and no-lone zones are delineated around nuclear logistics aircraft?
    • A. 

      Couriers.

    • B. 

      Load masters.

    • C. 

      Security Forces.

    • D. 

      Aircraft commanders

  • 65. 
    Only personnel certified through what program or the host-nation equivalent at a Weapons Storage and Security System (WS3) installations can be permitted unescorted entry into exclusion areas or can perform escort duties within exclusion areas?
    • A. 

      Nuclear Weapons Personnel Escort Program (PEP).

    • B. 

      Nuclear Weapons Personnel Protection Program (PPP).

    • C. 

      Nuclear Weapons Personnel Reliability Program (PRP).

    • D. 

      Nuclear Weapons Personnel Certification Program (PCP).

  • 66. 
    (DCNI) What security team is routinely dispatched with a missile maintenance team, provides security for a penetrated launch facility (LF), and establishes site security?
    • A. 

      Alert Fire Team (AFT).

    • B. 

      Mobile Fire Team (MFT).

    • C. 

      Camper Alert Team (CAT)

    • D. 

      Security Escort Team (SET).

  • 67. 
    What type of electronic sensor must consist of an approved balanced magnetic switch or other type of sensor capable of detecting intrusions at the opening?
    • A. 

      Point detection

    • B. 

      Motion detection

    • C. 

      Break-beam sensor.

    • D. 

      Break-wire sensor.

  • 68. 
    Who can make a judgment on the reliability of each individual identified for Personnel Reliability Program (PRP) duties?
    • A. 

      Flight chief.

    • B. 

      Flight commander

    • C. 

      Immediate supervisor.

    • D. 

      Certifying official

  • 69. 
    What are the two types of removal within the Personnel Reliability Program (PRP)?
    • A. 

      Deferral and suspension.

    • B. 

      Disqualification and deferral.

    • C. 

      Suspension and decertification.

    • D. 

      Temporary suspension and decertification.

  • 70. 
     What type of nuclear inspection assesses a unit’s ability to accomplish its assigned nuclear weapons mission and produce reliable nuclear weapons in a safe and secure environment in compliance with applicable directives?
    • A. 

      No-/minimal-notice inspections

    • B. 

      Nuclear surety inspection (NSI)

    • C. 

      Initial nuclear surety inspection (INSI)

    • D. 

      Nuclear weapons technical inspections (NWTI).

  • 71. 
    Which term defines a designated area immediately surrounding one or more nuclear weapons and/or systems?
    • A. 

      Limited area

    • B. 

      Restricted area

    • C. 

      Exclusion area.

    • D. 

      Controlled area.

  • 72. 
    What community policing philosophy helps improve the overall quality of life in a neighborhood?
    • A. 

      Involvement with local youth programs.

    • B. 

      Random calls to solve community problems.

    • C. 

      A zero tolerance approach to handling crime

    • D. 

      Greater community voice in setting police priorities.

  • 73. 
    Which crime prevention program allows some people to report their observations to police only when they know they can remain anonymous?
    • A. 

      Youth services

    • B. 

      Operation crime stop.

    • C. 

      Neighborhood watch.

    • D. 

      Operation identification

  • 74. 
    What does “Code Three” indicate when Security Forces personnel are making an emergency response?
    • A. 

      No emergency lights.

    • B. 

      Use of emergency lights only.

    • C. 

      Use of emergency lights and siren

    • D. 

      Use of emergency lights, siren, and public address system

  • 75. 
    How do you accomplish a double abreast position during a high-risk traffic stop?
    • A. 

      Patrol vehicle parks at a 45-degree angle, perpendicular to the curb line.

    • B. 

      Park primary vehicle directly behind the violator, front wheels turned to the left

    • C. 

      Backup patrol vehicle parks parallel and to the right or left of the primary patrol vehicle.

    • D. 

      Park primary and backup vehicles behind the suspect vehicle at a distance of 30 to 40 feet.

  • 76. 
    How should you position your vehicle at the scene of an accident?
    • A. 

      . As close as you can get to the accident scene

    • B. 

      So it controls the traffic flow around the accident

    • C. 

      Away from the scene to prevent damage by debris

    • D. 

      To protect the scene and injured persons while not creating a traffic hazard.

  • 77. 
    When directing traffic on a very narrow or one-way street, it is best for you to stand
    • A. 

      next to your vehicle

    • B. 

      in the center of the road

    • C. 

      Off to the side of the road.

    • D. 

      in the center of the intersection.

  • 78. 
    Speed measuring devices are used to control speed, increase compliance with traffic laws, and
    • A. 

      Issue citations

    • B. 

      Conduct speed studies

    • C. 

      Train new Security Forces members.

    • D. 

      Comply with the installation commander’s orders.

  • 79. 
     It is important that you receive official certification of your qualifications and training standards when training on speed measuring devices so the evidence is admissible
    • A. 

      in a military court only.

    • B. 

      In a civilian court only.

    • C. 

      in both a civilian and military court.

    • D. 

      to the Defense Force Commander.

  • 80. 
    What shape is the radio wave energy transmitted by police traffic RADAR concentrated into?
    • A. 

      Cone

    • B. 

      Circle

    • C. 

      Rectangle

    • D. 

      Straight line.

  • 81. 
    Security Forces personnel use the Standard Field Sobriety Tests (SFST) approved by the
    • A. 

      Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms.(ATF).

    • B. 

      Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI).

    • C. 

      Federal Law Enforcement Officers Association (FLEOA).

    • D. 

      National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA).

  • 82. 
     Prior to using any alcohol or chemical detection equipment, you must advise the suspects
    • A. 

      of the implied consent policy

    • B. 

      Of their right to speak to a lawyer

    • C. 

      that drivers cannot refuse a breath test

    • D. 

      That their test results cannot be used against them.

  • 83. 
    How long must you observe a person before collecting a breath specimen?
    • A. 

      10 minutes.

    • B. 

      20 minutes.

    • C. 

      30 minutes

    • D. 

      40 minutes.

  • 84. 
    Once completed, who is given the second copy of the AF Form 52, Evidence Tag?
    • A. 

      Person relinquishing possession of the property

    • B. 

      Person who obtained or collected the property.

    • C. 

      Property custodian.

    • D. 

      Chief investigator.

  • 85. 
    What happens to the original copy of AF Form 75, Visitor/Vehicle Pass, once you have completed it?
    • A. 

      It is dispose of the form because it is not required to be maintained.

    • B. 

      It is maintained at the entry control point.

    • C. 

      It is filed at pass and registration

    • D. 

      It is given to the individual.

  • 86. 
    In how many copies is the AF Form 1109, Visitor Registration Log, prepared?
    • A. 

      One.

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Three

    • D. 

      Four

  • 87. 
     How many sections does the AF Form 1168, Statement of Suspect/Witness/Complainant, have?
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      6

    • C. 

      8

    • D. 

      10

  • 88. 
    On the reverse side of the AF Form 1176, Authority to Search and Seize, or bond sheet of paper, you must write or type a
    • A. 

      List of items to be searched.

    • B. 

      Probable cause statement.

    • C. 

      List of questions to ask suspect.

    • D. 

      Statement made by the suspect.

  • 89. 
    A traffic accident is classified as a major traffic accident anytime
    • A. 

      A government vehicle is involved

    • B. 

      More than two vehicles are involved

    • C. 

      An accident involves a fatality, injury, or property damage above the amount established by the installation commander.

    • D. 

      A Security Force member who has completed the Traffic Management and Collision Investigation Course conducts a minor traffic investigation.

  • 90. 
    What must you do if during a search, the individual withdraws a previous consent to search?
    • A. 

      Continue the search since the suspect has already agreed to it.

    • B. 

      Keep searching because the 5th Amendment does not allow suspect to withdraw consent.

    • C. 

      Get authorization from Flight Chief to continue.

    • D. 

      Terminate the search immediately

  • 91. 
    Who uses section VII, administrative disposition, of AF Form 3545, Incident Report?
    • A. 

      Suspects commander

    • B. 

      Staff Judge Advocate (SJA)

    • C. 

      Security Forces Reports & Analyses.

    • D. 

      Air Force Office of Investigations (AFOSI).

  • 92. 
    The AF Form 3907, Security Forces Field Interview Data is used to record
    • A. 

      Interviews between a Security Force member and a suspect

    • B. 

      Interviews between a Security Force member and a complainant.

    • C. 

      Routine contact between Security Force members and members of the public

    • D. 

      Emergency contact between Security Force members and members of the public.

  • 93. 
    DD Form 1408, Armed Forces Traffic Ticket, is issued to someone who
    • A. 

      Causes an accident on-base and is a non-military member.

    • B. 

      Has been involved and is at fault in a vehicle accident.

    • C. 

      Causes an accident on-base and is a military member

    • D. 

      Commits a moving or non-moving traffic offense.

  • 94. 
    What copy of the DD Form 1408, Armed Forces Traffic Ticket, is given to the violator or affixed to the violator’s vehicle if the vehicle is unattended?
    • A. 

      Red

    • B. 

      Pink.

    • C. 

      White

    • D. 

      Yellow.

  • 95. 
    Who is the only person authorized to void the DD Form 1805, United States District Court Violation Notice?
    • A. 

      Flight Chief.

    • B. 

      Issuing patrol officer.

    • C. 

      Staff Judge Advocate

    • D. 

      Defense Force Commander.

  • 96. 
    Where on DD Form 1920, Alcohol Incident Report, would you annotate the results of a suspect’s blood alcohol chemical test?
    • A. 

      Section I, Suspect’s Data.

    • B. 

      Section II, Initial Contact.

    • C. 

      Section III, Standardization Field Sobriety Testing.

    • D. 

      Section IV, Synopsis.

  • 97. 
    You use the DD Form 2708, Receipt for Pre-Trial/Post-Trial Prisoner or Detained Person, when
    • A. 

      A First Sergeant is releasing an individual who has been detained or apprehended

    • B. 

      Security Forces personnel are releasing an individual who has been detained or apprehended.

    • C. 

      Civil law enforcement is releasing a military individual who has been detained or apprehended

    • D. 

      Federal law enforcement personnel are releasing a military individual who has been detained or apprehended.

  • 98. 
    What is the primary method for identifying observations and potential lessons identified?
    • A. 

      After action report.

    • B. 

      After execution report

    • C. 

      Plaining objective report.

    • D. 

      Teaching objective reports

  • 99. 
    Within how many days from the event it refers will an After Action Report be submitted?
    • A. 

      15.

    • B. 

      30

    • C. 

      45.

    • D. 

      60.

  • 100. 
    When you write a well-written incident report that answers the six basic questions of who, what, when, where, why, and how, this report fulfills the characteristic of being
    • A. 

      Concise.

    • B. 

      Accurate.

    • C. 

      Objective.

    • D. 

      Complete.